ant160 1. how did the new federal housing administration (fha) change down payment requirements and loan terms for home mortgages? what effect did this have on home buying in america?

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Answer 1

This allowed more people to become eligible for a mortgage and increased access to homeownership for many people. As a result, it significantly increased home buying in America.

how did the new FHA change down payment requirements and loan terms for home mortgages?

The New Federal Housing Administration modified down payment requirements and loan terms for home mortgages, which affected home purchasing in America.

The FHA changed down payment requirements and loan terms for home mortgages as follows:

1. FHA-backed loans allowed a much lower down payment than the standard 50 per cent requirement of traditional lenders. This made it easier for first-time buyers to get into the housing market.

2. The FHA also lowered interest rates on mortgages, making them more attractive to potential homeowners.

3. The length of mortgage loans was increased from five years to 15 years, making monthly payments more affordable for homebuyers.

4. The FHA insurance plan covered mortgage payments in the event of a borrower's death or disability, ensuring that their families would not be left with a financial burden if the worst occurred.

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a call provision on bonds normally allows the firm to a. buy back bonds that it previously issued. b. sell new bonds at par value. c. sell new bonds above market value. d. sell bonds to the treasury.

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A call provision on bonds normally allows the firm to buy back bonds that it previously issued. The correct answer is option a. buy back bonds.

What is the bond call provision?

A bond call provision, often known as a redemption provision, allows the bond issuer to reclaim a bond before it reaches its maturity date. A call provision on bonds usually enables the company to purchase back bonds that it had previously distributed.

When bonds are issued with call provisions, it signifies that the issuer has the option to call or redeem the bonds at a specific time and price. A call provision may be beneficial to the issuer since it allows them to refinance the bonds or pay off the debt early if interest rates have declined.

The holder of a callable bond bears the risk that the bond will be called away early, causing the holder to lose interest income and resulting in the return of the principal amount of the bond. Call provisions may be of various types, such as hard or soft, American or European, etc. In conclusion, a call provision on bonds normally allows the firm to buy back bonds that it previously issued.

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an analyst sees the line item trade accounts receivable, net of allowances of $2,040,000, with a balance of $19,500,000. which of the following statements is correct. (select all that apply.)

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The correct statements in the given question are as follows: Options A) $2,040,000 is the amount estimated to be uncollectible, B) $21,540,000 is the gross receivables and C) $19,500,000 is the expected amount to be collected from customers.

Trade accounts receivable refers to the money that a company is owed by its clients who have purchased goods or services on credit. This is an asset on the company's balance sheet, and it represents money that the company expects to receive at a future date, usually within one year. Companies that offer credit to their customers frequently have trade accounts receivable.

Given, trade accounts receivable, net of allowances of $2,040,000, with a balance of $19,500,000. We need to determine the correct statements out of the given options:

A) $2,040,000 is the amount estimated to be uncollectible. This is correct, because net of allowances implies that the $2,040,000 has already been removed from the gross trade accounts receivable amount, implying that it represents the amount of money that the company anticipates will be uncollectible.

B) $21,540,000 is the gross receivables. This is correct, because the $2,040,000 is a reduction in the gross amount of trade accounts receivable, implying that the amount of trade accounts receivable before allowances is $21,540,000.

C) $19,500,000 is the expected amount to be collected from customers. This is correct, because this is the amount of money that the company anticipates collecting after all allowances and write-offs have been taken into account.

D) 22,000,505 in account receivable. This is incorrect, because there is no evidence or information to support this claim.

E) $20,500,000 in cash. This is incorrect, because the amount of trade accounts receivable and the amount of cash that the company has are not the same.

So, the correct statements are: $2,040,000 is the amount estimated to be uncollectible, $21,540,000 is the gross receivables and $19,500,000 is the expected amount to be collected from customers. Hence, option A, B, and C are correct.

Note: The question is incomplete. The complete question probably is: An analyst sees the line item trade accounts receivable, net of allowances of $2,040,000, with a balance of $19,500,000. which of the following statements is correct. (Select all that apply.) A) $2,040,000 is the amount estimated to be uncollectible B) $21,540,000 is the gross receivables C) $19,500,000 is the expected amount to be collected from customers D) 22,000,505 in account receivable E) $20,500,000 in cash.

