help, i will mark brainliest :))

Answer:

I can't quite read it.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

its not none of them answers

Step-by-step explanation:

hey there

ok so first you need to change both of them so they have the same denominator: LCM of 16 and 6=48

48/16×15=45

48/6=8

45/48+8/48=53/48

=1 5/48

Step-by-step explanation:

due to <3 and <5 being alternative interior angles they would be congruent. <2 and <3 are linear to each other, so you would subtract angle 3 by 180 to find angle 2. angle 1 and angle 3 are also alternating exterior angles, so they would be the same.

Answer:

0.00091774693

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm pretty sure this is the answer plz tell me if I'm wrong tysm

-person

Answer: 144

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

its 144 i just did the same question

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Its the third one

Step-by-step explanation:

A perfect square is a number that is generated by multiplying two equal integers by each other. For example, the number 9 is a perfect square because it can be expressed as a product of two equal integers: 9 = 3 x 3.

Answer:

yes, because the value of the angles in both the triangles are the same

Step-by-step explanation:

in triangle 1, the given value is 47 and 78. we can find the unknown value by taking 180 and minus 47 and 78, you will get 55°. in triangle 2, the given value is 47 and 55, like the previous step, take 180 and minus 55 and 47. you will get 78.

and now, you can find out that the three values in both the triangles are the same

Answer:

Yes, I guess you can say the triangles are similar. For example, all 4 sides are an acute angle. In addition, both triangles are missing 1 degree shown on the picture.

Answer:

-30(3) = -90+97=7

Answer: 1 and 7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

14

Step-by-step explanation:

14x4=56 pretty simple

Using the dot plot, it is found that the correct statement is given by:

The mode of the data in dot plot 1 is less than the mode of the data in dot plot 2.

The dot plot shows the number of times each measure appears in the data-set.

It is the value that appears the most in the data-set. Hence, using the mode concept along with the dot plot, it is found that:

Hence, the correct option is:

The mode of the data in dot plot 1 is less than the mode of the data in dot plot 2.

More can be learned about dot plots at https://brainly.com/question/24912483

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Took the test

Answer: It's 2

Step-by-step explanation: it's 2

Answer: 1+1=2

Step-by-step explanation:

I know that 1 is 1 so 1+1=2 which is the answer

Answer:

9. The man is 6 feet tall

10. Ms. Dydek's shadow would be 4 ft 6.3 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Problem 9:

 The 136 feet tall Ferris wheel casts a shadow of 34 feet so the shadow:object ratio is 34:136.

The man's shadow is 1.5 feet so this is what we're solving for:

1.5:x

34: 136

First, we need to find what 1.5 was multiplied by to get 34:

34/1.5 = 22 2/3 or 68/3

This means that 68/3x = 136:

68/3x = 136

x = 6

The man is 6 feet tall

Problem 10:

 A 6 foot 4 inch or 76 inch tall person casts a shadow of 4 feet or 48 inches. This makes the shadow:object ratio 48:76.

We are trying to find the length of the shadow of a 7 foot 2 inch or 86 inch tall person:

48:76

x:86

First, determine what 76 was multiplied by to get 86:

86/76 = 43/38

This means that x = 48*(43/38).

x = 2064/38

x = 54 6/19 or 54.3in

Margo Dydek's shadow would be 54.3 inches or 4 feet and 6.3 inches long.

Answer:

 -8 < x

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve -9.4 > 1.7x + 4.2, we can use the following steps:

Subtract 4.2 from both sides of the inequality to isolate 1.7x on the right side.

-9.4 - 4.2 > 1.7x + 4.2 - 4.2

-13.6 > 1.7x

Divide both sides by 1.7 to solve for x. Remember to flip the inequality sign when dividing by a positive number.

Answer:

$[tex]79.23[/tex] After 3 years

Step-by-step explanation:

Use I P R T it's a method for simple interest

I = Interest

P = Amount of money

R = Percent in decimal

T = Time in years

Answer:

I = [tex]x[/tex] (we dont know yet)

P = $[tex]65[/tex]

R = [tex]7.5[/tex]% [tex]= 0.075[/tex]

T = [tex]3[/tex] [tex]years[/tex]

Steps:

1. Set up your numbers with the method I P R T.

2. $65 will be your amount of money.

3. 7.5% needs to be converted because you will need to multiply later on in the problem. Simply move 2 places to the left to convert your percent into a decimal.

4. They want to know the total amount of money in his account at the end of 3 years. So 3 years will be your time in years.

5. After setting up your problem you need to multiply your Amount of money x percent as decimal x time in years.

[tex]65(0.075)(3)=14.63\\[/tex] [tex]Interest\\[/tex]

6. After you find your interest you need to add your amount of money + interest.

[tex]65 + 14.63 = 79.23[/tex] Money after 3 years

hope this helped

Answer:

Table 1: 2

Table 2: 10

Step-by-step explanation:

Constant of proportionality - the ratio between two proportional quantities.

We see that the ratio between the two rows of numbers in the first table is 2 because (4 / 2 = 2), (6 / 3 = 2), (8 / 4 = 2) and so on and so forth.

We see that the ratio between the two rows of numbers in the second table is 10 because (20 / 2 = 10), (30 / 3 = 10), (40 / 4 = 10) and so on and so forth.

Answer:

Table 1 is 2, Table 2 is 10.

Step-by-step explanation:

Table 1: The constant of proportionality is 2 because 4/2 is 2, 6/3 is 2, etc.

Table 2: The constant of proportionality is 10 because 20/2 is 10, 30/3 is 10, etc.

Answer:

-0.40909090909

Step-by-step explanation:

it is not not terminating or repeating so, it is not a rational number.

Answer:

d = 6

Step-by-step explanation:

d × 54 = 324

Divide both sides by 54.

d × 54/54 = 324/54

d = 6

Answer:

D=6

Step-by-step explanation:

54 x 6=324

Here is how i know.

I times the tens 6 times so 50 x 6=300

50 x 1=50

50 x 2=100

50 x 3=150

50 x 4=200

50 x 5=250

50 x 6=300

Then I did ones(4)

4 x 1=4

4 x 2=8

4 x 3=12

4 x 4=16

4 x 5=20

4 x 6=24.

Then I added it 50 x 6=300 + 4 x6=24=324 so 54 x 6=324.

Hope it helps have a great day:)

Answer:

1/24

Step-by-step explanation:

chance of rolling 4 - 1/6

Chance of pulling a heart - 13/52, or 1/4

To find P(roll a 4, and pull a heart) you must multiply the 2 answers to find your final answer. So, 1/4 x 1/6 = 1/24

Hope this helps, if this is wrong, i am sorry, i recently started this unit.

Have a great day :)

Answer:

The answer is D

Step-by-step explanation:

- x - equals positive so it would be -8+4r

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Honestly I can't giv a detailed explanation, apologies. Negatives multiplied result in positives. Since -4 is negative and -r is also negative, expanded form should be +4r. Also the answer is r=6 in case you need it.

Answer:

£1.30

Step-by-step explanation:

the explanation is here☝

Answer:

1 US pint ≈ 0.473 US liters

Therefore, 2.5 pints ≈ 2.5 × 0.473 ≈ 1.18 liters

1.18 > 1 so you will have a negative amount left (-0.18 liters)

Answer:

2x10^2 times as great

Step-by-step explanation: