Consider two individuals that have the following genotypes: CCDd and Ccdd.
Predict the outcomes of a cross for these two individuals. What are the outcomes that could occur in the offspring? Select ALL that
apply.
A)
1/4 of the offspring will be CCdd.
B)
ccdd is not possible as an outcome of this cross,
All of the offspring will show the dominant trait for the allele.
D)
Only half of the offspring will show the dominant trait for the Dallele.
E)
All of the offspring will be heterozygous and will display the dominant
traits

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

A,B,C,D

Explanation:

Since one parent is CC, there is no way to get cc as an outcome from this cross. However, there is also no way that all of the offspring will be CcDd, which is heterozygous for both traits. Therefore, this is the only answer choice that is incorrect.

Answer 2

As per observation about the  two individuals that have the following genotypes: CCDd and Ccdd the cross are options: a,b,c,d.

Since one parent is CC, there may be no manner to get cc as an final results from this cross. However, there may be additionally no manner that every one of the offspring could be CcDd, that is impure breed for each traits.

What is genotype ?

Genotype is an individual's series of genes. The time period can also talk to the 2 alleles inherited for a specific gene. The genotype is expressed while the statistics encoded within side the genes' DNA is used to make protein and RNA molecules.

Thus it is clear that all the observations are correct.

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Related Questions

Proteins in a membrane are integral if they are embedded in the membrane and protrude from either surfaces of the bilayer.

Answers

The given statement that the proteins in a membrane are integral if they are embedded in the membrane and protrude from either surfaces of the bilayer holds true.

What are Integral Proteins?

Integral proteins are the surface membrane proteins present in the plasma membrane of the cells.

They are attached to the plasma membrane and function by allowing only certain molecules to enter the cell.

The integral proteins are crucial in maintaining entry and exit of molecules.

Some integral proteins also act as an receptors to certain hormones.

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A scientist wishes to develop a new drug that prevents synaptic communication via neuropeptides but not small molecule neurotransmitters. Which mechanism would be a good target for his drug

Answers

Disruption of axonal transport would be a good target for his drug.

What is disruption of axonal transport?Axonal transport defects are among the early molecular events leading to neurodegeneration in mouse models of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS).Gene expression profiles indicate that dynactin-1 mRNA is downregulated in degenerating spinal motor neurons of autopsied patients with sporadic ALS. Disruption of axonal transport also underlies the pathogenesis of spinal muscular atrophy and hereditary spastic paraplegias.The neurotoxin β,β′-iminodipropionitrile (IDPN) selectively disrupts slow axonal transport without affecting fast anterograde or retrograde axonal transport.Impairment of slow axonal transport causes a proximal accumulation of neurofilaments. Because neurofilaments regulate axonal diameter, this accumulation leads to a marked swelling of the axon.Acrylamide causes decreased axonal transport, also causing proximal accumulations of neurofilaments and swelling.

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Increases partial thromboplastin time, but not prothrombin time?

a. enoxaparin
b. dabigatran
c. rivaroxaban
d. warfarin

Answers

Warfarin increases partial thromboplastin time, but not prothrombin time.

The answer is option D.

Warfarin, offered below the logo called Coumadin amongst others, is a medicinal drug that is used as an anticoagulant (blood thinner). it's miles normally used to prevent blood clots which include deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism, and to save you stroke in humans who've atrial fibrillation, valvular heart ailment, or synthetic heart valves.

Much less generally it is used following ST-section elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) and orthopedic surgical treatment. It's far typically taken by way of mouth, however, may also be used by injection into a vein.

The not unusual facet effect is bleeding. Much less commonplace side outcomes may also encompass areas of tissue harm and pink ft syndrome. Use is not advocated throughout being pregnant. It is encouraged that the effects of warfarin commonly be monitored by checking prothrombin time each one to four weeks.

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Prepare a list of different Harvest Festivals in India

Answers

Answer:

1.Karam (Karma) Harvest Festival in India

2.Kashmir Rice Harvest Festival

3.Onam Festival

4.Nuakhai

5.Baisakhi

Explanation:

Addition of a nucleotide onto a dna strand is an endergonic reaction. what provides the energy to drive the reaction?

Answers

The release of pyrophosphate from the incoming nucleotide, and then hydrolysis of the pyrophosphate to inorganic phosphate provides energy for the addition of nucleotide onto a DNA strand.

Nucleotides are linked together by a condensation event that yields a tiny, stable molecule. But the released molecule is pyrophosphate, not water. A good amount of free energy is released when water is added to pyrophosphate.

