The next two questions are worth 20 points each. Your answer MUST be complete.
They must include: jail time, what happens to your license, fine money, any items
ordered by the court. You are the Judge:
13. The convicted person is a 30 year old man. This is his second conviction in
five years. What punishment must you hand down?
The convicted person is a 26 year old women. This is her fourth conviction
in five years. What punishment must you hand down?

Answers

Answer 1


For the first question, the punishment for the 30 year old man must include jail time, a fine, and his license being suspended. Depending on the severity of the offense, the jail time could range from a few days to several months. The court may also order the man to attend a rehabilitation program or pay a fine. Additionally, the court may suspend his driver's license for a period of time, depending on the offense.

For the second question, the punishment for the 26 year old woman must include jail time, a fine, and her license being suspended. Depending on the severity of the offense, the jail time could range from a few days to several months. The court may also order the woman to attend a rehabilitation program or pay a larger fine than the man. Additionally, the court may suspend her driver's license for a longer period of time, depending on the offense.

Related Questions

A woman sued her ex-husband for installments due under their divorce property settlement agreement. The ex-husband defended the suit on the ground that the ex-wife was in breach of the agreement. However, the court granted judgment for the ex-wife. Now, the ex-wife is suing her ex-husband for other installments due under the agreement. The ex-husband raises the defense that the agreement was void and illegal because of fraud perpetrated by his ex-wife at the time the agreement was signed. The ex-wife moves to strike her ex-husband's defense, claiming issue preclusion.
Should the court grant the motion?

Answers

In the court case given above, it is to be assumed that the court will ideally not grant the motion to the parties involved, because a litigation for the issue was not made by any of the parties related thereto.

A court case is subjected to be given motion by the judge only when the judge is of the opinion that the essentials of the case do have a strong reason to be fought in the court of law. Moreover, litigation of the essentials of the case is also an important prerequisite before the judge grants the motion in the court cases.

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what is juche political ideology

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Juche is a political ideology developed by North Korean leader Kim Il-Sung in the 1950s. It is a nationalistic ideology which advocates self-reliance and a strong focus on the preservation of North Korea’s sovereignty and independence. Its core principles include military first policy, “revolution in construction”, and “independence in foreign affairs”.

Juche political ideology, also known as Juche Thought or Jucheism, is a political and economic ideology that emphasizes self-reliance, national independence, and self-sufficiency. It was developed by North Korean leader Kim Il-Sung in the 1950s and has been the guiding principle of North Korean governance and policy ever since.

Juche is based on the belief that the people of a country are the masters of their own destiny and should be able to control their own political and economic systems without outside interference. It also advocates for a strong military to protect the country's independence and sovereignty.

It has been heavily criticized by many outside of North Korea, who argue that it has led to isolation, economic stagnation, and human rights abuses. However, it remains a central aspect of North Korean ideology and is often cited by the country's leaders in their speeches and policy decisions.

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Which of the following is a reason in favor of using alternatives to incarceration?A. it greatly increases recidivismB. It allows offenders to take greater advantage of counseling options.C. It is the same cost as incarceration, but with better outcomes.D. It provides greater seclusion of offenders.

Answers

Using incarceration allows offenders to take greater advantage of counseling options.

Hence, the correct option is B.

Incarceration is a act of putting someone behind the bars or in prison or a place used as prison. The primary objective of incarceration is to ensure that the offenders desist from committing crime in the future. But instead it is a escape of criminals from severe punishment so that they can that advantage of the counselling option. Incarceration introduced the prison policy in the United States and recommended imprisonment or isolation of criminals in the form of punishment. It was considered as step to control the increasing crime rates in U.S., but its impact is was not extensive.

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true/false. georgia is at a crowded carnival. as she's trying to get to the corn dog stand, someone in the crowd accidentally pushes and into another carnival-goer, causing that carnival-goer to get a black eye. georgia is guilty of the tort of assault.

Answers

It is false to say that  if georgia is at a crowded carnival. as she's trying to get to the corn dog stand, someone in the crowd accidentally pushes and into another carnival-goer, causing that carnival-goer to get a black eye,then georgia is guilty of the tort of assault.

