(n+1) 2 for n=-9 what is the answer
to this problem

Answer: 38

Step-by-step explanation: quite simple if you do the math 24 + 14 you get 38 which we can conclude as the angle of his house

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Length   Length   Length   Length

1.41  1.41  1.41  1.41

2.24  2.24  2.24  2.24

3  3  3  3

Step-by-step explanation:

.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the expression 3x + 5/16 = 3/4 - 1/8x - 1/2

First we need to use the multiplication prope-rty before combining the like terms. The importance of this is to covent all fraction's to whole numbers.

Multiply through by 16

48x+5= 12-2x-8

Next is to collect the like terms

48x+2x = -8+12-5

50x = -1

Divide both sides by 50

50x/50 = -1/50

x = -1/50

The value used to multiply both sides is 16 and the value of x is -1/50

Answer:

AB=2AM

3x-4=2(x+3)

3x-4=2x+6

3x-2x=4+6

x=10

So length AB 3x-4=3(10)-4

30-4=26

The length of AB is 26 units.

A line segment is denoted by two endpoints.

According to the given question M is the midpoint of segment AB.

Given, AM = x + 3 and AB = 3x - 4.

As AM is the midpoint if we take twice of AM that will be equal to AB.

∴ 2(AM) = AB

2(x+3) = 3x - 4.

2x + 6 = 3x - 4.

2x - 3x = -4 - 6.

-x = - 10.

x = 10.

So the length of the line segment AB will be (3x - 4) = 3(10) - 4 units.

= 30 - 4

= 26 units.

learn more about line segment here ;

https://brainly.com/question/25727583

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Answer:

102

Step-by-step explanation:

20% of 85 is 17.

85+17 = 102

hope this helps! :)

Answer:

102

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the new amount, multiply 85 by 1.2

85(1.2)

= 102

So, when 85 is increased by 20%, the result is 102.

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

4 x 1 / 2

Reduce the numbers with the greatest common factor 2

5 x 2 = 10

Answer:

C = L + P

C = £38

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that :

Cost (C) is given by :

Sum of fixed line rental (L) ; price (P) of calls made.

Hence,

Cost formula;

C = L + P

Cost if the line rental is £10 and the price of calls made is £28.

C = L + P

If L = £10 ; P = £28

C = £10 + £28

C = £38

Answer:

It is the first option

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps you

Answer:

[tex]\frac{V}{\pi r^{2} }[/tex] = h

Step-by-step explanation:

Lets try and get everything we can away from h.

V = [tex]\pi[/tex][tex]r^{2} h[/tex]

Divide [tex]\pi[/tex][tex]r^{2}[/tex] from both sides of the equation.

Now we end up with:

[tex]\frac{V}{\pi r^{2} }[/tex] = h

Answer:

d

Step-by-step explanation:

i know this question cause i got a A +on the test dont worry

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the distance

Converted into km, considering 1 m = 10^-3 km:

Correct option is C

Answer:

The answer is A 40 cars

Step-by-step explanation:

We can see by dividing 30 by 45 you get 0.66667 repeating. If you then multiply 0.66667 by 60 (There are 60 minutes in an hour) You get 40.02. This rounds down to 40. Please mark me brainliest, and have a tremendous day!

Answer:

d= all the x values

r=all the y values

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The equation is: y = 15·x

Step-by-step explanation:

It is provided that at the Speedy Bike Works, 15 bicycles are produced each hour.

Consider the table below.

                    Number of Hours:       1          3          6          10

Number of Bicycles Produced:      15        45        90       150

Compute the ratio of number of bicycles produced and number of hours for every data above as follows:

[tex]\text{1 hour}=\frac{15}{1}=15:1\\\\\text{3 hour}=\frac{45}{3}=\frac{15}{1}=15:1\\\\\text{6 hour}=\frac{90}{6}=\frac{15}{1}=15:1\\\\\text{10 hour}=\frac{150}{10}=\frac{15}{1}=15:1[/tex]

The ratio of the number of bicycles produced and number of hours is same for every data value.

Thus, the relationship between the number of bicycles produced and number of hours is proportional.