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A decline in the number of young people joining the workforce and an increase in the number of active employees who are postponing retirement are examples of _____ forces in the general environment.

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A decline in the number of young people joining the workforce and an increase in the number of active employees who are postponing retirement are examples of demographic forces in the general environment.

What is the general environment?

The general environment refers to the broad social, economic, and technological aspects of an organization's environment that impact its operations. Demographic, economic, political/legal, sociocultural, technological, and ecological/natural environmental elements make up the general environment. These external variables may have a significant impact on an organization's operations, marketing, and other decision-making procedures.

In this particular scenario, we are dealing with demographic forces, which are external environmental factors that are characterized by a population's demographic trends. Changes in population demographics have a significant impact on the demand for an organization's goods and services. Furthermore, demographics can have a significant impact on human resources, marketing, and other corporate operations.

Besides demographic forces, other environmental factors that an organization may face include economic, political/legal, sociocultural, technological, and ecological/natural environmental elements. These environmental factors are referred to as general environment forces in the business context.

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Activity-based costing has been found to be useful in each of the following service industries except A) banks. B) hospitals. C) telephone companies. D) ABC has been useful in any of these industries.

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Activity-based costing (ABC) has been found to be useful in service industries, such as hospitals and telephone companies, except banks. The correct option is A.

Activity-based costing (ABC) is an activity-based method of determining an item's total cost by identifying and measuring each activity's contributing expenses that result in its production.The purpose of activity-based costing is to provide better information about costs and the actions that can be taken to reduce them.

Activity-based costing helps to eliminate the arbitrary allocations to goods and services that were the result of the conventional costing system. ABC assigns costs based on the activities that generate costs and is used in situations where the complexity of the business operation necessitates a more precise system for allocating indirect costs.

By focusing on activities that generate costs, ABC helps companies to identify areas where costs can be cut, as well as identify and enhance areas where money is being spent effectively.

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The ________ sales presentation can be advantageous for novice salespeople or when the differences in prospects are unknown, but it lacks flexibility and spontaneity.

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The scripted sales presentation can be advantageous for novice salespeople or when the differences in prospects are unknown, but it lacks flexibility and spontaneity.

A scripted sales presentation is one that is delivered in a uniform, repetitive manner. It entails utilizing a pre-prepared script, slides, or a detailed guide to lead potential buyers through the features and advantages of a product or service.

The advantages of a scripted sales presentation

Consistency: One of the most significant advantages of a scripted sales presentation is that it ensures consistency.

Accuracy: It ensures that salespeople do not leave out any critical details or features of the product or service, which could lead to the loss of a sale.

Ease of Use: Using a pre-written script makes it easier for salespeople to plan their presentations ahead of time, gather all the required resources, and make the most of the time they have to engage with their clients.

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as it relates to producing great creative involves creating meaningful connections with the target audience which enhances their ability to recognize the brand.
a. Innovation
b. Impact
c. Relevance
d. Originality
e. imagination

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As it relates to producing great creativity, creating meaningful connections with the target audience enhances their ability to recognize the brand. The term that best suits the scenario is "relevance." The correct option is C.

What is relevance?

In advertising, relevance is the quality of being closely connected or appropriate to the matter at hand. This refers to creating significant connections with the target audience by producing great creativity, resulting in increased recognition of the brand.

Innovation is about coming up with new or different ideas. While it can be useful, it may not always be necessary to make an impact. Originality, on the other hand, is about producing something that has never been seen before. Imagination refers to the ability to form new ideas, concepts, or images in the mind.

The term relevance is the most appropriate because creating meaningful connections with the target audience is crucial in advertising. It is also essential to understand the target audience's behavior, likes, dislikes, and the messages they're likely to respond.

Therefore, the correct option is C.

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you are designing a first-ever communication effort for volu, a startup company cosmetic company. the research step or section requires you to examine which of the following areas?

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When designing a first-ever communication effort for Volu, a cosmetic startup company, the research step or section requires you to examine the following areas:

1. The target audience: This includes who the product is for and what their needs and preferences are. It is essential to understand your audience to create an effective communication strategy. This involves conducting market research to gather insights into your target audience.

2. The competition: You need to know who your competitors are, what they offer, and how they communicate with their customers.  

3. The message: You need to create a message that resonates with your target audience and communicates the value of your product. This involves identifying the benefits of your product and how it solves the customer's problem.