In common law, assault(tort) is the misdeed of acting purposefully, that is with one or the other general or explicit goal, causing the sensible dread of a prompt unsafe or hostile contact. Assault requires aim, it is viewed as a deliberate misdeed, rather than a misdeed of carelessness. Real capacity to complete the captured contact isn't necessary. 'The lead illegal by this misdeed is a demonstration that compromises violence.'

In criminal regulation an assault is characterized as an endeavor to perpetrate battery, requiring the particular expectation to cause actual injury.As recognized from battery, assault doesn't have to include the 'undesirable actual contact; yet is the expectation of such contact'. It simply needs aim to connect and the subsequent apprehension. At a certain point, the precedent-based regulation comprehension of assault required more than words alone, it likewise required a clear demonstration.

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the virginia plan proposed a weaker executive branch than the new jersey plan. t/f

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True , The states convened in 1787 to update the articles of confederation, but instead produced the constitution. The Virginia proposal included a weaker executive branch than the New Jersey proposal.

Patrick Henry was adamantly opposed to the new constitution since it established a weak national government. that the national executive should have the authority to veto any legislative measure, which shall not be passed until approved by two-thirds of each body of the national legislature.

James Madison drafted the Virginia Plan, which advocated for higher participation in government for states with bigger populations. As an alternative, William Paterson proposed the New Jersey Plan, which advocated for equal participation for all states, regardless of population size.

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hich of the following states the principle of "popular sovereignty?"

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The statement that states the principle of popular sovereignty is option b. The settlers in a given territory have the sole right to decide whether or not slavery will be permitted.

The principle of popular sovereignty was a controversial doctrine that was based on the idea that the people of the United States are free and sovereign citizens and are self-governed. This meant that the government existed to serve the citizens and if the converse occurred, it should cease to exist.

This principle when extended to slavery created a very controversial issue. According to this doctrine, individual federal states and settlers had the right to decide the laws of slavery.

This was a very debatable law and was always brought up for debate whenever the USA expanded its territories. This law was meant to make the bypassing of the much controversial slavery issue for politicians but due to the difference in opinions between the North and Southern states of America, the doctrine only created more problems.

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Complete Question

1. Which of the following states the principle of "popular sovereignty"?

a. Congress has the right to decide where slavery shall and shall not exist.

b. The settlers in a given territory have the sole right to decide whether or not slavery will be permitted there.

c. Individual citizens can decide for themselves whether or not to hold slaves.

d. The American people shall decide where slavery will exist through a national plebiscite.

e. Individual states have the right to reject congressional decisions pertaining to slavery.

which of the following regulates who may practice by defining educational and experience criteria and by stating the conditions under which a license may be revoked?

Answers

The state licensing laws regulates who may practice by defining educational and experience criteria and by stating the conditions under which a license may be revoked.

State licensing laws means a law under which the bureau issue a license, registration or other authorization procedure to practice any occupation or profession or services. Theory of license has its origins in antiquity and derivative of the authority of the sovereign, it gives the power to maintain balance by constitutional protection of federal state. Licensing requires careful legislation and administrative regulations to ensure their control upon the rights guaranteed, these powers are exercised by the federal government in United States by state and local authorities. While the regulation of corporate activities is primarily in control of the federal government under the commerce clause.

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which specialized unit did the memphis police department disband in the wake of tyre nicholsâs death?

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The unit in the name of SCORPION may be regarded as a specialized unit that the Memphis Police Department started to disband in the wake of Tyre Nicholas' assassination.

The police departments may be referred to or considered as the special divisions within the police authorities of a particular region. These departments are given the responsibility to look only after a dedicated set of activity, and help the authorities achieve their desired goals from the department thus formed. SCORPION is a similar-specialized unit under the Memphis Police Department.

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what is 20th amendment simplified?

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The expiration and start dates of the President's and Congress' terms were altered by the 20th amendment.