The equation for the relationship is:

y = 15·x

y = number of bicycles produced

x = number of hours

Answer:

here the answer! There is the  proof it's right. :)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1/3 = 2/6

Step-by-step explanation

Edu correct

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

We are expected to solve for the diagonal of a rectangular shape.

given that the length, l=72in

width, w=64in

we can apply the Pythagoras theorem to solve for the diagonal since it corresponds to the hypotenuse of the rectangle

note: we are to leave 2-inches on all sides for the edging of the TV

l=72-2= 70 in

w=64-2=62

diag=√l^2+w^2

diag=√70^2+62^2

diag=√4900+3844

diag=√8744

diag=93.50 in

to the nearest tenth, it is 94in

Answer:

Slope = - 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Given equation is,

y= - 2x

If x=1, y= -2.

If x=2, y= - 4

Take such few points and plot the graph (1, - 2), (2, - 4)........

Draw a straight line through the points.

For slope, compare the equation with slope intercept form, y=mx + c

Here, c=0 and m=-2

Hope this helps!!

Answer:

24 pieces

Step-by-step explanation:

Sydney bakes two pies, stephanie brings two more.

Together we have a total of four pies

each pie is cut into 6 pieces, meaning you should multiply the amount of times they cut it by the number of pies.

6 x 4 = 24

Answer:

m = -1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

m= rise over run

2-4                1

____    =   -  __

9-3                3

Answer:

-1/3  is the slope

Step-by-step explanation:

I attached an image below to show you how i did this. I hope this helps :)

Answer:

140 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Let

Number of miles = m

Total cost = fixed cost + variable cost

Company A = ​$150 + $0.40m

Company B = ​$80 + $0.90m

Equate company A and company B equation

Company A = Company B

​$150 + $0.40m = ​$80 + $0.90m

Collect like terms

150 - 80 = 0.90m - 0.40m

70 = 0.50m

m = 70 / 0.50

= 140

m = 140 miles

The number of miles in a day at which the rental costs for Company A and Company B are the same is 140 miles

Answer:

1/8 of a cup.

Step-by-step explanation:

That would be 1/6 of 3/4

= 1/6 * 3/4

= 1*3 / (6*4)

= 3/24

= 1/8.

Answer:

-62, because he didn't have enough of his money since he was using debit.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

perimeter=22

AB+BC+AC=22

8+5+AC=22

AC=22-13

AC=9

Apply the Pythagorean theorem:

AB²+AB²=AC²

8²+5²=64+25=89

AC²=9²=81

no it is not a right triangle because it failed the Pythagorean theorem

Answer:

it is C

Step-by-step explanation:

it is c because all of the other answers are stated in the article, and a opinion is something you think

Answer:

1. [tex]v<\frac{3y-7}{2}[/tex]

2. [tex]m\leq \frac{6n}{7}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

1. [tex]2v+8-8<3y+1-8[/tex]

[tex]2v<3y-7[/tex]

[tex]\frac{2v}{2} <\frac{3y}{2} -\frac{7}{2}[/tex]

[tex]v<\frac{3y-7}{2}[/tex]

2. [tex]-7m-16+16\geq -2(7+3n)-2+16\\[/tex]

[tex]-7m\geq -6n\\[/tex]

[tex]7m\geq 6n\\[/tex]

[tex]\frac{7m}{7} \leq \frac{6n}{7}[/tex]

[tex]m\leq \frac{6n}{7}[/tex]

Answer:

No, i dont think so

Step-by-step explanation:

10 1/2 divided by 3/8:

KCF (keep, change the sign, flip the fraction)

·21/2×8/3=168/6

168/6=28

12/2×8/3=16

therefore they are not equal so it is not true

Hope this helped ;)

Answer:

well lets solve this:

10 1/2-->21/10

21/10 dvided by 3/8-------> to divide fractions we do this: 10/21 x 3/8 (swap the denom and num of the firs fraction then multiply by the sec)

10/21x3/8=30/168 = 3/56

12/2 x 8/3 = 6x 8/3= 6/1x8/3=48/3

48/3 simplified is 16/1 =16

3/56x16/1 = 48/56

48/56=24/28=12/14=6/7

Step-by-step explanation:

Therfore this is false

-hope this helps

Answer:

so the exterior angle 152 is made from the interior angle being subtracted from 180. we can also subtract 152 from 180 to find the interior angle. 180-152=28  the inside of a triangle is a total of 180 degrees so 110+28=138 180-138=42 degrees. 42 degrees is the final interior angle and the missing and the missing exterior angle is congruent to the 42 degree angle. So the missing exterior angle is 42 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

The picture attached has work and the answer! :)