4. The channels: You need to select the most effective communication channels to reach your target audience. This could include social media, email, influencer marketing, and public relations.

5. The budget: You need to establish a budget that covers all the communication efforts. This involves determining the most cost-effective ways to reach your target audience and ensuring that the budget is not exceeded.

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Assume that on April 1, Sally promises to purchase Ben's house for $250,000 on May 1. Also on April 1, Ben makes a return promise to sell Sally the house on May 1 and provide her with legal title. Ben and Sally have created : a)An express and bilateral contractb) An express unilateral contractc)A unilateral implied contractd) void contract

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The legal title that Sally and Ben have created in the scenario given in the question is an express and bilateral contract. Therefore, option A is correct.

An express and bilateral contract refers to a legal agreement between two or more parties in which both parties make promises to one another. It means that both parties have made express promises, and it is a legally binding document. It is a type of contract that requires each party to fulfill their obligations according to the terms of the agreement.
Contracts are legally binding agreements that are enforceable in a court of law. To make a valid contract, there must be an offer, acceptance, consideration, and intention to create a legal relationship. In the scenario given in the question, Sally and Ben have created an express and bilateral contract. An express contract refers to a contract in which the parties have explicitly agreed to the terms of the agreement. It means that the terms of the contract are stated in writing or spoken words. In this case, Sally has made an offer to Ben to purchase his house for $250,000, and Ben has accepted the offer, which creates an express contract. A bilateral contract is a type of contract in which both parties make promises to one another. It means that each party has an obligation to fulfill their promise. In this case, Sally promises to purchase Ben's house for $250,000 on May 1, and Ben promises to sell Sally the house on May 1 and provide her with legal title. Therefore, they have created an express and bilateral contract.

In conclusion, Sally and Ben have created an express and bilateral contract. It is a legally binding document, and both parties are obligated to fulfill their promises according to the terms of the agreement. Hence, option a is correct.

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a series of questions that attempt to deconstruct a business issue by moving from general to specific are known as _____ questions. multiple choice: A)rapport-building B) funnel C) probing D) closed E) solution-oriented

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A series of questions that attempt to deconstruct a business issue by moving from general to specific are known as solution-oriented questions.

What are solution-oriented questions? Solution-oriented questions is a method for examining issues and generating alternatives. It's a process of asking questions that are meant to identify potential solutions or improvements to a current issue. Solution-oriented questioning leads to answers that can lead to the development of an action plan that addresses the issue.

These types of questions concentrate on current and future results, with the goal of developing solutions rather than dwelling on problems. Solution-oriented questioning emphasizes collaboration, positive thinking, and the use of strengths to achieve goals.

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Use the accompanying list to answer the 4 questions below. a. Improvements in technology. b. Increases in the supply (stock) of capital goods. c. Purchases of expanding output. d. Obtaining the optimal combination of goods, each at least-cost production e. Increases in the quantity and quality of natural resources. f. Increases in the quantity and quality of human resources. 1. As distinct from the demand and efficiency factors of economic growth, the supply factors of economic growth are: ____, ____, _____, and ____ only.

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 Increases creases in the supply  of capital goods, improvements in technology, increases in the quantity and quality of natural resources, and increases in the quantity and quality of human resources only.
The supply factors of economic growth are improvements in technology, increases in the supply of capital goods, increases in the quantity and quality of natural resources, and increases in the quantity and quality of human resources.

Economic groth refers to a situation where an economy's output is growing in size or capacity. There are two primary factors that contribute to economic growth: supply and demand factors.

Therefore, the answer is Improvements in technology, Increases in the supply (stock) of capital goods, Increases in the quantity and quality of natural resources, and Increases in the quantity and quality of human resources.

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when a project manager first recognizes that a project is in trouble, one of the options available to the manager is .group of answer choicesdelaying the project deadline

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When a project manager first recognizes that a project is in trouble, one of the options available to the manager is reducing the project resources. Therefore the option is B.

What is project management?

Project management is the process of planning, organizing, executing, controlling, and completing a project. It is used to handle specific objectives and goals, usually within a time frame, with defined milestones, and certain resource requirements. Project management techniques can be used for various goals, ranging from product development to software engineering, construction to sales and marketing, and so on. A project is a distinct, temporary effort undertaken to produce a unique product or service. The project may be related to any activity such as building a road, creating software, launching a marketing campaign, constructing a building, etc.

A project manager may need to reduce project resources to mitigate problems, and it is one of the options available to the project manager when he recognizes that the project is in trouble. Reducing the project resources might involve cutting back on the budget, team size, or scope of the project. Other strategies for dealing with problems in the project include adjusting the schedule, increasing the project scope, or improving communication with stakeholders.

Here is the complete question:

When a project manager first recognizes that a project is in trouble, one of the options available to the manager is:

a. delaying the project deadline

b. reducing the project resources

c. expanding the project requirements

d. eliminating controls and procedures

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when using the factor-rating method to assist in a decision-making process, it is important to assign weights to each criteria before scoring the supplier options, thereby eliminating possible manipulation of the process. true false

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The statement "when using the factor-rating method to assist in a decision-making process, it is important to assign weights to each criterion before scoring the supplier options, thereby eliminating possible manipulation of the process" is true.

What is the factor-rating method?

A system of evaluating various aspects of a product or service, as well as a company's or organization's performance, is known as the factor-rating process. A quantitative system of assessing various aspects of a product or service is known as the factor-rating system.

The following are the essential components of the factor rating method:Criteria for assessment and their relative importance, called weights Scores for different choices .

on each criterion Factors for each criterion that indicates relative value Factors are based on judgment and express the degree to which each criterion adds value to the company or organization.

It is also critical to note that factor scores should be established based on the judgments of the persons responsible for making decisions or other relevant people with expertise in the area.The factor-rating approach enables decision-makers to reach an objective conclusion.

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A company has strong _________ if it continuously seeks new ideas from customers and from looks for ways to use new technologies.

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A company has strong innovation if it continuously seeks new ideas from customers and from looks for ways to use new technologies.

Innovation is the key to success in today's competitive business environment.

Companies that are able to stay ahead of the competition by continuously seeking out new ideas and exploring new technologies are said to have strong innovation.

Strong innovators put a lot of effort into staying ahead of market trends so they can create and deploy new goods and services.

They are always seeking methods to enhance their operations, goods and services, and clientele. Long-term success will go to businesses that can outperform their rivals through innovative problem-solving and invention.

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what is the address of the sales person with the highest sales ytd? (paste snip of query or queries and results)

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Unfortunately, the question doesn't provide any queries or results to work with. Without any data, it's impossible to provide an answer to the question.

What is YTD? YTD stands for "year to date," and it refers to the period of time starting from the beginning of the current year up to the present date.

For example, if today's date is October 31st, the YTD would be from January 1st to October 31st. It is commonly used in finance and accounting to track a company's financial performance over a given period of time.

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When advertisers want to reach the same audience more than once, they are concerned with ______.a. humorb. targetc. frequency

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When advertisers want to reach the same audience more than once, they are concerned with frequency.

What is frequency?

Frequency refers to the number of times an ad is exposed to the same audience during a certain period. It is a key concept in advertising because it allows marketers to ensure that their message reaches their target audience, and it is frequently used in the context of media planning and buying to maximize the impact of advertising campaigns.

How does frequency help advertisers?

Frequency helps advertisers by increasing the chances that their message will be noticed, remembered, and acted upon. By exposing their target audience to their message more than once, advertisers can reinforce their brand, build trust, and create a lasting impression that will drive sales and boost brand loyalty.

How to calculate frequency?

Frequency can be calculated by dividing the total number of impressions by the total number of people in the target audience. For example, if a campaign generated 10,000 impressions and reached 5,000 people, the frequency would be 2. This means that the average person in the target audience saw the ad twice during the campaign.

What are the benefits of frequency?

There are many benefits to using frequency in advertising campaigns. For one, it helps to reinforce the message and create a lasting impression. It also helps to build trust and credibility with the target audience, as well as increase brand loyalty. Additionally, it can help to drive sales and generate more revenue for the business. All of these factors contribute to the overall success of an advertising campaign, and make frequency an essential component of any marketing strategy.

