The cone's mass as determined by the triple beam balance .(A) 543.0g is correct option.
The distant beam typically reads in 10 gramme increments, the front beam can read from 0 to 10 grammes, and the center beam typically reads in 100 gramme increments. The triple beam balance can be used to measure substances and measure mass directly from objects as well as find mass by difference for liquids.
Mass is measured carefully and accurately using an equipment or tool known as a triple beam balance. These instruments typically have a reading error or roundoff of 0.05 grammes.
The name of the instrument alludes to its three beams, of which the front beam is the smallest and lightest and the middle beam is the largest and longest. The far beam is of average size.
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Explain how the agricultural job market today is different than it was 100 years ago
Agricultural job market today is different than it was 100 years ago because of better technology has allowed farmers to feed more people and requires fewer people to work on farms to feed their families.
The manner that farmers are able to farm and raise food has been greatly impacted by changes in equipment. In the past, farmers had to use hand labour or equipment drawn by horses to complete field work. Over the past 50 years, the agriculture industry has undergone a significant transformation.Farm equipment has become larger, faster, and more productive because to technological advancements, allowing for the more effective cultivation of larger areas. Additionally substantially enhanced, seed, irrigation, and fertilisers have helped farmers boost harvests. The crops on old farms weren't watered by sprinklers. Pesticides to fight off pests and insects weren't available. They lacked tractors.
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Which of the following statements is true regarding the genetic map distance between two markers?
a) Is inversely related to the frequency of chiasma
b) Is directly related to the frequency of crossing-over.
c) Increases in accuracy as the distance between loci increases.
d) Can be estimated by multiplying the recombination frequencies of subinterverals.
e) Adding the subinterverals is less accurate than a direct measure by a two point cross.
The correct option (B) Is directly related to the frequency of crossing-over.
The procedures used to establish the location of a gene and the distances between genes are referred to as gene mapping. Gene mapping may also describe the distances between various locations within a gene.
The purpose of all genome mapping is to place a set of molecular markers on the genome in their proper locations. Molecular markers exist in many different forms and sizes. Genes may be viewed as a type of genetic marker and mapped in the same way as any other marker when creating genome maps. Gene mapping aids in the creation of unique recombinants inside an organism in a variety of fields of study.
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What are 3 characteristics of Earth that make it inhabitable?
It is at the proper distance from the Sun, and has a magnetic field that shields it from solar radiation.
What is Earth?Earth has an insulating atmosphere that keeps it warm and contains the correct chemistry for life, including carbon and water.
The lithosphere, asthenosphere, mesosphere, outer core, and inner core are possible divisions of the Earth's layers based on rheology. Living things can live thanks to the structure of Earth.
Therefore, while the sun produces heat and keeps the earth from freezing, the moon affects the tides and provides a supply of water.
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What is xylem? (1 point) tube-like structures that move water through nonvascular plants tube-like structures that move water through nonvascular plan
Xylem is a type of specialized vascular plant tissue that moves water and other substances from the roots of the plant to its leaves and other organs.
Xylem is composed of tube-like structures that transport water, minerals, and other organic compounds. Xylem is found in both vascular and nonvascular plants, but it is the primary mechanism by which water moves within the plant in nonvascular plants.
Xylem consists of two types of cells: tracheids and vessel elements. Tracheids are long, slender cells that form the walls of the xylem. They are connected end-to-end, forming a continuous tube. Vessel elements are shorter, wider cells that are arranged in a ring, creating a tube-like structure. The walls of the vessel elements are perforated, allowing water and other substances to move freely through them.
Xylem is important for the health of the plant. It is responsible for providing the plant with the water and other substances it needs to stay alive. It also helps to transport nutrients and other essential materials, such as hormones and proteins, throughout the plant. Without xylem, plants would not be able to survive.
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A female lab that is heterozygous with curly hair is bred with a male lab that is homozygous for straight hair. Curly hair (H) is dominant over straight hair (h). What are the percentages of the offspring genotypes?
The parents are heterozygous for the gene that causes curly hair. As a result, their offspring will have a 50% chance of receiving the curly hair gene and a 50% chance of acquiring the straight hair gene.
If one parent has curly hair and the other has straight hair, each child will receive one allele from both parents. All of the children will have wavy hair.
Because the straight gene is dominant and present on the X chromosome, the chance of curly hair for the first kid is 50%. Option (D) one in two is the right answer. The alleles for curly hair and straight hair are instances of codominant alleles for a phenotype.