A contract, law, government regulatory filing, or other document's terms can be changed, modified, or added to. The amendment is the term used to describe changes made to a nation's constitution. The Lame Duck Amendment, or 20th Amendment, to the United States Constitution altered the dates on which the terms of the President and Congress ended and began. The president's term expired on March 4 before the amendment, and the new president took office on that day.

The result was a protracted lame duck period between the November election and the beginning of the next President's term in March. Because of the Amendment's reduction of this time frame, the current President's tenure now ends on January 20 and the new President is sworn in on the same day. Moreover, it changed the start date of the new Congress from March 4 to January 3 in the year 2018. Now, there will be less time among the presidential inauguration and the election, allowing the new Congress to get down to business faster.

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the landmark supreme court decision in 1948 by the u.s. government in the anti-trust case against the major studios for unfair monopoly over the entertainment industry was called

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The landmark Supreme Court decision in 1948 by the U.S. government in the anti-trust case against the major studios for unfair monopoly over the entertainment industry was called United States v. Paramount Pictures, Inc., 334 U.S. 131 (1948).

United States v. Paramount Pictures, Inc., 334 U.S. 131 (1948), was a landmark Supreme Court ruling by the United States government in the anti-trust action against the major studios for unfair monopoly over the entertainment industry (1948). This is known colloquially as the "Paramount case" or the "Hollywood antitrust case." The court determined that the big studios had broken antitrust rules by engaging in unfair commercial practices, and it ordered them to divest their theater holdings and reform their distribution policies. The ruling had a huge impact on the film business and paved the path for increased competition and creativity.

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A plaintiff sued a company for damages incurred when the company's delivery truck drove through the plaintiff's storefront. The plaintiff wants to testify that the driver, a permanent employee of the company, told the plaintiff, "I kept telling my boss these brakes were on their last miles, but they were not fixed. They failed as I turned that corner." The company owns the truck.
Is the plaintiff's testimony regarding the truck driver's statements likely admissible?
No, because the testimony is hearsay not within any exception.
No, because there is no proof that the truck driver was authorized to speak for the company.
Yes, the testimony is admissible under a hearsay exception.
Yes, the testimony is admissible as non-hearsay.

Answers

The plaintiff's testimony regarding the truck driver's statements is likely admissible under a hearsay exception.

Hence, the correct option is C.

The driver's statement is an admission by a party-opponent, as the driver was a permanent employee of the company that owns the truck and was acting within the scope of their employment at the time of the accident. Therefore, the statement is considered an admission by the company, and can be offered against the company as an exception to the hearsay rule.

There are a number of exceptions to the hearsay rule, one of which is the "admission by a party-opponent" exception. This exception allows for the admission of a statement made by a party-opponent, regardless of whether the statement was made in court or out of court, as long as the statement was made by the party-opponent or someone authorized to speak on their behalf.

Of course, admissibility of evidence is ultimately up to the judge, who may decide that the statement is not reliable or relevant to the case.

But generally, the plaintiff's testimony regarding the truck driver's statement would be considered admissible under the admission by a party-opponent exception to the hearsay rule.

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a federally related transaction is one in which the loan won't be sold on the secondary market and isn't guaranteed or insured by the federal government.

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A federally related mortgage loan is one that is either insured or guaranteed by a federal agency. These loans may be sold on the secondary market.

Therefore, the statement provided is incorrect.

Guaranteed by federal agency or entity such as the Federal Housing Administration (FHA), the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), or the Rural Housing Service (RHS). These loans may be sold on the secondary market, but they are still considered to be federally related transactions because they are backed by a federal agency.

A federally related transaction is a real estate transaction in which a federal financial institution regulatory agency has regulatory authority, and it includes certain types of mortgage loans.

These transactions are subject to various federal laws and regulations, such as the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (RESPA), which sets forth guidelines for real estate transactions involving a federally related mortgage loan.

It's important to have a clear understanding of what constitutes a federally related transaction, as they are subject to specific rules and regulations that are designed to protect consumers and ensure transparency in real estate transactions.

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The way that power is sorted between a central government and lower governments is known as
O distribution of power
O public good
O evoluntionary theory
O institution

Answers

distribution of power

what is the role of the necessary and proper clause?