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Jill decided to buy a universal life term alternative life insurance policy. Which of the following options are available to her? (Check all that apply)
a.Group of answer choices
b.She must decide if she wants a 20- or 30-year contract today and pay the appropriate premium
c. If she opted for a 30-year return of premium, at the end of the 30 years, she could opt to just continue the premium payments; or leave the policy as is and stop premium payments; or terminate and walk away with the cash value accumulated
d. She can start paying at the minimum premium payment calculated for 20-years, but can adjust to a 30-year option or even a return of premium, simply by adjusting the premium amount
e. Universal life cannot be altered to look like term insurance

Answers

Jill decided to buy a universal life-term alternative life insurance policy. Options b, c, and d are available to Jill.

There are various options available to Jill for the universal life term alternative life insurance policy. Jill can choose the contract length as per her requirements and budget. If she opts for a 30-year return of premium, at the end of the 30 years, she could opt to just continue the premium payments, leave the policy as is and stop premium payments, or terminate and walk away with the cash value accumulated. She can start paying at the minimum premium payment calculated for 20 years but can adjust to a 30-year option or even a return of premium, simply by adjusting the premium amount. Therefore, options b, c, and d are available to Jill. Option e is incorrect because universal life insurance policies can be altered to look like term insurance.

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The withhold and uphold strategy of communication focuses on fundamentals, but engages employees in dialogue to identify obstacles and misunderstandings that need to be addressed.
True
False

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The given statement "The withhold and uphold strategy of communication focuses on fundamentals, but engages employees in dialogue to identify obstacles and misunderstandings that need to be addressed" is true because it encourage feedback.

What is uphold strategy?

The uphold strategy is one of the two communication strategies that encourage feedback while reducing the risk of misunderstandings. It allows everyone involved to express their thoughts and opinions.

The withhold strategy is another communication strategy that encourages listeners to withhold their opinions and questions until the speaker has finished speaking.

This approach is also known as an active listening approach, and it ensures that the speaker feels heard and valued, which contributes to the success of the communication.

The withhold and uphold strategy's primary aim is to improve communication between people by minimizing misunderstandings and conflicts.

Withhold and uphold strategies foster dialogue, ensuring that everyone feels heard and valued. By engaging in dialogue with employees, one can identify obstacles and misunderstandings that need to be addressed, increasing communication efficiency and effectiveness.

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When a series of goals are set by the company with input from the employee, and the employee receives payment as each goal is reached, this is called a ____

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When a series of goals are set by the company with input from the employee, and the employee receives payment as each goal is reached, this is called a Performance-based incentive (PBI).

Performance-based incentive (PBI): A type of incentive in which an employee is rewarded based on his or her performance. This reward may be in the form of a cash bonus, a promotion, or other perks. PBIs are often used in sales roles, where employees are rewarded for meeting or exceeding their sales targets. The input given by the employees are mandatory rewarded so that motivation can be spurge among employees and therefore increase productivity.

PBIs are becoming increasingly common in other industries as well. They can be an excellent way to motivate employees, particularly those who are motivated by financial incentives. PBIs can also help employers to retain their top performers, as employees who are consistently rewarded for their hard work are more likely to remain with the company.

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If only 1% of people get audited, why should you make every effort to fill out your taxes honestly and accurately?

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Even though only small percentage of people get audited, it is important to make every effort to fill out your taxes honestly and accurately because there are severe consequences for tax fraud and mistakes on tax return.

What is an audit?

An audit is a systematic and independent examination of an organization's financial statements, records, processes, and systems to ensure that they are accurate, reliable, and compliant with applicable laws, regulations, and standards. Audits are typically conducted by certified public accountants or other qualified professionals who are not affiliated with the organization being audited. The purpose of an audit is to provide assurance to stakeholders that the organization's financial and operational activities are being conducted in a transparent and responsible manner. This helps to build trust and confidence in the organization's financial reporting and can assist in identifying areas for improvement in internal controls and processes. The results of an audit are typically presented in an audit report, which outlines any issues or concerns that were identified during the audit and provides recommendations for remedial action.

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assume bond portfolio managers actively manage their portfolios. if they expect interest rates to , they would shift toward . a. decrease; long-maturity bonds with zero-coupon rates b. increase; long-maturity bonds with zero-coupon rates c. decrease; short-maturity bonds with high-coupon rates d. increase; high-coupon bonds with long maturities

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Assuming bond portfolio managers actively manage their portfolios, they would shift towards high-coupon bonds with long maturities if they expect interest rates to increase.

