An electroencephalogram (EEG) is used to record electrical activity in the brain.
An electroencephalogram (EEG) is a medical procedure that is used to measure and record the electrical activity of the brain. It is often used to detect any abnormal electrical activity that may be related to neurological disorders such as epilepsy, dementia, and sleep disorders.
The EEG uses electrodes placed on the scalp to detect and measure the electrical activity of the brain. The test is non-invasive and is often used to help diagnose and monitor certain neurological conditions. An EEG is a valuable tool for medical professionals as it can provide valuable insight into the electrical activity of the brain.
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What is the oucher pain scale?
The Oucher pain scale is a tool used to help children and adults who have Difficulty communicating their level of pain. It uses photographs to help the Individual identify and communicate the level of pain they are Experiencing.
The Oucher pain scale typically consists of six to ten photographs of Children's faces, arranged in a line from a smiling face to a crying face. The Photographs are usually accompanied by a numerical rating system, with The smiling face being assigned a low number (such as 0) and the crying Face being assigned a high number (such as 10).
When the individual is asked to rate their pain, they can point to the Photograph that best represents the intensity of their pain. It is a helpful Tool for assessing pain in a standardized and objective way.
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the primary problem in hyperkalemia is that ____
A. neurons respond too quickly to smaller graded potentials. B. neurons are harder to excite because their resting potential is hyperpolarized. C. neurons are easier to excite because their resting potential is closer to threshold. D. neurons are easier to excite because their resting potential is closer to threshold and neurons respond too quickly to smaller graded potentials. E. neurons are harder to excite because their resting potential is hyperpolarized and neurons respond too quickly to smaller graded potentials.
Primary problem with hyperkalemia is that neurons are hyper excitable because the resting potential is closer to the threshold, and you don’t respond quickly to smaller graded potential, hence option (D) is correct.
In hyperkalemia, the membrane resting potential falls and it partially depolarizes. This first makes the membrane more excitable. The cell membrane will, however, become more resistive and less likely to fully depolarize with continuous depolarization.
A serum or plasma-potassium level beyond the top limits of normal, often larger than 5.0 mEq/L to 5.5 mEq/L, is referred to as hyperkalemia. High potassium levels can result in life-threatening cardiac-arrhythmias, muscular weakness, or paralysis even though moderate hyperkalemia is typically asymptomatic.
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fill in the blank. ___ is a strong risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes, and is diagnosed if certain criteria are met, including large waist circumference, elevated blood pressure, elevated blood glucose, and unhealthful blood lipid levels.
Metabolic syndrome is a strong risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes and is diagnosed if certain criteria are met, including large waist circumference, elevated blood pressure, elevated blood glucose, and unhealthful blood lipid levels.
Metabolic syndrome, also called syndrome X, is a cluster of conditions that increase the risk of stroke, heart attack, and diabetes. Some of these conditions are:
High blood sugar High blood pressure Excess body fat (located around the waist) Abnormal cholesterol levelTreatment for metabolic syndrome usually includes physical exercise, a healthy diet, smoking cessation, and prescribed medication. If left untreated, syndrome X may last for years or even lifelong.
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What is the ICD-10 code for infected skin tag?
Various hypertrophic diseases of the skin, ICD-10-CM code L91. 8. You do not use another code for a skin disturbance or anything similar since you are just trying to find a pay-per-click way to say skin tag.
A skin tag is simply L91. 8. The cost of cosmetic operations is not covered. Removal of benign skin lesions is permitted without prior approval as long as it meets the requirements listed below. Skin tag removal is not covered by Paramount HMO, PPO, or Individual Marketplace (procedures 11200 & 11201). According to the WHO, ICD-10 code A49. 9 for Bacterial infection, unspecified falls under the category of "Some infectious and parasitic disorders."
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what is ambien generic name
The generic name of Ambien is Zolpidem
Zolpidem (generic Ambien) is a drug commonly used to treat insomnia. It can help a person to fall asleep and stay asleep allover the night. Taking Zolpidem can have serious side effects, including falls, behavior changes, and excessive sleepiness. Zolpidem is very much useful in treating insomnia (difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep). Zolpidem belongs to a class of drugs called sedative-hypnotics. It will work by slowing the brain activity to allow sleep. Zolpidem, commonly known as Ambien, slows down brain activity and allows you to fall asleep. The extended-release version has two tiers. The first helps you fall asleep and the second slowly dissolves to help you fall asleep.