The high-energy link between the ejected beta and gamma phosphates stores the energy for each incoming nucleotide's addition. The subsequent hydrolysis that occurs drives the process. A substantially greater quantity of energy is released when two phosphates are separated into individual phosphates.

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The least movable joints are _____________ joints.

Answers

Answer:

fibrous joints is the answer ..

hope it helps...

The light reactions produce ________ and ________. carbohydrates, ATP oxygen, ATP water, carbohydrates ATP, carbon dioxide

Answers

Answer:

ATP and Oxygen.

Explanation:

In light reactions:

Oxygen is yielded through the photolysis of water.

ATP is yielded through chemiosmosis (using ATP synthase, similar to the process in mitochondria).

Note: NADP is also formed in light reactions, but it doesn't seem to be mentioned in this question.

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Which of the following is correct about
the layers of the rainforest and its
contents?
A. The canopy is the lowest layer of the rainforest and is
mostly plants that are low to the ground.
B. The ground layer of plants receives abundant sunlight.
C. There are very few vines in the rainforest.
D. The canopy consists of very tall trees that block
sunlight from lower layers.

Answers

The true statement regarding the layers of the rainforest and its contents is: the canopy consists of very tall trees that block sunlight from lower layers (option D).

What is a forest?

A forest is a dense and uncultivated tract of trees and undergrowth, larger than woods.

A forest can be described as an area of land that is predominantly made up of trees and few grasses.

The forest region is categorized as follows:

Canopy or upper stratumMiddle layerForest floor

However, the canopy consists of very tall trees that block sunlight from lower layers.

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In which of the five basic supply chain activities do you manufacture products and create production schedules?

Answers

Make among the five basic supply chain activities manufacture products and create production schedules.

What are the 5 basic supply chain activities?

The five basic supply chain activities are Plan, source, make, deliver and return. The planning phase entails creating a comprehensive supply chain strategy, whereas the other four components focus on the essential conditions for putting that strategy into action.

Building ties with vendors to obtain raw materials is referred to as the source in the fundamental supply chain. Return in the context of the fundamental supply chain means assisting with client and product returns. Coordination of the many tasks required to create and deliver goods and services to clients is known as supply chain management.

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The common atrium is subdivided into a left and right atrium by an interatrial septum, which consists of two parts: the septum and the septum that partially overlap.

Answers

The common atrium is subdivided into a left and right atrium by an interatrial septum, which consists of two parts: the septum primum and the septum secundum that partially overlap.

What is septum primum and septum secundum?

The septum primum, which divides the right from the left, is a structure inside the primitive atrium. In the direction of the endocardial cushions, this septum descends. The foramen primum, a hole in this septum, keeps the blood flowing through the heart. The foramen secundum develops as the foramen primum shrinks in size.

What is the purpose of septum secundum?

A muscular flap called the septum secundum plays a significant role in heart growth. It has a semi-lunar form and develops from the atrium's upper wall to the right of the septum primum and ostium secundum. It is crucial for the foramen ovale to close after birth.

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The correct question is -

The common atrium is subdivided into a left and right atrium by an interatrial septum, which consists of two parts: the septum ______ and the septum ______ that partially overlap.

Katie designed an experiment using a paint roller pan, sand, and water. The steps of the experiment are listed below.
1. Put 3 inches of moist sand on a paint roller pan.
2. Make a beach by scooping the sand toward the higher portion of the pan.
3. Pour water into the deeper end of the pan.
4. Use a straw to blow on the water for 2 minutes to create waves.
5. Observe how the sand is displaced by the waves.
Katie's model most likely represents the interactions between the
A) atmosphere, hydrosphere, and geosphere
B) atmosphere, ocean, and biosphere
C) cryosphere, biosphere, and ocean
D) geosphere, ocean, and biosphere

Answers

Katie's model most likely represents the interactions between the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and geosphere (option A).

What are the spheres of life?

The spheres of life summarizes the constituents of the Earth.

According to this question, Katie designed an experiment using a paint roller pan, sand, and water.

Katie's model represents the interaction between the following spheres;

Atmosphere; this is represented by the air blown into the water to make waveHydrosphere; this is represented by the water usedGeosphere; this is represented by the soil/sand

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Exercise results in skeletal muscles compressing veins which encourages blood to return to the heart. In this scenario, which of the following is correct

Answers

The exercise results in skeletal muscles compressing veins which encourages blood to return to the heart. In this scenario is that the preload increases. Option D

What are preloads?

Preload are also  known as the left ventricular end-diastolic pressure (LVEDP)

It is also known as the amount of ventricular stretch at the end of diastole. It is the heart loading up for the next big squeeze of the ventricles during the systole.