How do bond portfolio managers shift their portfolios?

Bond portfolio managers are tasked with developing and managing portfolios of bonds that meet the investment objectives and policies of their clients. As market conditions evolve, their investment preferences and market outlook may change, leading to a reallocation of the portfolio holdings.

The steps below are taken by bond portfolio managers to adjust their portfolios:

Assess the investment environment to determine whether it is favorable to maintain the existing allocation or to make adjustments.Identify and prioritize changes in the portfolio. Because investment objectives and market conditions can shift over time, portfolios should be routinely rebalanced.Prioritize trades that align with the fund's investment policies and objectives.Manage the cash flow and liquidity needs of the portfolio.Assume bond portfolio managers actively manage their portfolios. If they expect interest rates to increase, they would shift towards high-coupon bonds with long maturities.

Option D, high-coupon bonds with long maturities, is the correct answer. When bond portfolio managers expect interest rates to rise, they shift their portfolio towards high-coupon bonds with long maturities.

The reasoning behind this is that when interest rates rise, the price of bonds decreases, but high-coupon bonds with long maturities are less affected because the investor is still receiving a higher coupon rate than those offered by other bonds.

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Due to an increase in consumer wealth, there is a $40 billion autonomous increase in consumer spending in the economies of Westlandia and Eastlandia. Assuming that the aggregate price level is constant, the interest rate is fixed in both countries, and there are no taxes and no foreign trade, complete the accompanying tables to show the various rounds of increased spending that will occur in both economies if the marginal propensity to consume is 0.5 in Westlandia and 0.75 in Eastlandia. What do your results indicate about the relationship between the size of the marginal propensity to consume and the multiplier? Incremental Total change change Rounds in GDP in GDP 1 C = $40 billion ? 2 MPC × C = ? ? 3 MPC × MPC × C = ? ? 4 MPC × MPC × MPC × C = ? ? . . . . . . . . . Total change in GDP (1/(1 MPC)) C ? Eastlandia Incremental Total change change Rounds in GDP in GDP 1 C = $40 billion ? 2 MPC × C = ? ? 3 MPC × MPC × C = ? ? 4 MPC × MPC × MPC × C = ? ? . . . . . . . . . Total change (1/(1 MPC)) C ?

Answers

The results indicate that the size of the marginal propensity to consume has a direct effect on the multiplier: the larger the marginal propensity to consume, the higher the multiplier.  

For the table of Westlandia, assuming a marginal propensity to consume (MPC) of 0.5:

Round 1: C = $40 billion, Total change in GDP = $40 billion Round 2: MPC × C = $20 billion, Total change in GDP = $60 billion Round 3: MPC × MPC × C = $10 billion, Total change in GDP = $70 billion Round 4: MPC × MPC × MPC × C = $5 billion, Total change in GDP = $75 billion

Total change (1/(1 - MPC)) C = $80 billion


For the table of Eastlandia, assuming a marginal propensity to consume (MPC) of 0.75:

Round 1: C = $40 billion, Total change in GDP = $40 billion Round 2: MPC × C = $30 billion, Total change in GDP = $70 billion Round 3: MPC × MPC × C = $22.5 billion, Total change in GDP = $92.5 billion Round 4: MPC × MPC × MPC × C = $16.9 billion, Total change in GDP = $109.4 billion

Total change (1/(1 - MPC)) C = $133.3 billion

The results indicate that the size of the marginal propensity to consume has a direct effect on the multiplier: the larger the marginal propensity to consume, the higher the multiplier. In this example, since the MPC is 0.75 in Eastlandia, the multiplier is much higher than in Westlandia, where the MPC is 0.5.

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provide one reason that it is important to start putting money away for retirement as early as possible.

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The availability of disposable funds is one of the primary reasons why it is important starting to put money away and star saving for retirement life as soon as possible for an individual.

The disposable funds are heavily dependent on how a person saves or safeguards his or her money. If the saving is started early in life, then the chances of having higher disposable funds early in life are higher, and increase the chances of better retirement savings. Thus, it is influential to start putting away the money that an individual has in his or her life.

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In the context of small businesses, _____ comes from lenders who will be repaid at a specified interest rate within a specified time span.
A. equity financing
B. debt financing
C. profit capital
D. working capital

Answers

In the context of small businesses, debt financing comes from lenders who will be repaid at a specified interest rate within a specified time span. The correct option B.

What is debt financing?

Debt financing refers to funds that are raised by a company by borrowing money from lenders, such as banks or other financial institutions, rather than by issuing equity.

There are various types of debt financing, including bonds, commercial paper, and bank loans. The terms of the loan agreement, such as the interest rate and the repayment period, are typically set at the time the loan is made.

The borrower is obligated to repay the loan amount along with the specified interest on a regular basis until the debt is fully repaid. Businesses may choose to use debt financing over equity financing because debt financing is often less expensive than equity financing.

Finally, debt financing is often easier to obtain than equity financing, especially for small businesses that do not have a well-established track record.

There, the correct option is B.

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Employees adopt new behaviors and attitudes during the ___________ stage, although they will need training and practice before the new ways of doing things become automatic.

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Employees adopt new behaviors and attitudes during the implementation stage, although they will need training and practice before the new ways of doing things become automatic.

Implementation is the point at which a change is fully implemented and embedded in the organization's systems and culture. During this stage, employees must adapt to the changes by changing their habits and methods of working. Training can be given to help employees adjust to the new system, and incentives may be provided to encourage them to do so.

Although they will require training and practice before the new methods of doing things become automatic, employees can adopt new behaviors and attitudes during the implementation phase.

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Suppose that in 2014, currency in circulation was $950 billion, required reserves were $60 billion, and excess reserves were $840 billion. At that time, the Federal reserve extended $70 billion in discount window loans to the banking system. The monetary base was ____ billion?

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The monetary base was $830 billion.

Monetary base refers to the total amount of money in circulation in an economy. It consists of two components: currency in circulation and reserves held by commercial banks with the central bank. The central bank controls the monetary base, and it plays a crucial role in determining the money supply and other key economic variables such as inflation.

To calculate the monetary base, you need to add the currency in circulation and the reserves of commercial banks with the central bank. However, discount window loans are not included in the monetary base, even though they increase the reserves of commercial banks.

In this particular case, the currency in circulation was $950 billion, and the total reserves were $900 billion, consisting of $60 billion in required reserves and $840 billion in excess reserves. However, there were also $70 billion in discount window loans.

Therefore, the actual monetary base was calculated by subtracting the discount window loans from the total reserves, which gives us:

Monetary Base = Reserves - Discount window loans

Monetary Base = $900 billion - $70 billion

Monetary Base = $830 billion

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a company uses the treasury stock method to account for outstanding stock options and warrants. if the average market price of common stock for the period is lower than the exercise price of the options or warrants, the eps computation would

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A company uses the treasury stock method to account for outstanding stock options and warrants. If the average market price of common stock for the period is lower than the exercise price of the options or warrants, the EPS computation would result in a dilution of earnings per share.

What is the Treasury Stock Method (TSM)?

The treasury stock method is a way for calculating the impact of outstanding employee stock options on the diluted earnings per share (EPS) of a company. The method assumes that all of the proceeds from the exercise of outstanding options would be used to repurchase shares in the market. The TSM decreases the number of shares used in the EPS calculation and lowers the potential dilution of EPS.

Here are the basic assumptions used in the Treasury Stock Method (TSM):

The company will use the proceeds from the exercise of stock options to purchase shares of its own stock on the open market.

The cost of those shares will be based on the average market price of the stock during the reporting period.

The options will be exercised and shares will be repurchased at the beginning of the reporting period.The shares purchased using the proceeds from the exercise of the options will be counted as "treasury shares" or shares that are owned by the company but not outstanding, for the purpose of calculating the company's diluted EPS.

The average market price of common stock is lower than the exercise price of the options or warrants is a case of dilution of earnings per share. It is because, in this case, the number of shares used in the diluted earnings per share calculation will be higher than the shares used in the basic earnings per share calculation.

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There are two steel companies operating in a country, Firm A and Firm B. The market demand is estimated to be Q(P) = 500−20P where P is price and Q is quantity. Marginal cost is $10 per unit for both firms. The firms simultaneously decide how much steel to produce at the beginning of the year and then prices adjust so that supply equals demand.(a) Determine Firm A’s best response function.(b) Determine the equilibrium price, quantity, and profit of the game played between Firm A and Firm B.(c) Suppose that demand shifts to Q(P) = 560−20P. What is the new price and quantity?(d) Say the firms develop technology to quickly adjust quantity of steel produced. Therefore, firms compete by setting price. What is the equilibrium price, quantity, and profit of the game played between the firms? Does the answer depend on whether demand is Q(P) = 500 − 20P or Q(P) = 560 − 20P? Explain. 1

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(a) The best response function for Firm A is: Quantity = (P-50)/10.

Firm A's best response function is the solution to the following maximization problem:

maximize Profit = (Price - Marginal Cost) *Quantity.
In this case, Profit = (P-10) *(500-20P).

(b) Profit= 16800, equilibrium price of P = 30 and an equilibrium quantity of Q = 440.

 Firm A's profit at this equilibrium will be.

(30-10) *440 = 16800.
When supply equals demand, the equilibrium price and quantity can be determined by setting the demand curve equal to the best response function from Firm A.
In this case, 500 - 20P = (P-50)/10.

Solving for P gives an equilibrium price of P = 30 and an equilibrium quantity of Q = 440.

(c) New price=40 and new quantity=520

When the demand shifts to Q(P) = 560−20P,

the new equilibrium price and quantity can be determined by setting the demand curve equal to the best response function from Firm A.
In this case,

560 - 20P = (P-50)/10.

Solving for P gives an equilibrium price of P = 40 and an equilibrium quantity of Q = 520.

(d)  The equilibrium price will be P = 30 and the equilibrium quantity will be Q = 440.

When firms compete by setting price, the equilibrium price and quantity of the game played between the firms depends on the demand curve. For example, if the demand curve is

Q(P) = 500 − 20P,

the equilibrium price will be P = 30 and the equilibrium quantity will be Q = 440.

If the demand curve shifts to Q(P) = 560 − 20P,

the new equilibrium price will be P = 40 and the equilibrium quantity will be Q = 520.

Therefore, the answer does depend on whether the demand is Q(P) = 500 − 20P or Q(P) = 560 − 20P.

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While reviewing the latest production reports, Diego notices that the company is off of its production goal by 200 units. Diego uses ________ to determine that the production shortage is due to an incorrect speed setting on a piece of machinery.

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While reviewing the latest production reports, Diego notices that the company is off of its production goal by 200 units. Diego uses controlling to determine that the production shortage is due to an incorrect speed setting on a piece of machinery.

The process of supervising and directing individuals or groups to meet organizational objectives is known as controlling. The controlling function of management is one of the most essential functions because it guarantees that the company's objectives and strategies are accomplished in a way that maximizes performance. Controlling is the process of monitoring, comparing, and correcting work execution, whether it is being performed correctly or incorrectly.

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the postulates that top managers typically overestimate their ability to create value from an acquisition, primarily because rising to the top of a corporation has given them an exaggerated sense of their own capabilities. multiple choice learning effect experience effect hubris hypothesis contribution theorem fisher effect

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The postulate that top managers typically overestimate their ability to create value from an acquisition primarily because rising to the top of a corporation has given them an exaggerated sense of their own capabilities is the hubris hypothesis.

The hubris hypothesis is the theory that top managers of organizations and companies with high degrees of power and autonomy have an exaggerated sense of their own abilities, which contributes to their overconfidence and risk-taking behavior.

This theory proposes that corporate leaders are prone to making strategic decisions that are not in the best interests of their organizations because of the excessive confidence and overestimation of their own abilities, which contributes to their hubris or arrogance.

Hence, the correct option is the hubris hypothesis.

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Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics possessed by clients who are most likely to fail in residential community corrections?
a. Violent history
b. Lack of employment
c. Drug and alcohol abuse history
d. Lack of education

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In the following question, among the given options, the following is NOT one of the characteristics possessed by clients who are most likely to fail in residential community corrections Answer: D) "Lack of education"

Explanation: Among the following options, Lack of education is not one of the characteristics possessed by clients who are most likely to fail in residential community corrections. This means that people who are not properly educated will still have a higher chance of succeeding in community corrections than those with the other three characteristics. These three characteristics possessed by clients who are most likely to fail in residential community corrections are as follows: Violent history, Lack of employment, and Drug and alcohol abuse history these factors increase the risk of an offender reoffending while in residential community corrections.

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