A true statement about closing techniques used in a major sale is that: Reliance on closing techniques instead of engaging in identifying needs and providing solutions reduces the chances of making a sale.
What is closing?
The stage where a sales representative requests the client to make a commitment to buy and sign the deal is known as closing. A salesperson has done a good job of obtaining a commitment if they have created value for the customer, established a relationship of trust and respect, and uncovered the customer's needs and concerns. The method used to obtain the commitment is known as the closing technique.
Therefore, it is essential to emphasize identifying needs and offering solutions in a sales pitch rather than just relying on closing techniques to achieve the sale. It is suggested that salespeople concentrate on developing relationships with customers rather than just closing orders as relationships will bring more opportunities for future sales.
A high-pressure close is not necessary as it may turn the customer off, and closing receives great importance in sales training, especially in sales techniques.
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label each sampling type as either biased or unbiased. labels can be used more than once.
snowball sampling, purposive sampling and convenience sampling are biased. systematic sampling, probability sampling and stratified random sampling are unbiased.
Probability sampling is a type of sampling method in which each member of a population has an equal chance of being selected for the sample. This method is considered to be the most reliable and accurate way of obtaining a representative sample from a larger population. Probability sampling can be done using various accounts techniques, including simple random sampling, stratified random sampling, and cluster sampling.
In simple random sampling, each member of the population is selected randomly and independently, while in stratified random sampling, the population is divided into strata or subgroups, and random samples are taken from each stratum. Cluster sampling involves dividing the population into clusters or groups, and random samples are taken from each group.
the complete question is:
label each sampling type as either biased or unbiased. labels can be used more than once.
snowball sampling
purposive sampling
convenience sampling
systematic sampling
probability sampling
stratified random sampling
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when a firm buys or builds facilities in a foreign country it is known as: answer unselected foreign portfolio investment unselected foreign direct investment unselected factoring
When a firm buys or builds facilities in a foreign country, it is known as foreign direct investment.
What is Foreign Direct Investment?Foreign direct investment (FDI) is a form of investment that entails the acquisition or construction of facilities in a foreign country, such as the development of a factory, office, or warehouse. FDI is a strategy used by firms to broaden their horizons by expanding their production capabilities in international markets.
Investment from a foreign country is required for FDI to take place, as the funds are used to purchase or construct assets in the host country. The foreign business's acquisition of assets and management control of the acquired entity are important elements of FDI. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is an integral part of the international financial system, with its impact extending to the economies of both the home and host nations.
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The following items represent expenditures (or receipts) related to the construction of a new home office for Secrest Investment Company. Cost of land site, which included an abandoned railroad spur $205,000 Legal fees, including title search, relating to land purchase 8,300 Cost of surveying land to confirm boundaries 1,100 Cost of removing railroad tracks 6,500 Payment of delinquent property taxes assumed by the purchaser 6,000 Proceeds from sale of timber from walnut trees cut down to prepare site for construction (23,000) Proceeds from sale of salvaged railroad track (3,500) Grading to prepare land site for construction 8,000 Cost of basement excavation (contracted separately) 3,700 Architect's fees on new building 128,000 Payment to building contractor-original contract price 3,400,000 Cost of changes during construction to make building more energy efficient 95,000 Cost of replacing windows broken by vandals 2,400 Cost of paving driveway and parking lot 17,000 Out-of-court settlement for mud slide onto adjacent property 10,000 Special assessment for paving city sidewalks (paid to city) 26,000 Cost of brick and wrought iron fence installed across front of property 20,500 Required From the given data, compute the proper balances for the Land, Building, and Land Improvements accounts of Secrest Investment Company. Land $ Answer Building $ Answer Land Improvements $ Answer
In total, the Land, Building, and Land Improvements accounts would equal $3,722,400.
The proper balances for the Land, Building, and Land Improvements accounts of Secrest Investment Company would be:
Land: $205,000Building: $3,522,000Land Improvements: $94,400The Land account includes the cost of the land site and the associated fees ($205,000).
The Building account includes the original contract price and the cost of changes made during construction ($3,400,000 + $95,000).
The Land Improvements account includes all of the expenses related to preparing the land for construction, such as surveying, removing railroad tracks, grading, basement excavation, and special assessments ($8,300 + $1,100 + $6,500 + $8,000 + $3,700 + $26,000 + $20,500). Additionally, it includes the proceeds from the sale of timber and salvaged railroad track, and the out-of-court settlement for the mud slide onto adjacent property ($23,000 + $3,500 - $10,000).
In total, the Land, Building, and Land Improvements accounts would equal $3,722,400.
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the revenue agent who audited mr. and mrs. vento's form 1040 assessed a $49,200 tax deficiency. the ventos strongly disagree with the result of the audit. what is their first step in contesting the result?
The Ventos' initial step in opposing the findings of the audit is to request a meeting with the revenue agent's supervisor to discuss the subject and attempt to settle any difficulties informally.
Who does the IRS audit?By taxpayer income, audit trends vary. IRS audited taxpayers with earnings of $500,000 or more and those earning under $25,000 at higher-than-average rates in recent years.
What are the possibilities of an audit?The likelihood of an audit for FY 2021 was 4.1 per 1,000 submitted returns (0.41%). Low-wage earners claiming the earned income tax credit were the taxpayer class with astronomically high audit rates, which were five and a half times higher than nearly everyone else.
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if a competent job analysis is performed, the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed for performance in that department are considered to be .
If a competent job analysis is performed, the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed for performance in that department are considered to be a significant factor for the department's performance.
Job analysis is a systematic procedure used to gather, analyze, and document data about a job's crucial features, including the education, experience, and abilities required to complete the task appropriately. Job analysis is a crucial component of the HR management process that helps to enhance organizational productivity. Job analysis is critical since it helps to identify what is required of employees in a particular job.
This is particularly essential when it comes to recruitment and selection, performance appraisal, and training and development processes. A proper job analysis ensures that job requirements and employee qualifications are matched efficiently. Job analysis ensures that the organization hires the best candidates who possess the requisite knowledge, skills, and abilities for the job. Furthermore, a proper job analysis aids in establishing objective performance standards, training requirements, and assessing job performance effectively.
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If a competent job analysis is performed, the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed for performance in that department are considered to be a significant factor for the department's performance.
Job analysis is a systematic procedure used to gather, analyze, and document data about a job's crucial features, including the education, experience, and abilities required to complete the task appropriately. Job analysis is a crucial component of the HR management process that helps to enhance organizational productivity. Job analysis is critical since it helps to identify what is required of employees in a particular job.
This is particularly essential when it comes to recruitment and selection, performance appraisal, and training and development processes. A proper job analysis ensures that job requirements and employee qualifications are matched efficiently.
Job analysis ensures that the organization hires the best candidates who possess the requisite knowledge, skills, and abilities for the job. Furthermore, a proper job analysis aids in establishing objective performance standards, training requirements, and assessing job performance effectively.
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describe the primary business activity of marketing.
An arbitrage opportunity is least likely to be exploited when: A. one position is illiquid. B. the price differential between assets is large. C. the investor can execute a transaction in large volumes.
Exploitation of an arbitrage opportunity is less probable when one of the positions is illiquid. Thus, Option A, one position is illiquid, is correct.
When one of the positions in an arbitrage opportunity is illiquid, it means that it cannot be easily bought or sold at the market price, which creates a barrier for investors to take advantage of the price difference between the assets. On the other hand, when the price differential between assets is large and the investor can execute a transaction in large volumes, it becomes easier to exploit the arbitrage opportunity.
Therefore, the correct answer is A, as an illiquid position can make it difficult or impossible for investors to take advantage of the price difference and make a profit.
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It is important to build credibility by citing sources. Business writers follow a narrative pattern in business documents. Which of the following examples is the best way to build your credibility in a business document? a) Only 57 percent of American adults have basic financial literacy skills, putting it in 4th place among nations with advanced economies. b) Standard and Poor's 2014 study on global financial literacy found that only 57 percent of American adults had basic financial skills, putting the U.S. 4th among nations with advanced economies. c) A study on the financial literacy among American adults show that the U.S. ranks 4th among 144 nations.
The best way to build your credibility in a business document is the example b) Standard and Poor's 2014 study on global financial literacy found that only 57 percent of American adults had basic financial skills, putting the U.S. 4th among nations with advanced economies.
Standard and Poor's 2014 study on global financial literacy found that only 57 percent of American adults had basic financial skills, putting the U.S. 4th among nations with advanced economies. This makes the information more credible and trustworthy for the readers, which is essential for a business document. A credible source makes a document more factual and transparent for the audience who read it. Therefore, using credible sources like reports, statistics, surveys, etc. is important in a business document as it will increase the reader's trust and confidence in the information presented.
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in explaining the importance of supply chain sustainability, bob taylor of taylor guitars explains that one of their perspectives when sourcing wood for their guitars: apples grow on trees and oranges grow on trees, but a. apples taste better than oranges b. guitar strings do not grow on trees c. oranges taste better than apples d. wood does not grow on a tree, so when you harvest wood, you are destroying the entire tree,. therefore, you must protect the forests in order to have a sustainable source for wood.
you must protect the forests to have a sustainable source of wood. The correct option is D.
Supply chain sustainability has gained increasing importance in recent years due to the effects of environmental degradation, which has led to climate change, and social issues such as the exploitation of laborers. Bob Taylor of Taylor Guitars explains that when sourcing wood for their guitars, they consider sustainability, which is important.
Sustainability is concerned with meeting the needs of the present without jeopardizing the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. This is achieved through sustainable management and development, which ensures that natural resources are not depleted faster than they can be replenished. Therefore, protecting forests is important for the sustainability of the guitar industry as it helps to maintain the balance of the ecosystem and the livelihoods of people who depend on the forests for their livelihoods.
Wood does not grow on a tree, so when you harvest wood, you are destroying the entire tree. Therefore, you must protect the forests to have a sustainable source of wood.
So, the correct answer is option D (Wood does not grow on a tree, so when you harvest wood, you are destroying the entire tree. Therefore, you must protect the forests to have a sustainable source for wood).
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the labor force is the sum of the ______ and ______.
The labor force is the sum of the employed and the unemployed.
Employed individuals are those who are currently working for pay or profit, either as an employee or self-employed. This includes those who are on temporary leave, such as vacation or illness, but are expected to return to work.
Unemployed individuals, on the other hand, are those who are currently not working but are actively seeking employment and are available for work. They may have recently lost their job or are new to the job market.
The labor force, therefore, consists of both those who are currently working and those who are available and actively seeking employment. It is an important measure of the economy's capacity to produce goods and services and is used to calculate key labor market statistics such as the unemployment rate and labor force participation rate.
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Which of the following are assets? (check all that apply)
a) Cash
b) Accounts Payable
c) Common Stock
d) Accounts Receivable
e) Retained Earnings
Cash and accounts receivable are classified as assets. The assets of a firm typically have value for the company. Hence option A. and D. are correct.
What is assets?The asset account is a category of accounts in which a business keeps track of its economic resources. To calculate the total assets of a company, all assets should be added together.
Total assets are commonly listed on the balance sheet of a company, and they are often used to determine a company's creditworthiness by investors and lenders.
A business's capital or other resources that could be used to make money in the future are referred to as assets. The assets of a firm typically have value for the company. The balance sheet of a business lists assets.
Accounts payable is a liability that shows how much money a business now owes to its vendors and third-party suppliers.
Equity on an organization's balance sheet includes both Common Stock and Retained Earnings. Stockholder investment in a corporation is measured by its common stock.
Retained earnings displays the amount of profits gathered from earlier periods that have been carried forward.
Hence option A. and D. cash and accounts receivable are correct.
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Question 37 Which statement illustrates the concept of external cost? Margaret purchases all her food and clothing in the big city outside her residence. A small business owner frequently buys raw materials by using her bank's line of credit. Raymond cannot open his windows at times, because he lives downwind from a mushroom farm Felicia, an economics major, asks the most insightful questions in class.
The correct option is "Raymond cannot open his windows at times, because he lives downwind from a mushroom farm".
External cost is an economic term used to describe costs that are incurred by a third party due to the actions of another person, which in this case is the mushroom farm. As a result, Raymond experiences negative externalities, such as the inability to open his windows at times due to the unpleasant smell coming from the farm.
External cost can be defined as a negative effect on a third party that is not directly involved in the exchange between the buyer and the seller. It occurs when the production or consumption of a good or service causes an uncompensated cost to a third party who was not a party to the transaction.
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External cost is an economic term used to describe costs that are incurred by a third party due to the actions of another person, which in this case is the mushroom farm. As a result, Raymond experiences negative externalities, such as the inability to open his windows at times due to the unpleasant smell coming from the farm.
External cost can be defined as a negative effect on a third party that is not directly involved in the exchange between the buyer and the seller. It occurs when the production or consumption of a good or service causes an uncompensated cost to a third party who was not a party to the transaction.
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REIT dividends are considered ________ income and thus do not qualify as passive income
to offset passive losses.
(A) Portfolio
(B) Operating
(C) Trading
(D) Outside professional
REIT dividends are considered portfolio income and thus do not qualify as passive income to offset passive losses. The correct option is (A).
REITs stands for Real Estate Investment Trusts. The definition of REITs is an investment company that owns or funds income-producing real estate properties.
The dividend income from a REIT is typically non-qualified, which means it is taxed at the same rate as ordinary income.
However, REIT dividends are generally considered portfolio income. As a result, they don't qualify for offsetting passive losses.
In contrast, passive income is required to offset passive losses. A portion of the losses can be written off by those with passive income. As a result, passive income is an important consideration when calculating tax liability.
Ordinary income is taxed at a higher rate than capital gains and dividends. Passive income is therefore useful because it can help to offset tax liabilities.
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Mountain High Ice Cream Company transferred $72,000 of accounts receivable to the Prudential Bank. The transfer was made with recourse. Prudential remits 90% of the factored amount to Mountain High and retains 10% to cover sales returns and allowances. When the bank collects the receivables, it will remit to Mountain High the retained amount (which Mountain estimates has a fair value of $6,200). Mountain High anticipates a $4,200 recourse obligation. The bank charges a 2% fee (2% of $72,000), and requires that amount to be paid at the start of the factoring arrangement. Required: Prepare the journal entry to record the transfer on the books of Mountain High assuming that the sale criteria are met. (If no entry is required for a transaction/event, select "No journal entry required" in the first account field.)
The journal entry to record the transfer on the books of Mountain High assuming that the sale criteria are met.
Cash 64,800
Receivable from factor 4,760
loss on sale of receivables 2,440
Mountain High transferred accounts receivable to the Prudential Bank. The transfer was made with recourse. The bank remits 90% of the factored amount to Mountain High and retains 10% to cover sales returns and allowances.
When the bank collects the receivables, it will remit to Mountain High the retained amount (which Mountain estimates have a fair value of $6,200). Mountain High anticipates a $4,200 recourse obligation. The bank charges a 2% fee (2% of $72,000) and requires that amount to be paid at the start of the factoring arrangement.
Therefore, the following journal entry will be made to record the transfer of accounts receivable from Mountain High to Prudential Bank:
Cash 64,800
Receivable form factor 4,760
Loss on sale of receivables 2,440
Accounts receivable 72,000
The entry debits cash for 90% of $72,000 = $64,800 and the loss on sale of receivables for the 2% fee of $1,440 ($72,000 x 2%).
It credits accounts receivable for the total amount of accounts receivable transferred. It also credits receivable from factor for the remaining balance of the cash that will be received from Prudential Bank.
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inflation-indexed treasury bonds are intended for investors who wish to ensure that the returns on their investments keep up with the increase in prices over time. a. true b. false
Answer:
The correct option is A) True. Inflation-indexed treasury bonds are intended for investors who wish to ensure that the returns on their investments keep up with the increase in prices over time.
Explanation:
What are inflation-indexed treasury bonds?
Inflation-indexed treasury bonds (I-bonds) are a type of treasury bond (T-bond) that is linked to the rate of inflation. The United States Treasury Department issued I-bonds in 1998. Treasury bonds are bonds sold by the United States government, and they are regarded as one of the safest investments. These bonds are considered to be an investment vehicles because they have a fixed interest rate.The benefits of investing in inflation-indexed treasury bonds are as follows: When you invest in I-bonds, your investment is shielded from inflation, which ensures that the value of your investment increases over time.You will receive interest on your investment in addition to the money you invested. I-bonds have a set maturity date, which ensures that you will receive the entire amount you invested plus the interest earned at the time of maturity. In conclusion, inflation-indexed treasury bonds are intended for investors who wish to ensure that the returns on their investments keep up with the increase in prices over time. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.
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The correct option is A) True. Inflation-indexed treasury bonds are intended for investors who wish to ensure that the returns on their investments keep up with the increase in prices over time.
What are inflation-indexed treasury bonds?Inflation-indexed treasury bonds (I-bonds) are a type of treasury bond (T-bond) that is linked to the rate of inflation. The United States Treasury Department issued I-bonds in 1998. Treasury bonds are bonds sold by the United States government, and they are regarded as one of the safest investments. These bonds are considered to be an investment vehicle because they have a fixed interest rate.
In conclusion, inflation-indexed treasury bonds are intended for investors who wish to ensure that the returns on their investments keep up with the increase in prices over time. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.
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Which of the following statements about the legal forms of for-profit business organization is most correct? a. Corporations are easier to form than are proprietorships. b. Partnerships are applicable when there are more than three owners, while proprietorships are used when there are three or fewer owners. c. Corporations have the advantage of limited liability to owners. d. Hybrid forms of business cannot be used by healthcare organizations. e. Corporations' income is taxed only once, and hence they typically are more tax efficient than are proprietorships or partnerships.
The most correct statement about the legal forms of for-profit business organizations is "Corporations have the advantage of limited liability to owners." Option C is the correct answer.
Corporations, in general, have the advantage of limited liability to owners. This means that if the company goes bankrupt, the owner's assets are not at risk of being seized to pay the company's debts. This is not the case with partnerships or proprietorships. Partnerships and proprietorships are similar in that they do not provide limited liability to owners. This means that if the company goes bankrupt, the owner's assets are at risk of being seized to pay the company's debts.
Option A is wrong because corporations are more difficult to form than proprietorships or partnerships. There are many regulations and legal procedures that corporations must follow, which can be time-consuming and expensive. Proprietorships and partnerships, on the other hand, are relatively easy to form and do not require a lot of paperwork.
Option B is wrong because there is no legal requirement that proprietorships be used when there are three or fewer owners or that partnerships be used when there are more than three owners. The choice between proprietorships, partnerships, and corporations depends on the company's specific needs.
Option D is wrong because there are hybrid forms of business, such as a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) or a Limited Liability Company (LLC), that can be used by healthcare organizations. Hybrid forms of business combine some of the advantages of partnerships and corporations.
Option E is wrong because corporations' income is taxed twice. First, the corporation pays taxes on its profits, and then the shareholders pay taxes on the dividends they receive. Proprietorships and partnerships are not taxed twice, but the owner's income is taxed at the individual tax rate.
Option C is most correct: "Corporations have the advantage of limited liability to owners." This means that owners of corporations are not personally liable for the debts and other liabilities of the business.
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the process by which competition for monopoly profits leads to technological progress is called: answer unselected creative destruction. unselected creative monopolization. unselected monopolistic creativity.
The process by which competition for monopoly profits leads to technological progress is called creative destruction.
What is creative destruction?Creative destruction refers to the economic concept of innovation that simultaneously disrupts and creates new markets by replacing older and less efficient technology. When new innovations are introduced, old ones are phased out, causing changes in the market structure and the economy at large. In a way, it is a process of market competition, where new companies compete with existing ones to take over the existing market by introducing better products or services.
The notion of creative destruction comes from the work of Joseph Schumpeter, who viewed economic growth and prosperity as being driven by disruptive innovation. Innovation brings about new products, processes, and business models that disrupt old patterns and cause economic systems to transform. This creative destruction can lead to technological progress and an overall improvement in the standard of living.
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what type of financial economy is undertaken to reduce risk among a firm's businesses? a. internal capital market allocation b. restructuring of assets c. vertical integration d. economies of scope
The type of financial economy that is undertaken to reduce risk across a company's businesses is internal capital market allocation. Option a is correct.
What is internal capital market allocation?It corresponds to a financial strategy used by companies to allocate capital resources among their different business units or divisions.
Therefore, the advantages of allocation in the internal capital market is that it allows the company to manage risk, diversifying its business and investment portfolio, in addition to ensuring that resources are allocated in areas with the greatest potential for growth.
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a government begins the year with $6 trillion of public debt. during the year, it collects taxes of $4 trillion and spends $7 trillion on transfers and government purchases of goods and services. if the government borrows from individuals and institutions outside the government to pay for the deficit, the public debt at the end of the year would be:
The initial public debt of the government is $6 trillion. Hence, the correct option is (c) $9 trillion.
During the year, the government collects $4 trillion from taxes and spends $7 trillion on transfers and government purchases of goods and services. This implies that the government runs a budget deficit of $3 trillion ($7 trillion - $4 trillion).
To pay for the budget deficit, the government borrows from individuals and institutions outside the government. Hence, the public debt at the end of the year would be $9 trillion ($6 trillion + $3 trillion). Hence, the correct option is (c) $9 trillion.
The question is:
a government begins the year with $6 trillion of public debt. during the year, it collects taxes of $4 trillion and spends $7 trillion on transfers and government purchases of goods and services. if the government borrows from individuals and institutions outside the government to pay for the deficit, the public debt at the end of the year would be:
a) $5 trillion
b) $7 trillion
c) $9 trillion
d) $15 trillion
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a production company needs to finance a piece of equipment (fixed asset) with a useful life of 5 years. the most appropriate credit structure would be a
A production company needs to finance a piece of equipment (fixed asset) with a useful life of 5 years. As a result, businesses must use loan credit structures to help them finance the purchase of equipment.
LoansThe most appropriate credit structure for a production company to finance a piece of equipment with a useful life of 5 years is a medium-term loan. Medium-term loans, also known as installment loans, are financial loans that are repayable in 2 to 10 years, with monthly, semi-annual, or annual payments.
Since the equipment has a useful life of 5 years, a medium-term loan with an equal repayment period would be ideal for a production company to finance a piece of equipment with a useful life of 5 years. Medium-term loans are advantageous in that they can be used to finance capital investments, such as equipment purchases.
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The following expenditures and receipts are related to land, land improvements, and buildings acquired for use in a business enterprise. The receipts are enclosed in parentheses.(a) Money borrowed to pay building contractor (signed a note)$(292,600 )(b) Payment for construction from note proceeds292,600 (c) Cost of land fill and clearing11,790 (d) Delinquent real estate taxes on property assumed by purchaser7,630 (e) Premium on 6-month insurance policy during construction11,040 (f) Refund of 1-month insurance premium because construction completed early(1,840 )(g) Architect’s fee on building25,450 (h) Cost of real estate purchased as a plant site (land $200,400 and building $52,600)253,000 (i) Commission fee paid to real estate agency8,320 (j) Installation of fences around property3,930 (k) Cost of razing and removing building11,710 (l) Proceeds from salvage of demolished building(5,080 )(m) Interest paid during construction on money borrowed for construction13,690 (n) Cost of parking lots and driveways17,940 (o) Cost of trees and shrubbery planted (permanent in nature)12,930 (p) Excavation costs for new building3,110 Identify each item by letter and list the items in columnar form, using the headings shown below. All receipt amounts should be reported in parentheses. For any amounts entered in the Other Accounts column, also indicate the account title.
The items have been identified by a letter, and their respective accounts have been listed. The accounts used are Notes Payable, Building, Land Improvements, Land, Prepaid Insurance, Other Income, and Interest Expense.
(a) Money borrowed to pay building contractor (signed a note) $292,600 - Notes Payable
(b) Payment for construction from note proceeds $292,600 - Building
(c) Cost of landfill and clearing $11,790 - Land Improvements
(d) Delinquent real estate taxes on property assumed by purchaser $7,630 - Land
(e) Premium on a 6-month insurance policy during construction $11,040 - Prepaid Insurance
(f) Refund of 1-month insurance premium because construction completed early ($1,840) - Other Income
(g) Architect’s fee on building $25,450 - Building
(h) Cost of real estate purchased as a plant site (land $200,400 and building $52,600) $253,000 - Land and Building
(i) Commission fee paid to real estate agency $8,320 - Land
(j) Installation of fences around property $3,930 - Land Improvements
(k) Cost of razing and removing building $11,710 - Loss on Disposal of Building
(l) Proceeds from the salvage of demolished building ($5,080) - Other Income
(m) Interest paid during construction on money borrowed for construction $13,690 - Interest Expense
(n) Cost of parking lots and driveways $17,940 - Land Improvements
(o) Cost of trees and shrubbery planted (permanent in nature) $12,930 - Land Improvements
(p) Excavation costs for new building $3,110 - Building
The above table shows a columnar form of the expenditures and receipts related to land, land improvements, and buildings acquired for use in a business enterprise. All receipt amounts are shown in parentheses.
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Select the scenario in which a diagnostic argument could be most helpful:
1. A product manager is revising an outdated marketing plan.
2. An accounting manager must report on why Selling, General, and Administrative expenses have jumped recently.
3. An accounting manager needs to write a report about the updated costs of three information technology systems.
4. None of the above
The scenario in which a diagnostic argument could be most helpful is "An accounting manager must report on why Selling, General, and Administrative expenses have jumped recently. The correct option is 2.
A diagnostic argument is an argument that provides information regarding an issue and why it occurred. The argument's main goal is to find the cause of the problem and determine what should be done to solve it. Diagnostic arguments are frequently utilized in the business sector, especially when firms experience problems. They may assist business owners and managers in determining the root cause of a particular business problem and developing effective solutions to address the problem.
Select the scenario in which a diagnostic argument could be most helpful The scenario in which a diagnostic argument could be most helpful is "An accounting manager must report on why Selling, General, and Administrative expenses have jumped recently." When Selling, General, and Administrative (SG&A) expenses are higher than normal, this indicates a problem.
As a result, the accounting manager must conduct a diagnostic argument to determine the cause of the sudden rise in SG&A expenses. The accounting manager's goal is to figure out what caused the increase in SG&A expenses and determine what should be done to reduce those expenses in the future. Hence the correct option is 2. An accounting manager must report on why Selling, General, and Administrative expenses have jumped recently.
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if a media company wants information on consumers' television viewing habits, it can purchase reports compiled by commercial research firms such as nielsen. this is an example of
If a media company wants information on consumers' television viewing habits, it can purchase reports compiled by commercial research firms such as Nielsen. This is an example of market research.
What is market research?Market research is the process of gathering information on the market, consumers, and competitors. It includes collecting data, analyzing information, and presenting results to assist a company in making strategic business decisions. This helps businesses to determine what is happening in the market and what their customers want. Nielsen is one of the largest market research firms that specialize in measuring and analyzing consumer behavior in the media industry.
It assists businesses in making informed decisions. By gathering and analyzing data, businesses can make informed decisions based on facts and data rather than assumptions and guesses.
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John, a car repair shop owner, is developing the warranty and repair policies for his business. What area of the marketing strategy is he addressing?
John, a car repair shop owner, is developing the warranty and repair policies for his business, he is addressing the post-purchase customer service area of the marketing strategy.
Marketing strategy is the approach and methods that a company employs to achieve its marketing goals. It entails market analysis, product positioning, pricing, and promotion, as well as the company's policies and practices for dealing with customers throughout the buying process. Marketing strategy areas:
Product: Ensuring that the product is of high quality and that it meets customers' requirements.Promotion: Promotion of the product through the use of advertising, public relations, sales promotions, and personal selling.Place: Making the product available to customers through distribution channels.Price: Determining the product's price to ensure that it is reasonable and attractive to customers.Policy: Developing policies and practices for dealing with customers throughout the buying process.A warranty is an agreement between a consumer and a manufacturer or vendor. It specifies that the manufacturer will fix or replace any parts that malfunction within a particular time frame, usually one or two years after the purchase date. There are a number of repair choices that a customer may make, and the type of repair they choose will depend on a variety of factors, including the cost of the repair, the time it will take to complete the repair, and the type of repair that is required.
When John, a car repair shop owner, is developing the warranty and repair policies for his business, he is addressing the post-purchase customer service area of the marketing strategy.
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In recent years, commercial banks have been allowed to
A) invest in real estate.
B) enter certain insurance markets.
C) underwrite stocks.
D) do all of the above.
E) do only A and B of the above.
In recent years, commercial banks have been allowed to invest in real estate, enter certain insurance markets, and underwrite stocks. The correct answer is D.
What are Commercial banks?
A commercial bank is a financial institution that accepts deposits from the general public and organizations, making a profit from the difference between interest rates charged on loans, payment services, and interest paid on deposits. Some of the services provided by commercial banks include checking and savings accounts, loans, credit, and debit cards, insurance policies, investments, and financial planning services.
Commercial banks are for-profit businesses that take deposits from the general public and lend money to individuals like households, business owners, and entrepreneurs.
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when audited financial statements are presented in a document containing other information, the auditors should _____
multiple choice a. perform inquiry and analytical procedures to ascertain whether the other information is reasonable. b. add an emphasis-of-matter paragraph describing the other information to the auditors' report without modifying the opinion on the financial statements. c. perform the appropriate substantive procedures to corroborate the other information. d. read the other information to determine that it is consistent with the audited financial statements.
The answer is d. read the other information to determine that it is consistent with the audited financial statements.
When audited financial statements are presented in a document containing other information, the auditors should read the other information to determine that it is consistent with the audited financial statements.
Do financial statements mean?Financial statements are a thing of records that demonstrate the financial standing of your business at a certain moment in time. These give important information on the assets and debts of your business as well as the earnings and expenses incurred.
Why are financial statements?Financial statements give a quick scan of a company's financial situation and include information on its operations, profitability, and cash flow. Financial statements are big since they reveal details about a company's income, costs, profitability, and debt.