Answers

To enact all laws necessary and appropriate for carrying out the aforementioned powers as well as all other powers granted to the United States government, or to any department or officer thereof, by this constitution.

Congress has the authority to "make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into Execution the foregoing Powers, and all other Powers vested by this Constitution in the Government of the United States, or any Department or Officer thereof," as stated in Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution.

The Necessary and Proper Clause gives Congress the authority to enact special laws that direct other government departments to investigate or decide on specific claims, whether they are brought by the government or by private parties.

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True or False: after being served with a summons and a copy of the complaint, a defendant usually files a pleading known as an answer, briefly replying to each allegation in the complaint.

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The given statement 'after being served with a summons and a copy of the complaint, a defendant usually files a pleading known as an answer, briefly replying to each allegation in the complaint' is True.

A summons is a document created by the plaintiff and sent by the court to the defendant informing them that they are the subject of a lawsuit or that they must appear in court.

A sheriff or other authorized individual, such as the process server, may serve it.

The Nebraska judgement clarifies that "a summons is a tool used to convey notice to a party of civil proceedings and of the chance to present and be heard" in the context of civil lawsuits.

The defendant is notified by a summons that they have a specified amount of time to answer to the case or appear in court.

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what is the difference between an executive order and a law?

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Executive order and a law are differentiated on the basis of its implementation.

An executive order is issued by either the President of the United States or the Governor of a state. From the President, the orders concern operation of the federal government. Governors often use them in matters related to public health. An executive order has the force of law, meaning there could be consequences for violating it. Issuing an executive order is also typically much faster than passing a law. A law requires congressional approval and can be repealed by congress, which is not the case with an executive order. A new order would have to be created to eliminate an executive order that is in place, and once the governor leaves office, the executive orders are deemed invalid. There are certain similarities also such as, both executive orders and laws may carry a punishment for violation. They are also both extensively documented and officially recorded. In the case of Presidential executive orders and federal laws, both of them fall under the Code of Federal Regulation, which is the official record of all federal rules and regulations.

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powers of the national government specifically stated in the constitution are called?

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The powers that are in the hands of the federal government specifically stated in the United States' Constitution are also known as the enumerated powers.

The federal government, or the national government, holds the highest degree of powers, when it comes to governing the functions and political activities related to the purview of the entire nation as a whole. Moreover, it may also be stated that the enumerated powers are called as the authorities held under the jurisdiction of the national government.

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Fill in the blankyou follow the traffic laws and rules because you believe they are legitimate and good for public welfare. at the same time, you recognize that sometimes there can be a legitimate reason for driving through a red light. you are demonstrating the ____ orientation stage of moral development.

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You follow the traffic laws and rules because you believe they are legitimate and good for public welfare. At the same time, you recognize that sometimes there can be a legitimate reason for driving through a red light. You are demonstrating the post-conventional orientation stage of moral development.

This stage is characterized by an individual's ability to recognize and understand social contracts and principles, as well as the willingness to act in accordance with these values, while also recognizing that there may be situations in which the rules may need to be questioned or overridden for a greater good.

It is the last stage in Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral development. In this stage, individuals move beyond the conventional rules and expectations of society and begin to develop their own moral principles and values. This stage is often associated with adulthood and is not always reached by all individuals.

They believe that morality is based on universal ethical principles, such as justice, equality, and human rights, rather than just following the laws and rules of society.

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T/F in a federal system, a central government is given power to act nationally, while states administer to local concerns.

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True. In a federal system, the central government is given power to act nationally, while the states are responsible for administering to local concerns. This system allows for a balance between the power of the federal government and the power of the states. The federal government is responsible for issues that affect the entire nation, such as foreign policy, defense, and taxation. The states are responsible for issues that affect their citizens, such as education, health care, and public safety. This system of shared power allows for a balance between the rights of the states and the rights of the federal government.

If a business is expected to generate tax-favored income it may be better to choose the corporate business form.False.True

Answers

The statement "If a business is expected to generate tax-favored income it may be better to choose the corporate business form" is false.

Unlike other forms of businesses, the tax attributes of income and expenses items of the corporation do not pass directly to the shareholders. So in order to generate tax-favored income a different form of business should be selected.  Under a Schedular system, it is common for separate taxes to be imposed on employment, business, and investment income. In corporate businesses tax revenue generation is quite difficult and the tax generated is very high. Commercial businesses such as hospitality, medical, human resources generally generate better tax-favored income then a corporate.

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______ governments have plenary power, or power that is not constrained. a. Local b. State c. County d. Federal.

Answers

The state government has unrestricted power, or plenary power. The best choice is B.

How does a state government function?

State governments have a legislative branch, an executive branch headed by a governor, as well as a judicial system, just like the federal government. These links will take you to pages for your local government, state courts, state law website, and state government and state court websites.

How do state and federal power differ?

All 50 states are under the limited jurisdiction of the federal government. Within their state's borders, state governments get the authority to regulate. The ability of states to enact laws that clash with those of the national govt is another way in which state authority is constrained. Federalism.

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What is the definition of political ideology

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A political ideology may be defined as an ideology that gives idea about the way in which the political functioning of a society must take place, which may differ based on a number of internal as well as the external factors.

A political ideology can be referred to or taken into consideration as an ideology that is revolving around the political functioning of a society. The ideas in reference to democracy, monarchy, communism, etc. can all be considered as the different definitions of political ideologies that exist in the society.

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true/false. death is a dignitary who, when he comes announced, is to be received with formal manifestations of respect, even by those most familiar with him. in the code of military etiquette silence and fixity are forms of deference

Answers

True. Even even those who are most familiar with him, death is a dignitary who should be welcomed with ceremonial displays of respect when he is announced.

Silence and rigidity are examples of deference in the military's code of conduct. The majority of "An Occurrence at Owl Creek Bridge" maintains a steady tone, but there are a few instances, like this passage from the story's second paragraph, where the tone briefly changes.

The Union soldiers are preparing for Farquhar's hanging in a silent and formal manner until this quotation, which illustrates Bierce's love of aphorisms and epigrams, is said. There is a ceremonial quality to the ceremony, and the soldiers take their roles seriously. Their silent attention, says Bierce.

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Which democratic principle of the U.S. Constitution is Madison describing?A) RepublicanisB) Popular sovereigntyC) Checks and balancesD) Separation of powersE) Antifa

Answers

U.S. Constitution is Madison describing the democratic principle of Separation of powers.

The correct answer is Option C.

The founder of the Constitution, James Madison, spent five Federalist Papers to outlining how the Executive, Legislative, and Judicial departments were to be completely independent of one another while remaining connected by a complex system of checks and balances.

Madison thought that maintaining the separation of the three branches was essential to the preservation of liberty.

The basic definition of tyranny, according to Madison, may be said to be the concentration of all legislative, executive, and judicial functions in the same hands, whether of one, a few, or many, and whether hereditary, self-appointed, or elective.

The three major departments of authority should be kept separate and distinct in order to create a just legal system that protects liberty.

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Which of the following roles best describes the governor's role managing the state?chief executivechief of statechief legislatorcommander-in-chief

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The governor serves as the state's manager, hence the title of (A) chief executive is most appropriate.

What is a chief executive?

As defined by a constitution or fundamental law, the term "chief executive" refers to the president or prime minister who has the authority to select and dismiss executive officials, implement policy, and monitor the executive branch of government.

Every state has a governor who is appointed to lead the Executive Branch and is chosen by popular vote.

Other members of the executive branch who are directly elected in the majority of states include the lieutenant governor, attorney general, secretary of state, auditors, and commissioners.

The governor's position as state manager is best described as chief executive.

Therefore, the governor serves as the state's manager, hence the title of (A) chief executive is most appropriate.

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Correct question:
Which of the following roles best describes the governor's role in managing the state?

(A) chief executive

(B)  chief of state

(C) chief legislator

(D) commander-in-chief

the state board of nursing has brought action against a nurse's license based upon violation of a regulation. what statement is correct about this nurse's action?