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Which of the following is a correct example of short-loop negative feedback?
A) Thyroid hormones inhibit the release of TRH.
B) Thyroid hormones inhibit the release of TSH.
C) TRH stimulates the release of thyroid hormones.
D) TSH inhibits the release of TRH.
E) TRH inhibits the release of TSH.
The following is a suitable illustration of brief negative feedback where TSH limits TRH release.
Does TSH interfere with TRH?The pituitary gland's TSH induces thyroid hormone release, which is triggered by the thyroid-releasing hormone TRH produced by the hypothalamus. Thyroid epithelial cells shut down as thyroid hormone blood concentrations rise because they suppress both TSH and TRH.
What stops the TRH from being released?Energy-demanding conditions, such as coldness and exercise, and the HPT axis are stimulated, but the axis is suppressed by conditions that disrupt the energy balance, such as fasting, inflammation, or long-term stress.
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Is it more desirable for a cell to have a small surface area to volume ratio?
A higher surface area to volume ratio is more efficient than a lower ratio. This is due to the amount of plasma membrane relative to the volume of the cell. The more plasma membrane available to transport substances in and out of the cell, the more efficiently the cell performs its particular function.
The high surface-to-volume ratio provides a powerful “driving force” that accelerates thermodynamic processes that minimize free energy.
Increasing the surface area of the cell increases the amount of material that diffuses into the cell. As volume and surface area increase, volume increases more rapidly, so for every doubling of cell volume, the surface area available for uptake is halved.
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infer complete the statement by selecting the correct terms the coal deposits currently being used as an energy resource formed
To infer or complete the statement by selecting the correct terms the coal deposits currently being used as an energy resource formed fossil fuels.
How does energy resource gotten from coal?The formation of coal happened several millions of years through a process known as carbonation. In this process, dead vegetation is converted into carbon-rich coal under very high temperature and pressure.
Energy from coal is typically obtained by burning the coal to produce steam, which then drives a turbine to generate electricity. The steam is created by heating the water in the coal boiler to high temperatures, which causes it to turn into steam. The steam then drives a turbine, which is connected to a generator, and the generator converts the mechanical energy from the turbine into electrical energy. This process is called thermal power generation.
Therefore, the correct answer is as given above
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The complete question goes thus:
Infer or complete the statement by selecting the correct terms, the coal deposits currently being used as an energy resource formed...............
How doe changing the amplitude of a WATER wave affect what we ee/hear/experience? How and how would we likely experience thi in our everyday life?
The higher the amplitude, the higher the energy. To summarise, waves carry energy. The amount of energy they carry is related to their frequency and their amplitude. The higher the frequency, the more energy, and the higher the amplitude, the more energy.
Waves of heat, light, sound, and water carry a variety of energies. All types of energy can be converted into work because energy is defined as the capacity to perform work. The movement of an object in the direction of the force acting on it is referred to as work in science. When they move items, waves do really work. This process is evident when sand is carried or large logs are moved across ocean basins. Work can also be transformed into the acoustic energy produced when waves crash on the coast. The potent force of waves can also be used to move generator components and generate electricity.
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Select the statements that describe brain injuries.Brain injuries only affect the brain.
Brain injuries can occur when the brain’s oxygen or glucose supply is interrupted.
Brain injuries can only be caused by physical trauma.
Brain injuries can be caused by infection or intoxication.
Option B, C. Brain injuries can be caused by both physical trauma and non-physical causes such as infection or intoxication.
Physical trauma to the head, such as a blow or a jolt, can cause a brain injury. Examples of traumatic brain injuries include concussions, contusions, and skull fractures. These injuries can result from falls, car accidents, sports injuries, or other types of accidents. In addition to physical trauma, brain injuries can also be caused by non-physical factors such as infection or intoxication. Infections such as meningitis and encephalitis can cause inflammation and swelling in the brain, leading to brain injury. Intoxication from alcohol or drugs can also cause brain injury by affecting the brain's ability to function properly. It's important to note that brain injuries can also be caused by a combination of physical trauma and non-physical factors. For example, a person who suffers a traumatic brain injury may also develop an infection or become intoxicated, which can further complicate their recovery.
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How many haploid sets of chromosomes are present in a diploid individual cell with a chromosome number of 32
A diploid individual cell with a chromosome number of 32 contains two haploid sets of chromosomes. A haploid set of chromosomes is a complete set of chromosomes that contains one of each type of chromosome.
