A doctor orders A/C pressure control for a 50 kg postoperative female patient. Which of the following settings would you choose for this patient?
A. pressure limit/PIP = 30 cm H2O; rate = 12/min; inspiratory time = 2 seconds
B. pressure limit/PIP = 40 cm H2O; rate = 20/min; inspiratory time = 1 second
C. pressure limit/PIP = 25 cm H2O; rate = 15/min; inspiratory time = 1 second
D. pressure limit/PIP = 30 cm H2O; rate = 30/min; inspiratory time = 1 second
The correct answer is C, pressure limit or PIP = 25 cm H2O at the rate = 15/min; inspiratory time = 1 second. One of the most popular types of mechanical ventilation used in the critical care unit is assist-control (AC) mode.
Initial settings for assisted control pressure control of adults are pressure limit: 20-30 cm H2O, at the rate: 8-20/min, and inspiratory time or I:E set to achieve I:E less than or equal to 1:2. When patients need breathing assistance, a life-saving surgery called mechanical ventilation is frequently used.
A volume-cycled method of ventilation is AC ventilation. It operates by programming a preset tidal volume (VT), which the ventilator will provide at certain intervals of time or whenever the patient begins to breathe.
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recommendations of both the prudent healthy diet and myplate are to consume at least _____ of grains from whole grain sources.
Whole grains like oatmeal, brown rice, or whole-wheat bread should make up at least half of your diet.
How many grammes of whole grains are suggested for daily consumption?Recommendations for diet It is recommended to consume 75 grammes of whole grains for every 10 MJ of energy. For women, this translates to roughly 70 grammes of whole grains per day and about 90 grammes for males.
What quantity of grains is advised?5 to 8 ounces of grains per day, 3 to 6 of which should be whole grains, have been advised by experts. For comparison, one piece of bread or half a cup of cooked rice or pasta equals one ounce of grains.
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works to help your body relax and slow down. It's often referred to as your "rest and digest" mode.
O A. sympathetic nervous system
O B. cardiovascular system
19. The
O C. parasympathetic nervous system
O D. gastrointestinal system
Answer: it’s C.
Explanation: I hope this helps^^
18. Tom has acrophobia, a fear of heights. As a result, he refuses to participate in any activity that involves heights, such as rock climbing, going over tall bridges, and flying on airplanes. What type of disorder does Tom have?
OA Depression disorder
OB Anely disorder
OC. Eating disorder
OD Bipolar disorder
Mark for review (WB be highlighted on the review page)
♦
Lisa Warren is a newly hired health insurance specialist at
a small medical practice, and she is responsible for
completing and submitting CMS-1500 claims. Toward the
end of her second day on the job, she is asked to take a
phone call from a patient who has questions about his
submitted claim.
The patient tells Lisa that he just received an explanation
of benefits (EOB) from his third-party payer, and it makes
no sense because the bottom part of the form that is
supposed to include a tear-off check is blank. He tells Lisa
that EOB says that he agreed to the assignment of
benefits. The patient is upset because he needs that
money to buy groceries.
Lisa uses the medical practice's electronic health record
system to quickly access the patient's record, submitted
CMS-1500 claim, and remittance advice the practice
received from the payer. Lisa explains to the patient that
the physician accepts assignment from this payer. She
further explains that according to her file, the account is
considered paid in full because the patient paid her S20
copayment at the time of the encounter.
The patient argues that the medical practice owves him
money because he was supposed to receive a check from
the paver
What area of confusion is occurring between Lisa and the
patient? How should this be resolved for the patient?
Answer:
Health Science 1: The Whole Individual (1-5 Unit)
21.
Zara has been hired as the charge nurse for a busy city hospital. There are several nurses who report to Zara, but ultimately, they cannot do their job unless a charge nurse is there. Zara loves to travel and sometimes if she sees a good deal on airfare, she will spontaneously take a trip. What quality does Zara need to work on in order to fulfill her role more efficiently?
The area of confusion between Lisa and the patient is regarding the explanation of benefits (EOB) that the patient received from his third-party payer, which had a blank tear-off check at the bottom of the form.
What is the explanation of benefits?The explanation of benefits enlists the charges of the received healthcare services and the amount of the charges the healthcare insurance company will pay for those services.
In the case given here, the patient believes that he is owed money from the medical practice because he did not receive the check from the payer. To resolve the issue for the patient, Lisa should explain that the account is considered paid in full because the physician accepts assignment from the payer, and according to her file, the patient paid the $20 co-payment at the time of the encounter.
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Select all that apply
Consuming a nutrient in amounts close to the Tolerable Upper Intake Level is more likely to happen when you
A. have an excessive intake of a limited variety of foods.
B. consumer a diet from a variety of food sources.
C. take high doses of supplements.
D. use many fortified foods.
Consuming a nutrient in amounts close to the Tolerable Upper Intake Level is more likely to happen when you option (A,C,D)
a)have an excessive intake of a limited variety of foods
C. take high doses of supplements.
D. use many fortified foods.
The components of food known as nutrients are what fuel biological activity and are vital to human health. The following essential tasks are carried out by these substances, which are grouped as proteins, lipids, carbs (sugars, dietary fibre), vitamins, and minerals.
You may get all the energy you need to be active throughout the day from a well-balanced diet. nutrients you require for development and repair, assisting in keeping you strong and healthy and assisting in the prevention of dietary-related diseases including certain cancers.
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Elaborate the contributions of biodiversity on economic improvement of nepal
Biodiversity contributes to economic improvement in Nepal through tourism, providing natural resources for subsistence and commercial use, supporting ecosystem services such as soil fertility and pollination, and serving as a source for new medicines and genetic resources for crop improvement.
What is biodiversity?Biodiversity plays a significant role in the economic improvement of Nepal. Firstly, it provides valuable resources for agriculture and forestry, such as crops, fruits, and timber. Secondly, Nepal's diverse ecosystems support important industries such as eco-tourism, providing employment and income opportunities for local communities.
Additionally, the pharmaceutical industry relies on the country's diverse flora and fauna for traditional medicine and the development of new drugs. Furthermore, the conservation of biodiversity helps maintain ecosystem services, such as water regulation and soil conservation, which are essential for the sustainable use of natural resources and the improvement of the country's overall economy. In conclusion, preserving and utilizing Nepal's biodiversity can have positive impacts on the country's economy.
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Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question was:
Elaborate the contributions of biodiversity on economic improvement of Nepal.
in the integrative model of generalized anxiety disorder (gad) presented in the text, avoidance of imagery leads to which of the following? group of answer choices e
a. motion restricted b. autonomic response c. worry inadequate d. problem-solving skills
The integrative model of generalized anxiety disorder (gad) presented in the text Avoidance of situations.
What is anxiety ?Anxiety is an emotional state characterized by feelings of tension, worry, and unease. It can range in intensity from mild uneasiness to extreme fear or panic. Physical symptoms may include increased heart rate, shortness of breath, trembling, or sweating. Anxiety can be associated with various mental health disorders, such as generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder, social anxiety disorder, and post-traumatic stress disorder. It can also occur as a result of life changes, stress, or traumatic events. Anxiety can be managed through lifestyle changes, cognitive-behavioral therapy, and sometimes medication.
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symptom checklists and self-report tests which clients complete themselves are most likely to be used____
Symptom checklists and self-report tests are most likely to be used in clinical and counseling settings as part of the initial assessment process to gather information about a client's current mental health status and symptoms.
These tools can assist doctors and therapists in identifying probable mental health issues and developing a treatment plan that is personalised to the client's specific requirements. In addition, self-report tests and checklists may be utilised on a regular basis during therapy to track progress and evaluate treatment success. These instruments are also often used in research studies to evaluate mental health outcomes and track changes over time.
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Recall from the video the steps of how to measure blood pressure using a stethoscope and sphygmomanometer (blood pressure cuff). Note that before measuring blood pressure in lab, the subject should be in a seated position with his or her sleeve rolled up to expose the arm. Place the steps in the correct order from left to right. View Available Hint(s) Reset Help R sounds of Korotkoff Record number when Record number when sounds of Korotkoff Squeeze bulb to Wrap the cuff around Place stethoscope Slowly release the inflate the cuff above the arm, just above over the brachial pressure valve. systolic pressure the elboww artery appear. disappear. Deflate cuff
Answer:
c is correct?
Explanation:
Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria for a molecule to be considered a neurotransmitter?
A. It must be present in the neuron.
B. There must be a way to remove the chemical after it has acted on the receptors.
C. It must have an inhibitory effect on the postsynaptic neuron.
D. It must produce a response in the target cell when it is released.
The requirements for a substance to qualify as a neurotransmitter option C is correct . It must have an inhibitory effect on the postsynaptic neuron.
This is not one of the criteria for a molecule to be considered a neurotransmitter. Instead, a neurotransmitter can have either an inhibitory or excitatory effect on the postsynaptic neuron.
The three main criteria for a molecule to be considered a neurotransmitter are:
A. It must be present in the neuron.
B. There must be a way to release the chemical from the neuron.
D. It must produce a response in the target cell when it is released.
In addition to these criteria, neurotransmitters must also be synthesized and stored in the presynaptic neuron, and there must be a mechanism for removing them from the synaptic cleft after they have acted on the postsynaptic receptor.
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Quit
1. Which of the following is NOT a value of positive behavior support?
rights of
Using natural aversive consequences when the inappropriate behavior occurs is not a value of positive behavior support.
What is positive behavior support?To promote quality of life, typically in schools, positive behavior support employs strategies from applied behavior analysis, values of normalization, and social role valorization theory
Positive behavior support's overarching goal is to enhance both a person's and others around them's quality of life. This comprises children, teenagers, adults, and seniors.
It is a group of evidence-based methods for improving a person's quality of life and reducing problem behavior by giving them new skills and altering their surroundings.
Therefore, using natural aversive consequences when the inappropriate behavior occurs is not a value of positive behavior support.
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Help please, I would appreciate it a lot
Answer:
you answer the question on the screen
Explanation:
Explanation:
The nine dimensions of wellness are essential for a healthy and balanced lifestyle. These dimensions include physical, emotional, intellectual, social, occupational, financial, environmental, spiritual, and cultural wellness. Physical wellness refers to maintaining a healthy body through exercise, nutrition, and regular medical check-ups. Emotional wellness focuses on managing stress, being mindful of emotions, and building resilience. Intellectual wellness is about continuous learning and challenging oneself mentally. Social wellness is having strong interpersonal relationships and being a part of a supportive community. Occupational wellness is finding fulfillment in work and having a work-life balance. Financial wellness involves managing money effectively and having financial security. Environmental wellness is taking care of the environment and creating sustainable living spaces. Spiritual wellness includes exploring one's beliefs and values and connecting with a higher power. Lastly, cultural wellness involves embracing diversity and respecting different cultural backgrounds.
Personally, I believe that all nine dimensions of wellness are equally important to living a healthy and fulfilling life. Each dimension contributes to one's overall well-being and neglecting any one of them can have negative consequences. I consider my strong points to be intellectual and environmental wellness, as I enjoy learning new things and being conscious of my impact on the environment. However, I recognize that I need to work on my physical wellness by incorporating regular exercise into my routine.
Incorporating these dimensions into daily life can help individuals become healthier and happier. It is essential to evaluate which dimensions one needs to improve upon and take small steps towards achieving wellness in those areas. For example, setting aside time for exercise or making an effort to connect with others socially. By prioritizing wellness, individuals can lead a more fulfilling life and improve their overall quality of life.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has AIDS about preventing infection while at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. "Wash your genitalia using an antimicrobial soap."
b. "Rinse your dishes with cold water."
c. "Clean your toothbrush once per month."
d. "Incorporate raw fruits and vegetables into your diet."
The instructions should the nurse include in the teaching to client having AIDS is Wash your genitalia using an antimicrobial soap.
What are the symptoms of AIDS?AIDS is a chronic immune system disease caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). HIV damages the immune system and interferes with the body's ability to fight infection and disease. HIV can be spread through contact with infected blood, semen, or vaginal fluids.
People with HIV may have symptoms in the very beginning of their infection, like swollen glands, fever, headaches, and muscle soreness. You may not have any symptoms at all for up to 10 years.
No cure exists for HIV/AIDS, but medications can control HIV and prevent disease progression. With treatment, most people with HIV in the U.S. don’t develop AIDS.
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which of the following is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease? moderate alcohol intake a diet low in polyunsaturated fats intake of fatty foods such as avocados and olives eating a diet high in whole grains
Cardiovascular disease (CVD) is a complex condition that is influenced by multiple factors, including lifestyle choices and genetics.
The following are some risk factors for CVD:
Moderate alcohol intake: Consuming moderate to high amounts of alcohol has been associated with an increased risk of CVD.
A diet low in polyunsaturated fats: A diet that is low in polyunsaturated fats, such as omega-3 fatty acids, has been linked to an increased risk of CVD.
Intake of fatty foods: Consuming a diet high in saturated and trans fats, which are commonly found in fatty foods such as butter, cheese, and red meat, has been linked to an increased risk of CVD.
Eating a diet high in whole grains: On the other hand, a diet high in whole grains has been associated with a reduced risk of CVD.
It's important to note that CVD is influenced by multiple risk factors, and lifestyle choices such as diet and exercise can play a significant role in reducing the risk of developing this condition.
Question: Which of the following is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease?
a. intake of fatty foods such as avocados and olives
b. eating a diet high in whole grains
c. moderate alcohol intake
d. a diet low in polyunsaturated fats
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Why is medical terminology important? Check all that apply.
It makes communication between medical professionals less frequent.
It makes communication easier.
It reduces confusion.
It is easy for anyone to use.
Medical terminology is important as it makes communication easier and reduces confusion, which are the second and third options, because medical terminology provides a standardized language for medical professionals.
What is the significance of the medical terminology?Medical terminology helps to make communication easier by providing a common vocabulary, minimizing misunderstandings, preventing errors, and reducing confusion by providing a clear and concise way of understanding complex medical concepts. It is important for medical professionals, patients, and their families.
Hence, medical terminology is important as it makes communication easier and reduces confusion, which are the second and third options, because medical terminology provides a standardized language for medical professionals.
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Answer:
b & c
Explanation:
+50 points i will give brainiest please do this like a 6th grader would be lazy about it but dont at the same time
Essay: Use what you have learned about asexual and sexual reproduction from this modeling activity to explain why asexual reproduction produces offspring that are identical to the originals, and sexual reproduction produces offspring that are unique from their originals. Be sure your essay is at least one paragraph long, but you are welcome to write more. Be specific in your response by referencing chromosomes and cell phases to support your explanation.
You may look back at your summary questions to help you complete this essay. Please provide your answer in the space below.
Asexual reproduction does not require male and female individuals, and there is no fusion of gametes, whereas sexual reproduction involves the joining of male and female gametes.
Why do the children of sexual reproduction differ from one another?
Offspring through sexual reproduction could have a very diverse genetic makeup. This variation results from gametes randomly joining together after fertilization, independent assortment, and crossing-over during meiosis.
Genetic diversity is developed during sexual reproduction because the sperm and eggs that are produced have different gene combinations than their parent organisms. On the other hand, asexual reproduction does not require sperm and eggs because one organism divides into two species with the same genetic makeup.
Asexual reproduction creates clones of the original parent, which results in kids that are genetically identical to the parent. Due to the fact that each parent contributes half of the genetic material for the new organism during sexual reproduction, the offspring will contain characteristics from both parents but will not be an identical replica of either. A technique for creating haploid gametes is necessary for organisms that reproduce sexually by combining gametes, a process known as fertilization.
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Which of the following correctly lists amphetamine ingestion methods from shortest to longest onset of effects?
a. snorting, smoking, swallowing, injecting
b. injecting, snorting, smoking, swallowing
c. swallowing, snorting, smoking, injecting
d. smoking, injecting, snorting, swallowing
The correct order of onset of effects for amphetamine ingestion methods from shortest to longest is: b. injecting, snorting, smoking, swallowing.
When amphetamines are injected, the effects are felt almost immediately as the drug rapidly enters the bloodstream. Snorting amphetamines can take a few minutes to take effect as the drug is absorbed through the nasal tissues and into the bloodstream. Smoking amphetamines can take slightly longer to take effect as the drug is absorbed through the lungs and into the bloodstream. Swallowing amphetamines can take the longest to take effect as the drug must first be absorbed through the digestive system and into the bloodstream. It's important to note that the onset and duration of effects can vary depending on several factors, including the dose and formulation of the drug, the method of administration, and the individual's tolerance and metabolic rate. Additionally, using amphetamines can have serious health consequences, including increased heart rate and blood pressure, anxiety, paranoia, and addiction. It's important to seek medical advice before using any drugs, including amphetamines.
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Brian makes $1,000 per month. His fixed monthly expenses are $600 for rent, $65 for utilities, and $30 for his cell phone. He also wants to save 20% of his salary. What is his budget for his entertainment and any extras?(1 point)
Responses
$105
$105
$205
$205
$305
$305
$405
Answer:
$305
Explanation:
Method 1
1000 - 600 = 400
400 - 65 = 335
300 - 30 = 305
Method 2
600 + 65 + 30 = 695
1000 - 695 = 305
20% of 1000 is 200, but subtracting all his "I need to pay", leaves him with 305 so already he has more than 20% saved.
So Brian has $305 left.
Power to Overcome
It is not necessary to revisit and heal old childhood scars, since we were not old enough to fully process it in the first place.
True
False
Answer is False....Just putting it out here as I was not able to find it in Brainly
Which of the following are recommended methods for reducing the effects of bedroom allergens on sleep? use protective mattress pads
wash bed linens frequently
The recommended methods for reducing the effects of bedroom allergens on sleep include using a protective mattress pad, washing bed linens frequently, and controlling dust mites.
Protective mattress pads can prevent dust mites and other allergens from accumulating in the mattress, while washing bed linens frequently can remove any allergens that may have accumulated. Additionally, controlling dust mites by using allergen-proof covers on pillows and duvets, vacuuming carpets and rugs regularly, and maintaining low humidity levels can also help reduce the effects of allergens on sleep. These strategies can help individuals with allergies or sensitivities to sleep more comfortably and soundly, improving their overall health and well-being.
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Which of the following are recommended methods for reducing the effects of bedroom allergens on sleep?
A. Use protective mattress pad.
B. Wash bed linens frequently.
C. Control dust mites.
D. None of the above.
Which of the following services is LEAST likely to be provided by a facility accredited by CARF?
A. Chronic pain management
B. Palliative care
C. Brain injury management
D. Vocational evaluation
An impartial organisation that accredits rehabilitation centres is called the Commission on Certification of Rehabilitation Facilities(CARF). A hospice is still most likely to give palliative care (option B).
A type of patient record that consists of four parts: (a) a registry of standardised data on the a patient's history, checkup, mental status, and other factors; (b) a roster of the patient's troubles drawn from the dataset; (c) a treatment for each problem; & (d) progress notes in relation to the. An electronic health record (EHR) is a paper document that is created, maintained, and accessed by authorised personnel from various healthcare organisations. An impartial organisation that accredits rehabilitation centres is called the Commission on Certification of Rehabilitation Facilities(CARF). One advantage of an EHR is that it allows patients to give healthcare providers false and incomplete information about their health.
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What is defined as a fixed expense?(1 point)
Responses
an estimate of income and expenditure for a set period of time
an estimate of income and expenditure for a set period of time
an expense whose total amount does not change from month to month
an expense whose total amount does not change from month to month
an expense whose total amount changes from month to month
an expense whose total amount changes from month to month
a sum of money that you must pay the government every year.
Answer: An expense whose total amount does not change from month to month.
Explanation: This is very simple to understand, let me help you. The word "fixed" means remains in the same position, so, a fixed expense would be one that never changes. The amount of money you would get charged for a fixed expense remains the same.
What is the signs and symptoms of tetanus?
The bacterium Clostridium tetani, which generates a toxin that affects the nerve system, causes tetanus, a dangerous bacterial infection.
The following are tetanus symptoms and warning indications.
1. Stiffness in the jaw and neck muscles
2. Muscle spasms and rigidity, usually starting in the jaw and neck and spreading to the other parts of the body
3. Painful muscle contractions, especially in the jaw (lockjaw), neck, and abdomen
4. Difficulty swallowing and breathing
5. Increased heart rate and blood pressure
6. Sweating
7. Fever
8. Irritability, restlessness, and anxiety
9. Seizures
Depending on how severe the illness is, the tetanus symptoms might appear a few days to several weeks after being exposed to the germs. Tetanus can be lethal if neglected. If you believe you may have been exposed to tetanus or if you are experiencing any of the symptoms mentioned above, you should seek medical help right once. Tetanus can be prevented most successfully with vaccination.
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While conducting a Healthcare Provider adult unconscious choking skill evaluation, the rescuer removes the object and is able to give two breaths. Which statement is correct for next step? A.The rescuer should check for a pulse to determine what to do next
B.The rescuer should begin CPR immediately
C.The rescuer should give two more breaths
D.The rescuer should look, listen, and feel for breathing for ten seconds
If the rescuer removes the object and is able to give two breaths during a Healthcare Provider adult unconscious choking skill evaluation, the correct next step is to check for breathing for 5-10 seconds. option D is correct.
The rescuer should look, listen, and feel for breathing for ten seconds.
If the person is not breathing or is not breathing normally, the rescuer should then begin CPR immediately, starting with chest compressions. If the person has a pulse but is not breathing, the rescuer should give rescue breaths to provide oxygen until emergency medical services arrive. Checking for a pulse is not the correct next step in this situation, as the most urgent concern is ensuring that the person is breathing.
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which of the following jobs related to exercise and sport psychology would you be eligible for with a bachelor's degree? (check all that apply) health fitness instructoryouth sports coachrecreational worker for a state parkpersonal trainer
All of the given jobs related to exercise and sport psychology are eligible for an individual with a bachelor's degree: health fitness instructor; youth sports coach; recreational worker for a state park; and personal trainer.
Sport Psychology is the study of the influence of psychology on an individual's performance over sports, athletic performance, exercise, or any sort of physical activity. Understanding the sport psychology is essential to enhance one's performance.
Exercise is any form of physical activity performed in order to keep the body active and healthy. Exercise can be from simple brisk walking to high high energy workouts like the cardiovascular exercises.
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2. Lit and briefly describe the physical workplace risk factors?
Some physical workplace risk factors are work stress, noise, heat, vibration, and pressure.
What are physical workplace risk factors?Workplace conditions that deteriorate the body over time and increase the chance of harm are known as ergonomic risk factors. These include repetitive motion, unnatural posture, forceful movement, stillness, direct pressure, vibration, suffocating heat, loud noise, and work stress.
significant mental tasks demands, such as those associated with work that calls for complex decision-making or extended periods of focus.
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Which of the following are two of the most common types of mental illness experienced by college students?O anxiety disorders and ADHDO mood disorders and anxiety disordersO phobic disorders and personality disordersO Schizophrenia and bipolar disorder
Mood disorders and anxiety disorders are two of the most common types of mental illness experienced by college students.
A mood disorder, often known as an affective disorder, is any of a number of mental and behavioural disorders in which the fundamental underlying feature is a change in the person's mood. In rare situations, an individual may have more than one mood illness, such as bipolar disorder and major depression. Schizoaffective disorder occurs when an individual has both a mood problem and schizophrenia. Mood disorders can also be caused by substances or emerge as a result of a medical issue.
Anxiety disorders are a group of mental diseases defined by strong and uncontrollable emotions of anxiety and dread that considerably affect a person's social, vocational, and personal function. Anxiety can induce physical and cognitive symptoms such as restlessness, irritability, fatigue, trouble focusing, elevated heart rate, chest discomfort, stomach pain, and a number of additional symptoms that differ from person to person.
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Collect dietary information for a selected individual for one week, documenting via a food diary
Answer:
Traditional methods of dietary assessment include food records,
food frequency questionnaires,
24-hour recalls,
and screening tools; digital and mobile methods that leverage technology is available for these traditional methods.
When performing transabdominal pelvic ultrasonography, the probe indicator should point towards the patient's head when acquiring a __________ view.
When establishing a sagittal image during abdominal pelvic ultrasonography, its probe indicator should point in the direction of the patient's head.
Transabdominal (through the abdomen) (through the abdomen). On the abdomen, a transducer is applied using the conducting gel. Transvaginal (via the vagina) (through the vagina). The conductive gel & a plastic/latex sheath are placed over a long, thin transducer before it is introduced into the vagina. The stomach, liver, liver, bulbs of the duodenum, lining of the stomach, ileum, transverse colon, or sigmoid colon are among the intraperitoneal organs. The marking dot on the ultrasonography display is in the upper left corner, and the probing orientation mark solely on a single half of the probe must face the patient's right side (or formerly only if indeed the probe is angled longitudinally). A dual layer of peritoneal makes up the smaller omentum.
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