Answers

Based on the information given, the following statement is correct about the nurse's action, the nurse has allegedly violated a regulation that is enforced by the state board of nursing, which has taken action against the nurse's license.

This means that the board has initiated a disciplinary process against the nurse, which may result in sanctions or penalties such as fines, suspension, or revocation of the nurse's license.

It's important to note that without additional information, it's impossible to determine the nature of the alleged violation, the severity of the disciplinary action, or the specific regulations or laws involved.

Nurses are held to high standards of professional conduct and ethical behavior, and they must comply with all applicable laws, regulations, and standards of practice to protect the health and safety of their patients.

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a zone where no state exercises complete political control.

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A zone where no state exercises complete political control is called a frontier.

A put that is on the edge of a state's political or actual boundaries and over which the state has practically no viable control is regularly alluded to as a wilderness. A boundary fills in as an obstruction between states even while it brings neighbors into prompt contact, improving the probability of brutality.

This can be credited to various variables, including landscape, social contrasts, or an absence of assets. Outskirts can go about as focuses of correspondence and exchange between different individuals and human advancements expand to being destinations of contention.

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if two parties have an on-going oral agreement that that one will ship and the other will accept 50 pounds of produce each week unless the buyer informs the seller one week before not to ship the next order, then the buyer's failure to speak up and tell the shipper not to send the produce:A: qualifies as acceptance of that week's delivery offer.
B: does not qualify as a valid acceptance of the offer.
C: fails as an acceptance for lack of timeliness.
D: cannot be held against them as acceptance of an offer.

Answers

In the example "if two parties have an on-going oral agreement that that one will ship and the other will accept 50 pounds of produce each week unless the buyer informs the seller one week before not to ship the next order, then the buyer's failure to speak up and tell the shipper not to send the produce" will qualify as the acceptance of that week's order.

Hence, the correct option in A.

Since the Law of Contracts is all about offer and acceptance, if the buyer does not inform the seller about not to ship the order, the seller will automatically assume that the order has to be sent out as it regularly occurs based on the oral agreement between the two.

Due to which the buyer will be compelled to accept that week's order because he failed to get his message across to the seller.

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if copyrighted material does not fall under fair use, can you use it? how?

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If I want to use copyrighted material that does not fall under fair use,I will  have to license it in order to get permission to post it.

Fair use is a convention in US regulation that licenses restricted utilization of copyrighted material without having to initially get consent from the copyright holder. Fair use is one of the limits to copyright expected to adjust the interests of copyright holders with the public premium in the more extensive conveyance and utilization of imaginative works by permitting as a safeguard to copyright encroachment guarantees specific restricted utilizes that could somehow be considered infringement.

Dissimilar to "fair managing" freedoms that exist in many nations with an English lawful history, the fair utilize right is an overall exemption that applies to various sorts of purposes with a wide range of works and turns on an adaptable proportionality test that looks at the reason for the utilization, the sum utilized, and the effect available of the first work.

To involve copyrighted material in a manner that doesn't fall under fair use, I will need to permit it to get consent to post it. In the event that you're keen on buying the freedoms to utilize pictures, video, and different media in your work, you might need to visit the accompanying stock photograph destinations

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which of the following courts has no authority to set precedence when it comes to providing a source of tax law?

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The Small Claims Division of Tax Court typically has no authority to set precedence when it comes to providing a source of tax law.

The body of law that governs the assessment and collection of taxes by government authorities is referred to as tax law. Tax law comprises a wide range of rules and regulations that apply to various sorts of taxes, such as income tax, property tax, sales tax, and excise tax. Tax law also comprises measures for the administration of tax policies and programs, as well as provisions for the enforcement of tax laws, the resolution of disputes between taxpayers and the government. Tax law is complicated and subject to frequent modifications and updates at both the federal and state levels.

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The following question may be like this:

Which of the following courts has no authority to set precedence when it comes to providing a source of tax law?

a. U.S. Court of Federal Claims.

b. U.S. Supreme Court.

c. Small Cases Division of Tax Court.

d. Tax Court (regular decisions).

e. U.S. Court of Appeals.

Other Questions
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