Convert 0.001 kL to g

Answer:

x = 100

Step-by-step explanation:

1. To get rid of the denominator of 5, multiply both sides of the equation to get 5

-40 + x = 60

2. Add 40 on both sides to get the variable x by itself

x = 60 + 40

3. Solve

x = 100

Answer:

x=100

Step-by-step explanation:

-8+x/5=12

--8+x/5=12+8

x/5=20

5*20=100

x=100

Answer:

12502 cards

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

» total of 70707070 cards of the deck

» 15151515 cards were taken and put in a pile

Solve:

1. So, you can subtract 15151515 from 70707070 to find how many cards are left:

70707070 - 15151515 = 55555555

2. Now, there are 55555555 cards remaining in the deck since 15151515 cards were taken to put in a pile. Since the dealer deals the remaining cards to 4444 people, you can just do 55555555 divided by 4444 to find how many cards each person gets:

55555555 ÷ 4444 = 12501.25

3. 12501.25 is the exact number of cards each person gets, but you can’t have a fraction/part of a card. You have to find a specific remaining number:

0.25 is the same as [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex], and so convert [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex] into a fraction with a denominator of 4444, but is still equivalent to [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex]: You’ll get [tex]\frac{1111}{4444}[/tex], which is correct because it’s still equivalent to [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex]

4. So, the remaining 55555555 cards divided by 4444 people is 12501 cards and a remainder of 1111 cards. The 1111 cards can be distributed upon the players, but not everyone can get it. Since 12501 were to given to the players and after the remaining 1111 were also distributed, this means that some will have 12501 cards and others will have 12502 cards.

Answer: So, the greatest number of cards any player will have after all the cards are dealt is 12502 cards.

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

Going by order of PEMDAS (parenthesis, exponents, multiplication, division, addition, subtraction), you add the 2 and the 9 first due to them being in parenthesis. You then multiply by 5.

Answer:

-450

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

To make 480 ribbon curls, it would take 8 hours.

Step-by-step explanation:

x=480/60

x=8

Love the Elf reference btw. Hope this helped! :D (Sorry if I'm wrong)

Answer:

77°

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question given above, the following data were obtained:

Cos α = 0.93

Sine θ = 0.26

Tan β = 0.84

α + β + θ =?

Next, we shall determine the value of α. This can be obtained as follow:

Cos α = 0.93

Take the inverse of Cos

α = Cos¯¹ 0.93

α = 22°

Next, we shall determine the value of θ. This can be obtained as follow:

Sine θ = 0.26

Take the inverse of Sine

θ = Sine¯¹ 0.26

θ = 15°

Next, we shall determine the value of β. This can be obtained as follow:

Tan β = 0.84

Take the inverse of Tan.

β = Tan¯¹ 0.84

β = 40°

Finally, we shall determine the value of α + β + θ . This can be obtained as follow:

α = 22°

θ = 15°

β = 40°

α + β + θ = 22 + 40 + 15

α + β + θ = 77°

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{26}[/tex]

.

Step-by-step explanation:

First step, find the value of tilted line. use pythagoras

[tex]c^2 = a^2 + b^2[/tex]

[tex]c^2 = 3^2 + 4^2[/tex]

[tex]c^2 = 9 + 16[/tex]

[tex]c^2 = 25[/tex]

[tex]c = \sqrt{25}[/tex]

[tex]c = 5[/tex]

.

So, the primeter is

[tex]= 2(5) + 4 + 12[/tex]

[tex]= 26[/tex]

Given:

One airplane is at 7,000 feet and is descending 50 feet every second.

Another plane is at  1,000 feet and is climbing at a rate of 70 feet per second.

To find:

The time taken by planes to reach at the same height.

Solution:

Let x be the number of seconds after which the planes be at the same height.

One airplane is at 7,000 feet and is descending 50 feet every second.

Change in 1 second = -50 feet   (Here negative sign means decrease)

Change in x second = -50x feet

Height of first airplane after x seconds is

[tex]f(x)=7000-50x[/tex]           ...(i)

Another plane is at  1,000 feet and is climbing at a rate of 70 feet per second.

Change in 1 second = 70 feet

Change in x second = 70x feet

Height of first airplane after x seconds is

[tex]g(x)=1000+70x[/tex]     ...(ii)

Equate (i) and (ii), to find the time after which both planes are on the same height.

[tex]7000-50x=1000+70x[/tex]

[tex]7000-1000=50x+70x[/tex]

[tex]6000=120x[/tex]

Divide both sides by 120.

[tex]50=x[/tex]

Therefore, both planes are at the same height after 50 seconds.

Answer:

The missing length is 12

Step-by-step explanation:

Required

Determine the missing length (LS)

If RS = 28 and KS = 14

Then

[tex]KR = RS - KS[/tex]

[tex]KR = 28 - 14[/tex]

[tex]KR = 14[/tex]

The sides of the given shape are directly proportional.

This implies that:

[tex]KS : LS = RS : QS[/tex]

[tex]KS = 14[/tex]

[tex]RS = 28[/tex]

[tex]QS = 12 + LS[/tex]

[tex]LS = ??[/tex]

So, the expression becomes:

[tex]14 : LS = 28 : 12 + LS[/tex]

Represent as a fraction

[tex]\frac{14}{LS} = \frac{28}{12 + LS}[/tex]

Cross Multiply:

[tex]14(12 + LS) = 28 * LS[/tex]

Divide through by 12

[tex]12 + LS = 2 * LS[/tex]

[tex]12 + LS = 2 LS[/tex]

Collect Like Terms

[tex]2LS - LS = 12[/tex]

[tex]LS = 12[/tex]

The length of the missing side is 12

Answer:  I cant see the pic clearly

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

i can't see pic clearly

Answer:

(85.62, 90.38).

Step-by-step explanation:

The missing data  can be assumed to be we have the following information:

¯x =88, s=10,  n=70

Substituting the values in the following formula, we compute the 95% C.I for true population mean diastolic pressure as shown below:

95% C.I.=¯x±t(0.95,n−1)⋅Sm=¯x±t(0.95,70−1)⋅s√n=88±1.99⋅10√70=(85.62,90.38)

The answer is (85.62, 90.38).

Answer:

Top graph

Step-by-step explanation:

It starts at x and continues right, so x > -3 in that graph

Answer:

y = -49

General Formulas and Concepts:

Pre-Algebra

Order of Operations: BPEMDAS

Equality Properties

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Define

-7 = y/7

Step 2: Solve for y

Answer:

67

Step-by-step explanation:

The number of prime numbers between the whole numbers 60 to 80 is 5 which are 61, 67, 71, 73, and 79.

Algebra is the study of abstract symbols, while logic is the manipulation of all those ideas.

A prime number is a positive integer having exactly two factors which are 1 and the number itself. Any number that does not follow this is termed a composite number.

The prime number between 60 and 80 is given below.

61, 67, 71, 73, and 79

The number of prime numbers between 60 to 80 is 5 which are 61, 67, 71, 73, and 79.

More about the Algebra link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/953809

#SPJ2

Answer: The domain has to be x and the range y. But for independent and dependent variable I can't help. So srry. The picture doesn't show the work. Have a nice day :)

Answer:

Option A: The subjects are numbered 1–50 and these numbers are put into a random number generator. The first 25 random numbers, ignoring repeats, represent the subjects assigned to the new model group. The remaining 25 subjects will wear the current model.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are told that Twenty - five runners will receive a pair of the new model and the remaining 25 will receive a pair of the current model.

Now, a completely randomized design is defined as one where the treatments will be assigned completely at random in such a manner that each experimental unit will posses the same chance of receiving any of the treatments given.

To this effect, the most likely answer will be picking people at random to assign either the new model or current model.

This is usually done by making a list of the treatment combinations and then assigning a random number to each subject.

Looking at the options, the most appropriate will be option A.

Answer:

12 boxes will be needed.

Answer:

12 boxes

Step-by-step explanation:

144/12=12

or

1-12x?=144

2-12x10=120

3-12x2=24

4-120+24=144

The required value of x is 40 which is determined by the substitute that equals the vertical angles.

When two lines intersect at a location, vertical angles are generated. They are always equal to each other.

As per the given accompanying diagram, lines AB and CD intersect at point E.

Since ∠AED and ∠BEC are vertical angles then they are congruent, thus

⇒ ∠AED = ∠BEC

⇒ (x + 10) = 50

Subtract 10 from both sides of the above equation,

⇒ x + 10 - 10 = 50 - 10

⇒ x = 40

Thus, the required value of x is 40.

Learn more about the Angles here:

brainly.com/question/2125016

#SPJ2

Answer:

70 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is d

Step-by-step explanation:

I used a calculator and i just took away 5.00 from 24.80(which is 19.8) then added all the other numbers to 19.8

Answer:

if I'm supposed to solve for P, the answer is 50

Step-by-step explanation:

1/2p-10=15

1/2p=25, subtraction property of equality

p=50, multiplication property of equality

therefore, P is equal to 50

Answer:

22 projects did not receive a perfect score

Step-by-step explanation:

12% or 25 is 3, meaning 3 got perfect scores. You would subtract 3 from 25 to get the amount of projects that didnt get a perfect score.

Answer:

52%

Step-by-step explanation:

25 x 4 =100

12 x 4 =48

100-48=52

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for calculating the distance between two points is expressed as

D =√(x2-x1)²+(y2-y1)²

Given the coordinates (0,0) and (8,5)

D = √(5-0)²+(8-0)²

D = √5²+8²

D = √25 + 64

D = √89

D = 9.43

Hence the distance between the life guard and the swimmer is 9.43

Summing complex numbers is easy: you just sum the real parts together and the imaginary parts together:

[tex](a+bi)+(c+di)=(a+c)+(b+d)i[/tex]

So, you have

[tex](4 - 2i) + (12 + 7i) = (4+12)+(-2+7)i = 16+5i[/tex]

Answer:

This is not a linear function.

Step-by-step explanation:

It is a quadratic function.  If you were to make a table of the x and y values of the function it would look like this:

x    y

0   -4

1   -1

2    8

Just by looking at these three values, we can see that they do not increase at a consistent rate.  It increases by 3 from 0 to 1, but increase by 9 from 1 to 2.  You can tell if a function is linear by seeing if it increases at a constant rate.  (In this case it does not)

Answer:

650

Step-by-step explanation:

13 into 70 goes 5 times.

5×13=65

13 into 2 goes 0 times.

0×13=0

.•. answer is 650

Answer:702

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is 254.You see how many time 702 goes into 13 and its 54 .We already have the 50 so there is the 4.

Answer:

Brand B is cheaper by 0.17 per pound.

Step-by-step explanation:

Brand A = 47.7/45 = 1.06

Brand B = 48.95/55 = 0.89

Answer:

Cos²(45°—A) + cos²(45°+A)

= [2 cos²(45°—A) + 2 cos²(45°+A)] /2

= [{2 cos²(45°—A)—1} + {2 cos²(45°+A)—1} + 2] /2

= [cos2(45°—A)+cos2(45°+A)+2]/2

= [cos(90°—2A)+cos(90°+2A)+2]/2

= (sin2A—sin2A+2)/2

= 2/2

= 1