Each haploid set contains 16 chromosomes in the diploid individual cell with a chromosome number of 32. During the process of meiosis, the parent cell divides into four daughter cells. During this process, the two haploid sets of chromosomes that were present in the parent cell are separated into the four daughter cells.
During the formation of the four daughter cells, each daughter cell contains only one haploid set of chromosomes. This means that in a diploid individual cell with a chromosome number of 32, there are two haploid sets of chromosomes present.
The two haploid sets of chromosomes present in a diploid individual cell with a chromosome number of 32 each contain 16 different chromosomes. These chromosomes are responsible for the genetic traits of the individual. Each of the 16 chromosomes contains specific genes that control certain traits. These genes are responsible for the physical characteristics of the individual, such as hair color, eye color, and height. These chromosomes also contain information that determines the sex of the individual.
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List and explain the four components of Mendel's hypothesis that led him to deduce the law of segregation.: 1. Alternative versions of genes account for variations in inherited characteristics.
2. For each characteristic, an organism inherits two alleles, one from each parent.
3. If the 2 alleles at a locus differ, then one-the dominant one-determines the organism's appearance; the recessive allele has no noticeable effect on appear.
4. Law of segregation- the two alleles for a heritable character segregate during gamete formation and end up in different gametes.
The four components of Mendel's theory that resulted in the Law of Separation are as follows:
1. Variations in genetic features are explained by alternate versions of genes.
2. The creature acquires two alleles of her for each attribute (one from each parent).
3. When two alleles vary at a locus, one (dominant) controls the appearance of the organism. There is no discernible influence of recessive alleles on appearance.
4. The law of segregation states that during gametogenesis, two alleles of an inherited characteristic separate, resulting in distinct gametes.
Mendel's first law outlines how two copies of a gene's alleles break into gametes. During gametogenesis, Mendel's second law outlines the independent ordering of alleles from distinct genes.
Each gamete receives just one randomly picked copy of the gene when an organism produces gametes. This is referred to as the Law of Segragation. Punnett squares can be used to predict genetic cross offspring genotypes (allele combinations) and phenotypes (observable attributes).
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In E. coli the tryptophan operon is controlled by attenuation. The beginning of the Trp mRNA has several codons for Trp in a row. When Trp amino acid is limiting, the mRNA ________?
a. is destroyed and the operon is not transcribed
b. basepairs to itself, allows RNA polymerase to continue transcribing the operon
c. basepairs to itself, blocking RNA polymerase from transcribing
d. attaches to the promotor sequence to activate RNA polymerase
When Trp amino acid is limiting, the mRNA basepairs to itself, blocking the RNA polymerase from transcribing the operon. So option c is correct.
Attenuation works by causing the mRNA to form a stem-loop structure that is recognized by the RNA polymerase. When the mRNA contains this loop, the RNA polymerase is blocked from transcribing the operon. This blocking mechanism turns off the production of proteins related to tryptophan, such as enzymes for its synthesis and transport, when tryptophan is in short supply.
The loop structure also prevents the mRNA from attaching to the promoter sequence, which normally activates the RNA polymerase. In other words, when tryptophan is limiting, the mRNA does not attach to the promotor sequence and the operon is not transcribed. The result is that the transcription of the tryptophan operon is inhibited when the cell senses that tryptophan is in short supply.
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What happens to the 3 carbon sugar that exits the Calvin cycle?
By carbon fixation, 3-PGA molecules are transformed into glucose molecules, which are simple sugar molecules.
It corresponds to the second phase of Calvin's cycle. By carbon fixation, 3-PGA molecules are transformed into glucose molecules, which are simple sugar molecules. Energy for this stage is provided by ATP and NADPH generated during the light-dependent activities of photosynthesis. Thus, the Calvin cycle is a mechanism through which plants convert solar energy into compounds like sugars that may be stored for a long period. ATP and NADPH provide the sugars with their energy.
This procedure is referred to as reduction because 3-PGA molecules get electron transfers to produce glyceraldehyde-3 phosphate.
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Did those who were successful in Round One survive equally well when others were competing for food at the same dish during Round Two
No, those who were successful in Round One will not be successful in Round Two since there will be increased competition.
In the pursuit of a single, unshareable aim, competition is a contest between two or more parties in which one side gains an advantage over the other (an example of which is a zero-sum game). Humans, social and economic organisations, and living things are all competing entities. It provides people a variety of employers and working settings while also creating jobs.