Preload is also affected by the rate of venous return and the venous blood pressure , which are affected by the volume of circulating blood and venous tone .

Preload is increased by exercising , or increase in blood pressure and neuroendocrine excitement .

Thus, the exercise results in skeletal muscles compressing veins which encourages blood to return to the heart. In this scenario is that the preload increases. Option D

The complete question is

Exercise results in skeletal muscles compressing veins which encourages blood to return to the heart. In this scenario, which of the following is correct?

a. End diastolic volume (EDV) decreases.

b. Stroke volume decreases

c. Venous return decreases.

d. Preload increases.

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Some ______ are able to metabolize oil and have been used in the cleanup of oil spills.

Answers

The bacteria are able to metabolize oil and have been in the cleanup of oil spills.

There are many well-known types of microbes discovered by discovers/researchers, for example- Bacteroidetes, have the potential to degrade hydrocarbons. During an oil spill, these low-abundance microbes sense hydrocarbons and move toward the source where they flourish and reproduce. Some of the microbes use oil as fuel.

It is found that the Bioremediation is used to clean up oil spills or contaminated groundwater. Bioremediation may be done 'in - situ' at the site of the contamination or 'ex - situ' environment.

There is a specie called Pseudomonas putida which is widely used in oil spill bioremediation. It is there to break down many aromatic compounds like hydrocarbons.

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In the scientific method: Select one: a. Hypotheses to be tested are formulated after collecting the data. b. Publication is an optional part of the process, mainly to further the careers of the scientists, but is not actually necessary. c. The self-correcting nature of science usually means that mistakes or even deceptions do not last long. d. None of the above.

Answers

In the scientific method, the self-correcting nature of science usually means that mistakes or even deceptions do not last long.

Scientific Method

The scientific method is the process chosen by scientists and researchers to investigate or verify a  phenomenon.  It involves various steps such as making an observation, asking the question, forming the hypothesis, collecting the data, testing the hypothesis, and deriving the conclusion.

Science is always self-correcting as every piece of information is scrutinized over and over again. Often disproving existing information with appropriate evidence is considered a prestigious and high achievement. This is unlike politics, religion, etc where such a person might get prosecuted. It is often regarded as the aim of science is not to proclaim a piece of information as absolute truth but to keep improving a piece of existing information.

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The virtually universal decline in near vision in middle adulthood is called __________.

Answers

The virtually universal decline in near vision in middle adulthood is called presbyopia.

What is vision?

Vision is the ability of the eyes to receive and send signals to the brain which then interprets and produces a picture of the object.

A common eye defect the occurs as people grow into adulthood is known as presbyopia.

In conclusion, presbyopia is an age-dependent eye defect.

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Viruses that have reverse transcriptase are in the Group of answer choices Influenzavirus. Herpesviridae and Retroviridae. Hepadnaviridae and Retroviridae. Bacteriophage families. Retroviridae and Picornaviridae.

Answers

Viruses that have reverse transcriptase are in the Group of Hepadnaviridae and Retroviridae.

Reverse transcriptase

Reverse transcription, also known as DNA synthesis from an RNA template, is carried out by the enzyme reverse transcriptase (RT). Reverse transcriptases are employed by eukaryotic cells to lengthen the telomeres at the ends of their linear chromosomes, viruses like HIV and hepatitis B to reproduce their genomes, and mobile genetic elements like retrotransposons to multiply inside the host genome.

What does Hepadnaviridae mean?

A family of viruses is called Hepadnaviridae. Natural hosts include people, monkeys, and birds. Currently, there are 18 species in this family, spread across 5 genera.

What is the Retroviridae's genetic organization?

Both the reverse transcription method, which enables the inclusion of these viruses into the family, and the genomic organization are the same as those of other members of the Retroviridae. Along with gag, pol, and env, two more genes (tas and bet) are expressed in cells.

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In negative control of transcription by the lac operon, how does the presence of an inducer affect transcription?.

Answers

If the inducer [allolactose] is present in the negative control then it will bind to the repressor decreasing its ability to bind to the operator due to which the transcription begins again and the operon is turned on.

Lac Operon is a set of three genes z, y & a which are regulated under the same promoter which regulates the amount of lactose production in the cell.

An inducer is a molecule that has the ability to induce or activate the operon. ex- in the case of the lac operon, allolactose acts as an inducer.

A repressor is a molecule that will repress or restricts the transcription of the genes of the operon, as a result, the operon will be switched off.

When the lac operon is under negative control, with no CAP [catabolite repressor protein] binding activity, the repressor remains active and thus binds to the operator region of the operon, as a result, no transcription takes place and the operon will be switched off.

But if the inducer will be present even in the negative control then the transcription takes place and the operon will be on.

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Natural formation processes include such activities as plowing, building structures, or making tools.

Answers

False - plowing, building structure or making tools are not natural formation process.

Natural formation processes are not the man made process.  

The natural and human-made processes known as formation processes are what give the archaeological record its shape. whereas environmental elements that affect the conservation of archaeological artifacts are natural formation processes.

Natural formation processes includes floralturbation, faunalturbation, cryoturbation, argilliturbation, and graviturbation.

Floralturbation is the disruption of vegetation caused by tree roots.

Plowing, building structure and making tools are the human made process.

Hence, It is false statement.

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What does the test of unsaturation reveal about the structural biology of lipids?

Answers

Fatty acids that have an extra quantity of double bonds (decrease degree of saturation) would require more testing answers than people with decreased numbers of double bonds.

Unsaturated fat, which is liquid at room temperature, is considered useful fat because they are able to improve blood levels of cholesterol, ease irritation, stabilize heart rhythms, and play some different user roles.

To check for the presence of lipids, you'll carry out the emulsion test. To do this, you are taking the pattern and mixing it with the same volumes of ethanol and water accompanied by shaking. A cloudy white emulsion will shape if lipids are present. If lipids are absent, no emulsion will shape.

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Venous drainage of the head and neck is through the veins, which then drain into the brachiocephalic veins.

Answers

According to the research, the statement is true. Venous drainage of the head and neck is through the internal jugular vein, which then drain into the brachiocephalic veins.

What is the internal jugular vein?

It is a very wide and thick duct that it is responsible for collecting the non-oxygenated blood that comes from the head, from the anterior area of the neck.

Being the largest caliber and the other jugular veins flow into it; it is a continuation of the sigmoid sinus and together with the subclavian vein made up of the brachiocephalic veins that drain blood from the head, neck, and upper extremities.

Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the statement is true. Venous drainage of the head and neck is through the internal jugular vein, which then drain into the brachiocephalic veins.

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Molecular koch's postulates are used to identify which characteristic of pathogens?

Answers

Molecular Koch's postulates is used to arbitrate what genes commit to a pathogen's capability to cause disease.

Molecular Koch's postulates are a set of experimental criteria that must be satisfied to show that a gene found in a pathogenic microorganism encodes a product that contributes to the disease caused by the pathogen. Genes that satisfy molecular Koch's postulates are often referred to as virulence factors. Robert Koch's postulates, published in 1890, are a set of criteria that establish whether a particular organism is the cause of a particular disease. Today, Koch's postulates are taught in high school and college classrooms as a demonstration of the rigor and legitimacy of clinical microbiology.

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Mitochondrial dna (mtdna) recovered from a fossil hominin from sima de los huesos in northern spain shows connections to the mtdna of?

Answers

Mitochondrial DNA (mtdna) recovered from a fossil hominin from sima de los huesos in northern spain shows connections to the mtdna of the Denisovans.

The Sima de los Huesos showed distinctive proof of DNA survival over an extended period of time. Based on the enzymatic amplification of a few short mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) fragments from Middle Pleistocene cave bear bones. Given that the Sima de los Huesos fossils have Neanderthal-derived characteristics (such as in their dental, mandibular, midfacial, supraorbital, and occipital morphology), it is unexpected that the mtDNA from these fossils has a common origin with Denisovan rather than Neanderthal mtDNAs.

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The color distribution for a specific population of snakes is 160 blue, 50 turquoise, and 40 green. The allele for the color blue is represented by BB, whereas the allele for the color green is represented by BG. Both alleles demonstrate incomplete dominance.

Answers

BBBB = 0.64

BBBG = 0.20

BGBG = 0.16

The color distribution for a specific population of snakes is 160 blue, 50 turquoise, and 40 green. The allele for the color blue is represented by BB, whereas the allele for the color green is represented by BG. Both alleles demonstrate incomplete dominance

Genotype frequency is calculated as the ratio of the number of people with that genotype to all people. Blue gecko genotype frequency (BBBB) is 160/(160 + 50 + 40) = 160/250 = 0.64. Turquoise gecko genotype frequency (BBBG) = 50/250 = 0.20 Green gecko genotype frequency (BGBG) = 40/250 = 0.16

When both alleles of a gene are only partially expressed at a locus, it is known as incomplete dominance. This sort of gene interaction frequently produces an intermediate or distinct phenotype. It's sometimes referred to as "partial domination."

 

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Restriction enzymes (endonucleases) are produced by bacteria as a means of protection against which infectious agent?

Answers

Restriction endonucleases are components of the bacterial "immune system,". Bacteria cleave unmethylated infecting viral or bacteriophage DNAs at specific locations, inactivating the virus and limiting viral infection. They also methylate their own DNA at specific sites for which they generate a restriction enzyme, protecting it from their own restriction enzymes.

A restriction enzyme is a protein derived from bacteria that cleaves DNA sequences at sequence-specific places, Depending on how many cutting sites for that particular restriction enzyme is present in the DNA, creating DNA fragments with a known sequence at each end.

For several laboratory techniques, such as genetic engineering and recombinant DNA technologies, restriction enzymes are essential.

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Orang 2014. Mechanisms of miRNA-mediated gene regulation from common downregulation to mRNA-specific upregulation

Answers

MicoRNAs (miRNAs) are now known to be one of the most important regulatory gene families in eukaryotes. To date, 24521 microRNAs have been discovered, with many more on the way.

It was first recognized that miRNAs suppress gene expression at both the mRNA stability level by conducting mRNA degradation and the translation level (at initiation and after initiation) by inhibiting protein translation or degrading polypeptides by binding complementarily to the 3'UTR of the target mRNAs.

Nonetheless, some studies have shown that miRNAs can directly or indirectly activate gene expression in response to different cell types and conditions, as well as in the presence of specific cofactors.

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Order the coenzymes according to their involvement in the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex.
a. nad.
b. coa-sh.
c. tpp.
d. lipoate (lipoamide).
e. [fad].

Answers

The coenzymes according to their involvement in the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex.

d. lipoate (lipoamide).

b. coa-sh.

e. [fad].

a. nad.

c. tpp.

The oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate, which results in the synthesis of acetyl-CoA, CO2, and NADH (H+) (1,-3), is catalyzed by the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDC)3. By connecting the glycolytic pathway to the oxidative pathway of the tricarboxylic acid cycle, the PDC plays a crucial role in the oxidation of glucose. Mammals' PDC functions as a gatekeeper in the pyruvate metabolism to preserve glucose homeostasis in both the fed and fasted phases. Under various metabolic situations, tissues have carefully controlled PDC flux.

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Which of the bulk minerals has the highest recommended dietary allowance (rda), at 4700 mg?

Answers

Potassium iss the bulk minerals has the highest recommended dietary allowance (rda), at 4700 mg.

What is potassium and how does it affect diet?

All body tissues require potassium, which is an essential mineral. Because it carries a little electrical charge that triggers a variety of cell and neuron activities, it is occasionally referred to as an electrolyte. Potassium can be obtained as a supplement or naturally in many foods. Its primary function in the body is to support the maintenance of regular fluid levels inside our cells.

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Potassium is one of the bulk minerals that have the highest recommended dietary allowance (RDA), at 4700 mg.

Recommended dietary allowance of PotassiumThe most common intracellular cation, potassium, is the most important nutrient and is naturally found in a variety of foods as well as being sold as a dietary supplement.Due to its function in maintaining the volume of intracellular fluid and transmembrane electrochemical gradients, potassium is present in all bodily tissues and is necessary for normal cell function.To maintain its regular intracellular and extracellular quantities, about 90% of the potassium that is consumed is absorbed and utilized.The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA), which is the average daily intake of nutrients necessary to cover the needs of virtually all (97–98%) healthy people, is frequently used to create dietary plans for individuals that are nutrient sufficient.The recommended daily amount (RDA) for potassium is 4700 mg, which makes it one of the bulk minerals with the highest RDA.

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The major cause of extinction of species today is?

Answers

Habitat Destruction.

Which reason is least likely to contribute to the transmission of adenovirus?

Answers

The presence of a vector is least likely to contribute to the transmission of adenovirus.

Adenoviruses belong to the family of Adenoviridae. These viruses are of medium size, ranging in 90-100 nm, they do not have an outer layer of lipid. Thus, these viruses are non- enveloped  with an icosahedral nucleocapsid and have a double stranded DNA genome.

Adenoviruses can cause many types of illness in humans, which can range from mild respiratory infections in small children to multi-organ diseases in people who have a weak immune system.

The adenoviruses can spread when there is contact with droplets from the nose and throat of a person who is infected. It can also be spread by touching any surface that has the virus and then touching one's own eyes, mouth, or nose.

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Immature seed cones of conifers are usually green before pollination, and flowers of grasses are inconspicuously colored. What does this indicate about how they are pollinated

Answers

Immature seed cones of conifers are usually green before pollination, and flowers of grasses are inconspicuously colored. What does this indicate about their pollination? they are wind pollinated.
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