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What is the 3 times a day medical abbreviation?
Three times a day medical abbreviation is t.d.s. ter die sumendum.
In general , When the medicine label written on the medicine is prescribed to take three times day it significantly means 'to take the medicine every 8 hours'. Also if we divide 8 hours into 24 hours it will give us 3 equals divisions . so, if a medication says three times daily that means every eight hours. If it's four times daily It should be taken at every six hours.
Like wise , b.i.d. is medical abbreviation used to prescribe two times a day b.i.d. stands for "bis in die" . Also, q.i.d state for four times a day as q.i.d. stands for "quater in die" .
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26 g for girls and 38 g for boys (ages 14-18); tough complex carbohydrate that the body cannot digest; aids digestion, reduces disease risk
Tough complex carbohydrates or carbohydrates high in fiber.
Examples - Fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and legumes are the main sources of fiber.
The body is unable to digest fiber, which is a form of carbohydrate.
By limiting the amount of fat and cholesterol your body absorbs, fiber lowers your triglyceride and cholesterol levels, minimizing your risk of heart disease.
A high-fiber diet seems to lower the chance of acquiring a number of illnesses, including colon cancer, diverticular disease, heart disease, diabetes, and diverticular disease.
Fiber improves fullness and lowers food intake at subsequent meals. Fiber is crucial for the functioning of the digestive system and for decreasing cholesterol.
The significance of gut fermentation, modifications to the gut microbiota, and changes in metabolites are associated with a lower risk of problems associated with obesity.
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What is 3 times a day in medical terms?
In medical terms, "3 times a day" is often abbreviated as "TID", which Stands for "ter in die" in Latin. "Ter in die" means "three times a day", and This is a common dosing schedule for medications, particularly oral Medications.
A medicine written three times daily has enough leeway in its dosing Regimen that it may be taken morning/noon/night at the patient’s Convenience. In these cases, taking the medication an hour or two Earlier or later will not affect the medication’s effectiveness.
A medicine that needs exact timing would be written every eight hours, Sometimes with exact instructions, such as 7 a.m. / 3 p.m. / 11 p.m. Every Six hours is not so easy for a person at home to do, and fortunately, There aren’t many drugs that need precise dosing every six hours.
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What is the ICD-10 for allergies?
The ICD-10 code for allergies is T78.4. Allergies are classified as medical condition that causes the body to respond to a normally harmless substance as if it were harmful. This response is known as an allergic reaction.
The ICD-10 code for allergies is T78.4XXA. This code is used to denote an allergic reaction that is unspecified and is used when a more specific code is not available. The ICD-10 is a system of medical classification used by healthcare professionals to code diagnoses, symptoms, and procedures. It is important to use the correct code in order to accurately document and track patient care.
Allergies are a common condition that can cause a range of symptoms, from mild to severe, and can be caused by a variety of substances, such as pollen, dust, food, and medications. If you have allergies, it is important to work with your healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment and to properly document your condition using the ICD-10 code.
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According to the notes below the Maternity Care and Delivery subsection of Surgery, which service is included in codes reported for maternity care and delivery?
b. Episiotomy
Services included in the maternity and delivery care code are b. Episiotomy
What is an episiotomy?Episiotomy is an incision in a woman's perineum which is carried out during labor with the aim of enlarging the vaginal orifice and preventing perineal rupture. Episiotomy is performed using scissors when the perineum is distended and just before the fetal head is crowned.
This procedure is performed routinely to prevent OASIS both normal and in cases of short perineum, macrosomia, long second stage, history of OASIS, shoulder dystocia, and malpresentation.
Of the 7 types of episiotomy techniques, only 2 techniques are often performed, namely the medial and mediolateral techniques. This service is included in the code of maternity care as well as childbirth.
Your question is not complete, maybe what your question means is :
According to the notes below the Maternity Care and Delivery subsection of Surgery, which service is included in codes reported for maternity care and delivery?
a. Caesar
b. Episiotomy
c. Abruptio Plasenta
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what is caud medical term?
Answer: Caud is a prefix denoting tail, or hind/posterior part of the body.
Explanation:
Four places aside from a medical office where venipuncture may take place.
Four places aside from the medical office where venipuncture can happen are the blood banks, hospitals, clinics and reference laboratories.
Venipuncture can be basically a procedure which involves the uses a needle is in order to take out the blood from a vein which is present in the body. This is usually done for the purpose of laboratory testing. Venipuncture can also be performed for the purpose of removing the extra red blood cells or the RBCs which are present in the blood and this is done to treat some of the blood disorders.
It is also sometimes called the phlebotomy or the blood draw. It is one of the invasive procedures which are most routinely performed in order to draw blood.
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What is the ICD-10 for obstructive sleep apnea?
The ICD 10 code for obstructive sleep apnea is G47. 33 which includes individuals with mixed (both obstructive and central) sleep apnea symptoms.
ICD 10 stands for International Classification of Diseases, tenth revision in procedure coding system. The obstructive sleep apnea refers to the condition of excessive relaxation of throat muscles due to which the person may feel difficulty in breathing. This condition has no permanent cure. However some steps can be taken to reduce the intensity of this condition such as reduction in weight, adjusting pillow height such that throat passage remains clear, nasal decongestant and avoiding sleeping pills. ICD 10 under HIPAA includes all the symptoms associated with apnea such as obstructive sleep apnea, Pediatric obstructive sleep apnea and Adult obstructive sleep apnea in all mild to severe conditions.
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S.Y. is a 90-year-old woman who is a resident of a long-term care facility. She was alert and mentally quite capable until about a year ago when she began to manifest signs and symptoms of dementia. A review of her medical records failed to document a thorough analysis of her dementia, but a diagnosis of "probable Alzheimer disease" was recorded.
Discussion Questions
1. What are the manifestations of dementia?
2. What other potentially treatable factors might have led to S.Y.’s deteriorating mental function?
3. What are the organic brain alterations that are typical of Alzheimer disease?
Dementia is a progressive decline in cognitive function that affects a person's ability to carry out daily activities.
1.The manifestations of dementia can include:
Memory loss
Difficulty with language and communication
Poor judgment and decision-making ability
Disorientation and confusion
Impaired motor function
Personality and behavioral changes
2.There are several potentially treatable factors that could have led to S.Y.'s deteriorating mental function, including:
Medications: Some medications can cause cognitive impairment, especially in older adults. It's possible that one or more of the medications S.Y. was taking could be contributing to her dementia symptoms.
Vitamin deficiencies: Certain vitamin deficiencies, such as a deficiency in vitamin B12, can cause cognitive impairment.
Infections: Infections such as urinary tract infections can cause confusion and other cognitive symptoms in older adults.
Depression: Depression can cause cognitive symptoms that can be mistaken for dementia.
3. Alzheimer's disease is characterized by the accumulation of abnormal proteins in the brain, including beta-amyloid and tau proteins. These abnormal proteins can cause damage to brain cells, leading to the following organic brain alterations:
Atrophy (shrinkage) of the brain, especially in the hippocampus and other areas involved in memory and learning
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What data is stored in healthcare?
The data stored in the healthcare are patient's name, blood group, diseases, treatment taken, monitored data, reproductive potential, gender and some more minute details.
Health record is the data collected from the patient depending upon their treatment in the past, patient's demographics, and insurance related data etc. It is done in the recent time mainly because collecting data in this way enables the treatment to be procured from outside nations/ or doctors who might monitor the patient through telecommunication. This has the treatment more accessible and easy. Health record also ensures the patient about their health prospects and what all is recommended to them. The doctors and patients gets useful insights of the report and get a regulatory compliance. The services also builds trust towards the hospital.
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What is the ICD-10 for diabetes type 2?
According to the WHO, Type 2 diabetes mellitus without complications falls under the category of endocrine, nutritional, and metabolic illnesses, and has the ICD-10 number E11. 9.
Chronic metabolic disease known as diabetes mellitus (DM) is characterized by persistent hyperglycemia. Insufficient insulin secretion, resistance to insulin's peripheral effects, or both may be to blame. Almost 90% of all instances of diabetes are type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Insulin resistance is the term used to describe the reduced insulin response in T2DM. This condition causes insulin to become inefficient, which is initially countered by an increase in insulin synthesis to maintain glucose homeostasis. But, over time, insulin production falls, leading to T2DM.
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When was the first use of electroconvulsive therapy?
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a type of medical treatment that was first used in 1938. It helps people who are having problems with their mental health.
Electroconvulsive therapy, or ECT, is an effective medical treatment for patients with major depression, treatment-resistant depression, catatonia, or drug-resistant manic episodes.
The mechanism of ECT is not known with certainty. However, the administration of weak electric currents to the brain is believed to affect components of the central nervous system, including hormones, neuropeptides, neurotrophic factors, and neurotransmitters, and provide therapeutic effects on patients.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) was first introduced by Bini and Cerletti in 1938. They used electric currents to induce attacks as a therapy for schizophrenia. Attack stimulation is carried out by passing an electric current through electrodes that are placed just above the temporal lobe.
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What has kept paraldehyde from being widely used? A. danger to the CNS B. bad taste and odor. C. danger to the respiratory system. D. irritation to the gastric
coalescence describes the process by which parts of a whole join together, or fuse, to make one.
The statement "Coalescence describes the process by which parts of a whole join together, or fuse, to make one" is a TRUE statement.
Coalescence is the process by which two particles merge during contact (fuse together) to form a single particle. Its principle is whereby fluid molecules come together to form a larger whole. The fusion happens because the interfacial film is ruptured because of the contact. For example, two water droplets on a glass table join together and form a larger water droplet.
Coalescence is different from flocculation. Flocculation is when emulsion droplets aggregate and form larger units, but do not fuse with each other.
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the centers for disease control and prevention, based in atlanta, is responsible for tracking and identifying infections. True or False?
The given statement centers for disease control and prevention, based in atlanta, is responsible for tracking and identifying infections." is true because it is responsible for the thing mention above.
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention( CDC) is the leading public public health institute of the United States. It's a United States civil agency under the Department of Health and Human Services and is headquartered in Atlanta, Georgia. The CDC works to cover public health and safety by furnishing information to enhance health
opinions, and it promotes health through hookups with state health departments and other associations. Its main focus is on precluding and controlling contagious conditions, environmental health, occupational safety and health, health creation, injury forestallment and educational conditioning designed to ameliorate the health of United States citizens.
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a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. the nurse should instruct the client that which of the following manifestations is a potential adverse effect of this drug?
A headache is one of the potential adverse effects of nitroglycerin.
Nitroglycerin is a medicine that is used to treat angina, or chest discomfort caused by a decrease in blood flow to the heart. A headache is one of the potential side effects of nitroglycerin. This happens because nitroglycerin causes blood arteries, particularly those in the brain, to dilate or enlarge. This dilatation can cause an increase in blood volume in the brain, resulting in a headache.
Dizziness, lightheadedness, flushing, and low blood pressure are all possible side effects of nitroglycerin. These adverse effects might be caused by the medication's action on blood vessels, which can result in an abrupt reduction in blood pressure.
It is critical for the nurse to urge the client to notify their healthcare practitioner if they experience any unpleasant affects. The nurse should also provide the client advice on how to take the medication correctly and safely keep it. Furthermore, the nurse should warn the client to avoid consuming alcohol while taking nitroglycerin because it may exacerbate the medication's negative effects.
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When blood leaks out of the vein around the puncture site during venipuncture and collects under the skin, it forms a(n) ________.
When blood leaks out of the vein around the puncture site during venipuncture and collects under the skin, it forms a hematoma.
A hematoma is a collection of blood that has leaked out of the vein and is pooled under the skin. This can occur during venipuncture when a puncture site is made in the skin and a needle is inserted into a vein. As a result of the puncture, blood may leak out of the vein and form a hematoma.
It is important to note that hematomas can also form from other sources, such as trauma to the body or taking blood thinning medication. If a hematoma does form, it is important to seek medical advice to ensure that the hematoma is not causing any further health issues.
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by wearing a face shield when coming into contact with body fluid, a phlebotomist is preventing exposure by which of the following modes of transmission?
Before collection of a specimen, the phlebotomist should dress in personal protective equipment (PPE), such as an impervious gown and gloves applied immediately before approaching the patient.
What are the functions of personal protective equipments?Personal protective equipment is protective clothing, helmets, goggles, or other garments or equipment designed to protect the wearer's body from injury or infection.
Personal protective equipment, or PPE, protects workers from serious workplace injuries or illnesses resulting from physical, electrical, mechanical, chemical, or other workplace hazards.
Personal protective equipment, commonly referred to as "PPE", is equipment worn to minimize exposure to hazards that cause serious workplace injuries and illnesses.
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Which of the following are the folds in the stomach lining that increase the surface area for absorption of nutrients?duedenumjejunumrugaeileum
The folds in the stomach lining that increase the surface area for absorption of nutrients are called "rugae".
The rugae are a series of ridges or folds in the mucous membrane lining the stomach that allow the stomach to expand and contract as it digests food. The folds increase the surface area of the stomach lining, which in turn increases the efficiency of nutrient absorption. However, the primary site of nutrient absorption is in the small intestine, not the stomach.
The duodenum, jejunum, and ileum are all parts of the small intestine, which is where most nutrient absorption takes place.
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--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is
"Which of the following are the folds in the stomach lining that increase the surface area for absorption of nutrients? A) duodenum B) jejunum C) rugae D) ileum"--
What does (- stasis mean in anatomy?
A slowdown or cessation of the regular flow of a physiological fluid or semifluid, such as a slowing of the blood flow.
Stasis is a term used frequently in modern biology to describe a species' long-term absence of significant evolutionary change. It is a crucial component of macroevolution, or evolution that occurs at or above the level of the species. The word stasis, which derives from the Greek meaning "standing/stoppage," indicates a state of equilibrium or stability. Aristotle and Hermagoras, two ancient Greek philosophers and rhetoricians, created the stasis hypothesis, a four-question technique of innovation.
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Which of these abbreviations indicate immediately
a. I/O
b. Ad lib
c. Stat
d. Inj
The abbreviation "stat" basically means immediately.
The correct option is option c stat.
"stat", is an abbreviation of the word statim which basically means "immediately". This term is used widely in medical context. The words "statim" has a Latin origin and basically means urgency, rush, instantly or immediately.
This term is used by medical professionals or practitioners basically in the case of medical emergencies or any adverse events when there is a fault or error in the treatment or therapy which has been provided to the patient.
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what is vaginal discharge icd 10
The ICD-10 diagnostic code for vaginal discharge is N98.8.
The ICD-10 refers to the International Classification of diseases and the vaginal discharge is classified under the diagnostic code N98.8. This diagnostic code is meant to refer to the infection of the female genital tract. UTI, yeast infections, and bacterial vaginosis are some conditions included in this code. The knowledge of ICD codes helps you to get an idea of what your doctor may prescribe you. it may also help you to take some precautions before the proper treatment.
Leukorrhoea NOS, old vaginal laceration, pessary ulcer of vagina are other non-inflammatory disorders of female genital placed under the ICD-10 code of N98.8.
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What is acr/o medical term ?
In medical terminology, the prefix or combination known as Acr/o means "extremities," "top," and "height." Acrochordon is a benign cutaneous development that is also known as a skin tag or fibroepithelial polyp.
Medical terminology is used to describe the human body's components, functions, disorders, treatments, and medications. Clinical environments and medical practise both employ medical terms. It includes medical roots, prefixes, and suffixes.
Examples of medical terms that start with the letter Acr/o include acroparesthesia, acroarthritis, acroasphyxia, and acroataxia. The vocabulary of medicine is specifically designed to explain the human body, including all of its parts, functions, diseases that affect it, and treatments given to it.
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What is the ICD-10 for Dehydration unspecified?
The ICD-10 code for Dehydration unspecified is E86.9.
What is ICD-10 for dehydration?
ICD-10 stands for the 10th revision of the International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems (ICD), which is a medical classification system created by the World Health Organization (WHO). The ICD-10 is used by healthcare providers around the world to classify and code diagnoses, symptoms, and procedures for billing and statistical purposes. It is a standardized system that allows for the tracking of health trends and the monitoring of diseases globally. The ICD-10 codes consist of alphanumeric codes that can be up to seven characters in length, with each code representing a unique diagnosis or procedure.
Therefore, The ICD-10 code for dehydration unspecified is E86.9. This code falls under Chapter 4 - Endocrine, nutritional and metabolic diseases, and is classified as a code in the subcategory E86.8 - Other fluid overload
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Aseptic technique means that that you perform the preparation of media or the transfer of living microbes
O uniformly and consistently
O without introducing contamination
O only with pathogens
O under completely sterile conditions
Aseptic technique basically means that we perform the transfer of living microbes or preparation of media without introducing any contamination.
The correct option is option b.
Aseptic technique is basically a method which involves the target-specific practices as well as different procedures which are done under suitably controlled conditions in order to reduce the contamination which occurs from microbes. It is a very crucial laboratory skill which is needed while conducting research related in the field of microbiology.
Contamination is a major issue during culturing of microorganisms. Bacterial cultures can get infected with colonies which we might not be able to identify.
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