2.35 Calculate Vo and Io in the circuit of Fig. 2.99

Answer:

20368.917N

Explanation:

Frictional force (F) is the product of the Coefficient of friction and the normal reaction.

F = μN

Coefficient of friction, μ = 0.2

Normal reaction = MgCosθ

Mass, m = 12 tonnes = 12 * 1000 = 12000 kg

N = 12000 * 9.8 * cos30

N = 101844.58

F = 0.2 * 101844.58

F = 20368.917N

Answer:

Explanation:

From the given information:

The equation for applied stress can be expressed as:

[tex]\sigma_{app} = \dfrac{\tau_{CRSS}}{cos \phi \ cos \lambda}[/tex]

where;

[tex]\phi[/tex] = angle between the applied stress [100] and [111]

To determine the [tex]\phi[/tex] and [tex]\lambda[/tex] for the system

Using the equation:

[tex]\phi= cos^{-1}\Big [\dfrac{l_1l_2+m_1m_2+n_1n_2}{\sqrt{(l_1^2+m_1^2+n_1^2)(l_2^2+m_2^2+n_2^2)}}\Big][/tex]

for [100]

[tex]l_1 = 1, m_1 = 0, n_1 = 0[/tex]

for [111]

[tex]l_1 = 1 , m_1 = 1, n_1 = 1[/tex]

Thus;

[tex]\phi= cos^{-1}\Big [\dfrac{1*1+0*1+0*1}{\sqrt{(1^2+0^2+0^2)(1^2+1^2+1^2)}}\Big][/tex]

[tex]\phi= cos^{-1}\Big [\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{(3)}}\Big][/tex]

[tex]\phi= 54.74^0[/tex]

To determine  [tex]\lambda[/tex]  for [tex][1 \overline 1 0][/tex]

where;

for [100]

[tex]l_1 = 1, m_1 = 0, n_1 = 0[/tex]

for [tex][1 \overline 1 0][/tex]

[tex]l_1 = 1 , m_1 = -1, n_1 = 0[/tex]

Thus;

[tex]\lambda= cos^{-1}\Big [\dfrac{1*1+0*1+0*0}{\sqrt{(1^2+0^2+0^2)(1^2+(-1)^2+0^2)}}\Big][/tex]

[tex]\phi= cos^{-1}\Big [\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{(2)}}\Big][/tex]

[tex]\phi= 45^0[/tex]

Thus, the magnitude of the applied stress can be computed as:

[tex]\sigma_{app} = \dfrac{\tau_{CRSS}}{cos \phi \ cos \lambda }[/tex]

[tex]\sigma_{app} = \dfrac{2.00}{cos (54.74) \ cos (45) }[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{\sigma_{app} =4.89 \ MPa}[/tex]

Answer:

attached below

Explanation:

Given data:

Gaged flow = 52 m^3 / sec

Depth covering drainage area = 1450 km^2

Develop a 24-hour rainfall duration unit hydrograph for the watershed using observed hydorgraph

Runoff flow = gaged flow - base flows

                   = 52 - 52 = 0 m^3/sec

For 18 hours time duration

Direct runoff volume ( Vr ) = ∑ ( QΔt1 )

where Δt = 6

           ∑Q = 3666 m^3/sec

hence Vr = Δt * ∑Q  = 79185600 m^3

Next we will convert the Direct runoff volume to its equivalent depth covering the drainage area

= Vr / drainage area depth

= 79185600 / 1450000000 = 5.46 cm

Next we will find the unit hydrograph flows by applying the relation below

[tex]Q_{1.0cm} = Q_{5.46cm} (\frac{1.0cm}{5.46cm} )[/tex]

where 14m^3/sec = [tex]Q_{5.6cm}[/tex]

input value back to the above relation

[tex]Q_{1.0cm} = 2.57 m^3/sec[/tex]

Attached below is The remaining part of the solution  tabulated below

and A graph of the unit hydorgraph for the given watershed

Note :

Base  flow total = 1560

UH total = 671.30

Answer:

The correct option is - A categorical syllogism argues that A and B are both members of C whereas a conditional syllogism argues that if A is true then B is also true.

Explanation:

As,

Categorical syllogisms follow an "If A is part of C, then B is part of C" logic.

Conditional syllogisms follow an "If A is true, then B is true" pattern of logic.

So,

The correct option is - A categorical syllogism argues that A and B are both members of C whereas a conditional syllogism argues that if A is true then B is also true.

Answer:

shrinkae limit = 20.35%

shrinkage ratio = 1.45

Explanation:

1. to get the shrinkage limit we would first calculate the moisture content w.

w = (37-28)/28

= 9/28

= 0.3214

then the formula for shrinkage limit is

[tex][w-\frac{(V-Vd}{wd} ]*100[/tex]

w = 0.3214

V = 19.3

Vd = 16

Wd = 28

when we put these values into the formula:

[tex][0.3214-\frac{(19.3-16)}{28} ]*100\\[/tex]

= 20.35%

2. the shrinkage limit = Wd/V

= 28/19.3

= 1.45

Answer:

d.

Explanation:

Solution :

Assuming that the wire has an uniform temperature, the equivalent convective heat transfer coefficient is given as :

[tex]$h_T= \epsilon \sigma (T_s+T_{surr})(T_s^2 +T^2_{surr})$[/tex]

[tex]$h_T= 0.20 \times 5.67 \times 10^{-8} (1473+323)(1473^2 +323^2)$[/tex]

[tex]$h_T=46.3 \ W/m^2 .K$[/tex]

The total heat transfer coefficient will be :

[tex]$h_T=(250+46.3) \ W/m^2 .K$[/tex]

    [tex]$=296.3 \ W/m^2 .K$[/tex]

Now calculating the maximum volumetric heat generation :

[tex]$\dot {q}_{max}=\frac{2h_t}{r_0}(T_s-T_{\infty})$[/tex]

[tex]$\dot {q}_{max}=\frac{2\times 296.3}{0.0005}(1200-50)$[/tex]

        [tex]$= 1.362 \times 10^{9} \ W/m^3$[/tex]

The heat generation inside the wire is given as :

[tex]$\dot{q} = \frac{I^2R}{V}$[/tex]

Here, R is the resistance of the wire

         V is the volume of the wire

∴ [tex]$\dot{q} = \frac{I^2\left( \rho \times \frac{L}{A} \right)}{A \times L}$[/tex]

     [tex]$=\frac{I^2 \rho}{\left(\frac{\pi}{4}D^2 \right)}$[/tex]

where, ρ is the resistivity.

[tex]$I_{max}= \left(\frac{\dot{q}_{max}}{\rho} \right)^{1/2} \times \frac{\pi}{4}D^2$[/tex]

[tex]$I_{max}= \left(\frac{1.36 \times 10^9}{10^{-6}} \right)^{1/2} \times \frac{3.14}{4}(1 \times 10^{-3})^2$[/tex]

        = 28.96 A

Now considering the relation for the current flow through the finite potential difference.

[tex]$E=I_{max} \times R$[/tex]

[tex]$E=I_{max} \times \rho \times \frac{L}{A}$[/tex]

[tex]$L=\frac{AE}{I_{max} \ \rho}$[/tex]

[tex]$L=\frac{\frac{\pi}{4} \times (1 \times 10^{-3})^2 \times 110}{28.96 \times 10^{-6}}$[/tex]

   = 2.983 m

Now calculating the power rating of the heater:

[tex]$P= E \times I_{max}$[/tex]

[tex]$P= 110 \times 28.96}$[/tex]

   = 3185.6 W

   = 3.1856 kW

scrity añao devid codicie

Answer:

this is your answer. if mistake don't mind.

Answer:

A PULLY

Explanation:

HAD THIS ONE THAT IS THE CORRECT ANWSER

Answer:

The answer is B. a pulley

Explanation:

I hope I answered your question:)

Answer:

I dont know the answer either

Explanation:

Answer:

flux

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:

A scenario is an actual sequence of interactions (i.e., an instance) describing one specific situation; a use case is a general sequence of interactions (i.e., a class) describing all possible scenarios associated with a situation. Scenarios are used as examples and for clarifying details with the client. Use cases are used as complete descriptions to specify a user task or a set of related system features.

Answer:

u need to plan it out

Explanation:

u need to plan it out

Answer:

use the turn 1 degrees option and put a repeat loop on it

Explanation:

u can add sound in ur loop

Answer:

Burj Khalifa is located in dubai UAE at over 828m

Explanation:

828 metres

Answer:

The Burji Khalifa, known as the Burj Dubai prior to its inauguration in 2010, is a skyscraper in Dubai, United Arab Emirates. With a total hight of 829.8 m and a roof hight of 828 m, the Burji Khalifa has been the tallest structure and building in the world since its topping out in 2009.

To solve this problem, we can use the ideal gas law and the equation for polytropic process.

The ideal gas law is a fundamental law of physics that describes the behavior of an ideal gas. It relates the pressure, volume, temperature, and number of particles of a gas using the following equation:

PV = nRT

a) First, we need to find the mass of the carbon dioxide in the tank. The ideal gas law is:

PV = mRT

where P is the pressure, V is the volume, m is the mass, R is the universal gas constant, and T is the temperature. Rearranging for the mass, we get:

m = PV / RT

Substituting the given values, we have:

m = (200 kPa)(0.3 m3) / [(0.287 kPam3/kgK)(27°C + 273.15)] = 3.87 kg

So the mass of the carbon dioxide in the tank is 3.87 kg.

b) To determine the work done by the gas during the process, we can use the equation for polytropic process:

P1V1^n = P2V2^n

where P1 and V1 are the initial pressure and volume, P2 and V2 are the final pressure and volume, and n is the polytropic index. Substituting the given values, we have:

(200 kPa)(0.3 m3)^n = (4)(0.6 m3)^n

Dividing both sides by (0.3 m3)^n and taking the logarithm of both sides, we get:

log(200) + nlog(0.3) = log(4) + nlog(0.6)

Solving for n, we get:

n = log(4/200) / log(0.6/0.3) ≈ 1.235

Using the polytropic work equation:

W = (P2V2 - P1V1) / (1 - n)

Substituting the given values, we have:

W = [(4 kPa)(0.6 m3) - (200 kPa)(0.3 m3)] / (1 - 1.235) = 233.7 kJ

So the work done by the gas during the process is 233.7 kJ.

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Answer:

-2 and 6

Explanation:

Let "x" and "y" be 2 numbers.

The sum of the two numbers is 4. The mathematical expression is:

x + y = 4

y = 4 - x   [1]

The sum of their squares minus three times their product is 76. The mathematical expression is:

x² + y² - 3 x y = 76   [2]

If we substitute [1] in [2], we get:

x² + (4 - x)² - 3 x (4 - x) = 76

x² + 16 - 8 x + x² - 12 x + 3 x² = 76

5 x² - 20 x - 60 = 0

We apply the solving formula for second order equations and we get x₁ = 6 and x₂ = -2.

If we replace these x values in [1], we get:

y₁ = 4 - x₁ = 4 - 6 = -2

y₂ = 4 - x₂ = 4 - (-2) = 6

As a consequence, one of the numbers is 6 and the other is -2.

Answer:

Both

Explanation:

Answer:

the answer. for this is Crankshaft

Answer:

Total time taken = 0.769 hour

Explanation:

using the velocity method

for sheet flow ;

Tt = [tex]\frac{0.007(nl)^{0.8} }{(Pl)^{5}s^{0.4} }[/tex]  

Tt = travel time

n = manning CaH

Pl = 25years

L = how length ( ft )

s = slope

For Location ( 1 )

s = 0.045

L = 1000 ft

n = 0.06 ( from manning's coefficient table )

Tt1 = 0.128 hour

For Location ( 2 )

s = 2.5 %

L= 750

n = 0.13

Tt2 = 0.239 hour

For Location ( 3 )

s = 1.5%

L = 500 ft

n = 0.15

Tt3 = 0.237  hour

For Location (4)

s = 0.5 %

L = 250 ft

n = 0.011

Tt4 = 0.165 hour

hence the Total time taken = Tt1 + Tt2 + Tt3 + Tt4

                                              = 0.128 + 0.239 + 0.237 + 0.165 = 0.769 hour

Answer:

day if you workout without Zero billing that means you're not sweating. Sweating you're not losing anything that means you have zero outcomes

Explanation:

Solution :

Finding the cohesion of the soil(c) using the relation:

[tex]$c = \frac{q_u}{2}$[/tex]

Here, [tex]$q_u$[/tex] is the unconfined compression strength of the soil;

[tex]$c = \frac{800}{2}$[/tex]

   = 400 psf

∴ The cohesion value is greater than 0

So the use of the angle of internal friction is 0

Referring to the table relation between bearing capacity factors and angle of internal friction.

For the angle of inter friction [tex]$0^\circ$[/tex]

    [tex]$N_c = 5.14$[/tex]

   [tex]$N_q = 1.0$[/tex]

   [tex]$N_r = 0$[/tex]

Therefore,

[tex]$q_{ult} = (400 \times 5.14 )+(110 \times 3 \times 1.0)+(0.5 \times 100 \times 13 \times 0)$[/tex]

     =  2386 psf

∴ Allowable bearing capacity [tex]$q_{a} = \frac{Q_{allow}}{A}$[/tex]

                                                     [tex]$=\frac{30}{B^2}$[/tex]

∴ [tex]$q_a = \frac{q_{ult}}{F.O.S}$[/tex]

  [tex]$\frac{30}{B^2} = \frac{2386}{3}$[/tex]

∴ B = 0.2 ft

Therefore, the dimension of the square footing is 0.2 ft x 0.2 ft

                                                                                 [tex]$=0.04 \ ft^2$[/tex]

Solution :

Given :

[tex]$V_1 = 7 \ m/s$[/tex]

Operation time, [tex]$T_1$[/tex] = 3000 hours per year

[tex]$V_2 = 10 \ m/s$[/tex]

Operation time, [tex]$T_2$[/tex] = 2000 hours per year

The density, ρ = [tex]$1.25 \ kg/m^3$[/tex]

The wind blows steadily. So, the K.E. = [tex]$(0.5 \dot{m} V^2)$[/tex]

                                                             [tex]$= \dot{m} \times 0.5 V^2$[/tex]

The power generation is the time rate of the kinetic energy which can be calculated as follows:

Power = [tex]$\Delta \ \dot{K.E.} = \dot{m} \frac{V^2}{2}$[/tex]

Regarding that [tex]$\dot m \propto V$[/tex]. Then,

Power [tex]$ \propto V^3$[/tex] → Power = constant x [tex]$V^3$[/tex]

Since, [tex]$\rho_a$[/tex] is constant for both the sites and the area is the same as same winf turbine is used.

For the first site,

Power, [tex]$P_1= \text{const.} \times V_1^3$[/tex]

            [tex]$P_1 = \text{const.} \times 343 \ W$[/tex]

For the second site,

Power, [tex]$P_2 = \text{const.} \times V_2^3 \ W$[/tex]

           [tex]$P_2 = \text{const.} \times 1000 \ W$[/tex]

Answer: the engineers are performing a tensile test

Explanation:

i took the test and got it right

Answer:

a.

y[n] = x[n] x[n-1]  x[n+1]

(i) Memory-less - It is not memory-less because the given system is depend on past or future values.

(ii) Causal - It is non-casual because the present value of output depend on the future value of input.

(iii) Invertible - It is invertible and the inverse of the given system is [tex]\frac{1}{x[n] . x[n-1] x[n+1]}[/tex]

(iv) Stable - It is stable because for all the bounded input, output is bounded.

(v) Time invariant - It is not time invariant because the system is multiplying with a time varying function.

b.

y[n] = cos(x[n])

(i) Memory-less - It is memory-less because the given system is not depend on past or future values.

(ii) Causal - It is casual because the present value of output does not depend on the future value of input.

(iii) Invertible - It is not invertible because two or more than two input values can generate same output values .

For example - for x[n] = 0 , y[n] = cos(0) = 1

                       for x[n] = 2[tex]\pi[/tex] , y[n] = cos(2[tex]\pi[/tex]) = 1

(iv) Stable - It is stable because for all the bounded input, output is bounded.

(v) Time invariant - It is time invariant because the system is not multiplying with a time varying function.

Answer:

0.6727

-0.02017

Explanation:

diameter = 15.7

l = 178

E =elastic modulus = 67.1 Gpa

poisson ratio = 0.34

p = force = 49100N

first we calculate the area of the cross section

[tex]A=\frac{\pi }{4} d^{2}[/tex]

[tex]A=\frac{\pi }{4} (15.7)^{2} \\A = \frac{774.683}{4} \\[/tex]

A = 193.6mm²

1. Change in directon of the applied stress

[tex]= \frac{pl}{AE}[/tex]

= 49100*178/193.6*67.1*10³

= [tex]=\frac{8739800}{12990560}[/tex]

δl = 0.6727  mm

2. change in diameter of the specimen

equation for poisson distribution =

m = -(δd/d) / (δl/l)

0.34 = (δd/15.7) / (0.6727/178)

0.34 = (-δd * 178) / 15.7 * 0.6727

0.34 = -178δd / 10.56139

we cross multiply

10.56139*0.34 =-178δd

3.5908726 = -178δd

δd = 3.5908726/-178

δd = -0.02017 mm

the change in dimeter has a negative sign. it decreases

Answer:

AC

Explanation:

One situation when alternating current would work better than direct current is if the operator is encountering magnetic arc blow.

Current works best when the operator  encounters magnetic arc blow is AC

Magnetic arc blow is simply defined as the arc deflection due to the warping of the magnetic field that is produced by electric arc current.

This is caused as a result of the following;

- if the material being welded has residual magnetism at an intolerable level

- When the weld root is being made, and the welding current is direct current which indicates constant direction and maintains constant polarity (either positive or negative).

Thus, Current works best when the operator  encounters magnetic arc blow is AC

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