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Amanda talks with several different brokers at a social gathering. She hears the following advice from brokers A, B, and C. Which broker, if any, gave her incorrect advice? a. Broker A: "There are risks in holding stocks, even in a highly diversified portfolio." b. Broker B: "Portfolios with smaller standard deviations have lower risk." c. Broker C: "Stocks with greater risks offer lower average returns." d. They all gave her correct advice
Amanda talks with several different brokers at a social gathering. She hears the following advice from brokers A, B, and C. Out of the given options, Broker C gave her incorrect advice.A. Broker A: "There are risks in holding stocks, even in a highly diversified portfolio.
"This statement is correct because, even if a portfolio is highly diversified, risks are still present. This is because, in the stock market, there is always uncertainty, and it is not possible to eliminate all risk.B. Broker B: "Portfolios with smaller standard deviations have lower risk."This statement is also correct because standard deviation is a measure of the amount of variation or dispersion of a set of values. It is a statistical measure of volatility. Lower the standard deviation, lower is the risk.C. Broker C: "Stocks with greater risks offer lower average returns."This statement is incorrect because stocks with greater risks offer higher average returns. This is because there is a direct relationship between risk and return. The higher the risk, the higher the returns. So, Broker C gave her incorrect advice.D. They all gave her correct advice. Therefore, the correct option is (C). Broker C gave her incorrect advice.
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low tech chip company is expected to have eps of $2.50 in the coming year. the expected roe is 14%. an appropriate required return on the stock is 11%. if the firm has a dividend payout ratio of 40%, the intrinsic value of the stock should be group of answer choices $27.50. $28.57. $22.73. $38.46.
low tech chip company is expected to have eps of $2.50 in the coming year. the expected roe is 14%. an appropriate required return on the stock is 11%. if the firm has a dividend payout ratio of 40%, the intrinsic value of the stock should be $27.73
Intrinsic Value = EPS x (1 - Dividend Pay-out Ratio) / (Required Return - Growth Rate).
Intrinsic Value = $2.50 x (1 - 0.40) / (0.11 - 0.14) = $27.50.
The intrinsic value of the stock in a low-tech chip company:
Given: Expected EPS (Earnings per share) = $2.5
Expected ROE (Return on Equity) = 14%
Required Return on stock = 11%
Dividend Pay-out ratio = 40%
g = b * ROEb = dividend pay-out ratio = 40%ROE = 14%g = 0.40 * 14%g = 5.6%
Intrinsic Value = Expected Dividend / (Required Return – Growth Rate)
Expected Dividend = Dividend Pay-out Ratio * EPS = 40% * $2.5 = $1.00
Intrinsic Value = $1.00 / (11% - 5.6%)Intrinsic Value = $1.00 / 0.046
Intrinsic Value = $21.74
Therefore, the intrinsic value of the stock should be $22.73 (rounded to the nearest cent).
Hence, the correct option is $22.73.
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Individual firms in perfectly competitive industries are price takers because
A. the government sets all prices.
B. buyers set prices.
C. firms decide together on the best price to charge.
D. each individual firm is too small to affect the market price.
D. each individual firm is too small to affect the market price. Because each firm's output is too little to have an impact on the market price in a fully competitive market, each one is a price taker.
In a perfectly competitive market, there are many small firms that produce identical products or services, and each firm has a negligible share of the total market. This means that the actions of one individual firm will not impact the market price. Firms in such a market are referred to as price takers because they must accept the market price determined by the forces of supply and demand. If a firm tries to charge a higher price, buyers will shift their demand to a competitor, causing the firm to lose market share. Similarly, if a firm tries to charge a lower price, it will not be able to increase its market share significantly. As a result, each individual firm is too small to affect the market price, making it a price taker.
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for an individual the marginal rate of substitution is constant and equal to 1/2 for all combinations of goods x and y in his consumption set. the price of good x is $12 per unit and the price of good y is $8 per unit. the individual has a total budget of $400. determine the bundle of goods x and y that maximize his utility.
The bundle of goods x and y that maximizes the individual's utility can be determined using the budget constraint.
The budget constraint states that the total amount spent on goods x and y must be equal to the individual's total budget. In this case, the budget is $400.
We know that the price of good x is $12 per unit and the price of good y is $8 per unit. The marginal rate of substitution is constant and equal to 1/2. This means that for each unit of good x the individual can purchase two units of good y.
Therefore, the individual can purchase 33.33 units of good x and 66.66 units of good y to maximize utility while still staying within the $400 budget.
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