Additionally, competition lessens the need for government intervention through business regulation. Consumers, society, and individual liberty all benefit from a healthy, competitive free market. Studies show that competition can promote focus, effort, and learning. A student may be motivated to work significantly harder on their homework by the social pressure of competing with other students.
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What is the process of chromosomal mutation?
Chromosomal mutations are the change in genetic sequences of large DNA part that includes many genes. The chromosomal mutation occurs due to error in crossing over during meiosis.
Mutations are the change in the sequence of the DNA that results in variation in the gene expression. The chromosomal mutations include large DNA sequences. These can be duplication, deletion, translocation and inversion.
Meiosis is the type of cell division where the chromosomal content of the daughter cells is half of that of the parent cell. And for this reason it is also called the reduction division. The cell division occurs in two phases: Meiosis I and Meiosis II.
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1. When blood leaves the heart, where does it exit?
A the aorta
B
the capillaries
c the lungs
D
• the pulmonary vein
Answer:
A the aorta
it exits through the aorta to the rest of the body
The boatbill is present in a density of at least one pair per 20 acres at the same time that two different types of plants are dominant. What are these plants?
A. Weeds and grasses
B. Grasses and Shrubs
C.Shrubs and small trees
D. small trees and canopy trees
The two types that the boatbill will dominate are grasses and shrubs according to the attached table. So the correct option is B.
What is the boatbill?The boatbill is a type of bird genus that will be predominantly in grasses and shrubs. They can change the composition of these areas as time passes. This type of bird will feed mainly on insects, cicadas being the main ones in its diet. They can also feed on small fish or small animals such as lizards. But its main diet is not other animals but it can also feed on fruits.
As for its reproduction, the female will be in charge of building the nest with sticks and herbs that the male will provide. Once the nest is formed, the female will lay her eggs in it and the incubation period will be given so that the chicks leave this and after a certain time, leave the nest.
Therefore, we can confirm that the correct option is B. grasses and shrubs.
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PBS Evolution: Great Transformations
1. If the world’s history were compressed into one hour, how long have humans been here?
Microbes. Single-celled organisms
2. How long ago did mammals first appear on earth?
Mammals first appeared about 200 million years ago
3. What type of animal did the skull that Dr. Gingrich discovered resemble?
Dr. Gingrich discovered resembled a whale
4. What did "Whale Valley" used to be?
5. What unusual feature did they find at the end of the early tetrapods’ limbs?
6. How long ago did animals first appear on Earth?
About 800 million years.
7. When the mouse "eyeless" gene was implanted into the fruit flies, what happened?
8. How would walking on two legs be an advantage?
Humans have undergone evolutionary transitions, as mammals like whale resembled other mammals in terms of skulls and other sculptures on the basis of the fossils found.
The program begins with one of the most popular examples of a purported change used by the evolution contingency: the transition from land animals to the whale. This shift is demonstrated to be explained by the fossils of Pakicetus, Ambulocetus, Rhodocetus, Dorontid, and Basilosaurus. In contrast to a complete transitional fossil, Pakicetus only has a small piece of its cranium to show for itself. Although Ambulocetus is depicted in the documentary as a fully preserved fossil of an aquatic mammal with legs, this is an embellishment and stretching of the truth given that the skeleton of the animal was actually found to be very fractured. In the series, Rhodocetus is only depicted by a skull.
Many people have asserted that those "legs" weren't just vestigial; they also participated in copulation. They might have even had a swimming feature. In conclusion, two skulls, one incomplete, maybe transitional skeleton, and a complete aquatic whale type with short hind legs. Our top example of an apparent evolutionary transition comes from these data.
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A couple has a daughter with Turner syndrome, a condition in which only a single copy of the X chromosome is present. This results from nondisjunction, the failure of the X chromosome to segregate properly during meiosis. During which meiotic division, and in which parent, could nondisjunction have occurred to produce a child with this condition
Turner syndrome (XO) in women have to give up end result from non-disjunction for the duration of Meiosis II.
Meiosis II withinside the mother, wherein she may be capable of produce 50% eggs having 2X chromosomes at the same time as the rest 50% will now now not have any X chromosome. When the latter type (O) of eggs fuse with the X chromosome containing sperms paperwork the father, it will be a XO genotype female with Turners syndrome Another possibility is non-disjunction for the duration of Meiosis II withinside the father. In meiosis II, the sister chromatids separate, making haploid cells with non-duplicated chromosomes. There are divisions in meiosis; the primary department is meiosis I: the quantity of cells is doubled however the quantity of chromosomes is not. This consequences in half of of as many chromosomes in line with cell. The 2d department is meiosis II: this department is like mitosis; the quantity of chromosomes does not get reduced.
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A DNA polynucleotide is composed of a chain ot DNA nucleotides. Which component of a nucleotide can be removed without breaking the chain
DNA polynucleotides are composed of a chain of DNA nucleotides, which are made up of three components: a phosphate group, a deoxyribose sugar group, and a nitrogenous base. The nitrogenous base is the component that can be removed without breaking the chain.
The nitrogenous base can be one of four different molecules: adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), or cytosine (C). These molecules are the “letters” of the DNA alphabet, and they are the parts that determine the genetic code. When a nitrogenous base is removed, the phosphate group and deoxyribose sugar group remain linked, and the DNA molecule remains intact.
However, the genetic code of the DNA is disrupted because the sequence of nitrogenous bases is what determines the code. Therefore, removing a nitrogenous base from a DNA polynucleotide without breaking the chain does not necessarily mean that a functioning gene will be left behind.
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The BRCA genes produce DNA repair proteins. Genetic testing is available that can determine if a person has a mutation in the BRCA genes that makes the proteins less able to function. What is the result of a BRCA mutation
A BRCA gene mutation is an alteration in the genes that produce the proteins responsible for DNA repair. These proteins are essential for maintaining the integrity of the cell’s DNA and for preventing cancer.
The presence of a BRCA mutation increases the risk of developing certain types of cancer, such as breast, ovarian and prostate. Women with a BRCA mutation have up to an 85 percent risk of developing breast cancer, and up to a 60 percent risk of developing ovarian cancer. Prostate cancer is more likely to affect men who have a BRCA mutation.
A BRCA mutation can also be inherited, meaning that it can be passed from one generation to the next. Genetic testing is available to determine if a person has a BRCA mutation, and if so, to identify the specific mutation. This information can help to inform decisions about cancer screening and preventive measures.
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The structures of the amino acids serine, proline, and glycine are shown:
The first diagram is of the amino acid serine. Serine is composed of a two carbon backbone. The first carbon is bound one amino group, one hydrogen atom, and one carboxyl group. The other carbon is bound to two hydrogen atoms and one hydroxyl group. The second diagram is of the amino acid proline. Proline is composed of a ring. The ring is made up of four carbons and one nitrogen. Three of the carbons are bound to two hydrogen atoms. The nitrogen is bound to one hydrogen atom. The final carbon is bound to one hydrogen atom and one carboxyl group. The third diagram is of the amino acid glycine. Glycine is composed of a carbon bound to two hydrogen atoms, one carboxyl group, and one amino group.
The secondary structure of a protein consists of a single long beta sheet. The outer edges of the beta sheet are composed of serine and proline amino acids.
Explain how the structure of amino acids determine the function.
A mutation occurred in DNA of a globular enzyme. If the serine amino acids were found within the active site of the enzyme, describe the effect this change is likely to have on enzymatic function.
If a mutation in the DNA of a globular enzyme changed all of the serine and proline amino acids to glycine, predict how the relative position of the amino acid on the secondary structure of the beta sheet would be affected when the protein is placed in an aqueous solution.
Justify your prediction by providing evidence that supports your claim.
The primary structure of a protein, its amino acid sequence, drives the folding and intra-molecular bonding of the linear amino acid chain, which ultimately determines the protein's unique three-dimensional shape.
What are the functions of proteins?Proteins are large, complex molecules that play many critical roles in the body. They do most of the work in cells and are required for the structure, function, and regulation of the body's tissues and organs.
Protein has many roles in your body. It helps repair and build your body's tissues, allows metabolic reactions to take place and coordinates bodily functions. In addition to providing your body with a structural framework, proteins also maintain proper pH and fluid balance.
There are seven types of proteins: antibodies, contractile proteins, enzymes, hormonal proteins, structural proteins, storage proteins, and transport proteins.
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What will happen to enzyme if active site loses its shape?
The substrate's affinity for binding will decline, causing the enzyme to either complete the reaction at a slower rate than usual or not at all, depending on how much the active site has changed.
Proteins known as enzymes serve as biological catalysts and speed up chemical reactions. Substrates are the substances that interact with enzymes, and the enzyme changes the substrates into products, which are other molecules. Enzyme catalysis is required for the bulk of cellular metabolic processes to proceed at speeds quick enough to support life. An enzyme is required for each step in the catalysis of metabolic processes. It is acknowledged in the fields of pseudoenzyme analysis, enzymeology, and the study of enzymes that some enzymes have evolved without the capacity to perform biological catalysis. Their strange "pseudocatalytic" abilities and amino acid sequences often reflect this.
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The rate with which an action potential travels along an axon _______. 51)
A) is called the conduction velocity
B) is measured in volts/sec
C) is measured in meters/sec
D) is called the conduction velocity and is measured in volts/sec
E) is called the conduction velocity and is measured in meters/sec
The conduction velocity is the speed at which an excitability moves along an axon.
What is velocity, exactly?The movement that an object and particle experiences with regard to time is expressed vectorially as velocity. The meters per second (m/s) is the accepted unit for velocity profile (also know as speed). Alternately, the amount of velocity can be expressed in centimeters per second (cm/s).
How does physics define velocity?The velocity of a body and object determines its direction of motion. Speed is indeed a scalar number in its most basic form. Velocity is essentially a vector quantity. It is the speed at which distance is changing. The displacement variation is the issue.
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The greater tubercle of the humerus is more ______ than the lesser tubercle.
The humerus' greater tubercle is more medial than its smaller tubercle. It is positioned posterolateral to the humerus' lesser tubercle and laterally to the humerus' head. At the posterolateral side of the shoulder, one may feel the larger tubercle, which is the humerus' most lateral bony point.
Which tubercle is more medial, the greater or smaller one?Even though it is smaller, the lesser tubercle is more noticeable than the greater one since it is located in front and faces medially and forward.
What is the humerus' larger tuberosity?Two the rotator cuff muscles join to the greater tuberosity, a "bump" of bone near the top of a humerus. Because of this relationship, a fracture may also affect how well the rotator cuff functions.
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Use the information you have already gathered, in addition to a few other properties of minerals, to identify the seven minerals in the chart below.
Metal alloys, such as iron, copper, and zinc, essential for industrializing any society. As a result, regions of the world that are currently making the transition from developing to industrialized civilizations have a quickly increasing need for raw minerals.
What are the important properties of minerals?Nutrients called essential minerals are required to keep the body healthy. There are 13 different significant minerals in total. These are necessary for development, mobility, the creation of energy, and other metabolic processes.
Therefore, Crystal shape, color, hardness, cleavage, and specific gravity are among the most prevalent physical characteristics. Examining the crystal form of a mineral is one of the finest ways to identify it (external shape).
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What is a pedigree and how is it read?
One can identify how a specific trait is passed down via a family using pedigrees. The relationship between parents, children, and siblings determines whether a feature is present or absent in a pedigree.
A pedigree displays the relationships between family members and indicates the family members who have specific genetic pathogenic variants, traits, and diseases, as well as information on their present health. The genealogy of a family may show how diseases are passed down through the generations.
The AKC pedigree is a traditional lineage pedigree, which reads from your dog on the left through subsequent generations branching to the right. It contains a history of your dog's direct ancestors. You can read each successive generation to the right by starting with your dog at the left.
If a trait skips a generation in a pedigree, it is frequently an autosomal recessive trait, according to one tip for spotting recessive traits (although a trait can be autosomal recessive and not skip generations). Both gender share the same prevalence of these traits.
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Arrange the following terms into the order in which a compound must pass through to move from plasma to CSF: -capillary endothelium
-pericyte
-astrocyte
-extracellular matrix
When a compound passes from the plasma to the CSF, it first goes through the extracellular matrix, then the astrocytes, then pericytes, then the capillary endothelium and finally to the CSF.
Cerebrospinal fluid or the CSF is a clear and colorless fluid which is found in the tissues which are present around the brain and the spinal cord. The blood brain barrier or the BBB is the network which consists of tissues and blood vessels which perform the function of keeping the harmful substances away from the brain.
When a particular compound passes from the plasma to CSF, it first has to pass through the extracellular matrix of the ECM. From the ECM, it goes to the astrocytes and then to the pericytes. The compound then passes to the capillary endothelium from where it finally reaches the CSF.
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How long does it take to be affected by cyanide?
Answer:
The patient can present with symptoms as quickly as one minute after inhalation and within a few minutes of cyanide ingestion. If the hydrogen cyanide was inhaled, the victim might detect a bitter, almond odor, which is discernible by approximately 60% of the population.
Explanation: