Need Help! Given the drawing, what would the value of x need to be in order for it to be true that m || n ? ​

Step-by-step explanation:

a) a = base edge

b) h = height

Answer:

A. $2.59

Step-by-step explanation:

If you divide the costs by the pounds:
3/7.77 = 2.59
12.95/5 = 2.59
20.72/8 = 2.59
Therefore, the answers is $2.59
Hope this helps :)

Answer:

  192

Step-by-step explanation:

It is always wise to look carefully at the question to see what information is given, and what information you are asked for. You are given two different fractions of the same number, and you want the value of a third fraction of that number. That third fraction is the sum of the other two.

__

The value of 80% of the number will be the sum of 55% and 25% of the number.

  n×80% = n×55% +n×25%

  n×80% = 132 +60

  n×80% = 192

80% of the number is 192.

_____

Additional comment

Your first clue that there may be something special about this problem lies in the fact that one fraction of a number is all you need in order to find any other fraction. Here, we're given two fractions (55% and 25%), so that is more information than we need. Why? Because it simplifies the problem to one of addition. No proportions need to be solved.

__

If you were interested, you could determine 100% of the number to be ...

  132/n = 55/100   ⇒   n = 132(100/55) = 240

or

  60/n = 25/100   ⇒   n = 60(100/25) = 240

Then ...

  0.80n = 0.80(240) = 192 . . . . 80% of the number

Or, you could write proportions for the 80% value:

  80%/55% = n/132   ⇒   n = 132(80/55) = 192 . . . . 80% of the number

  80%/25% = n/60   ⇒   n = 60(80/25) = 192 . . . . 80% of the number

__

"Look carefully" includes thinking about the ways the givens and the finds are related.

Mary will receive 1512.4931 more Yen if she makes her trade on the day with the most favorable exchange rate than that of the least favorable exchange rate.

It is the factor by which currency conversion of two countries is done.

The most Favorable day is Friday because the exchange rate on Friday is the highest.

So, Mary will receive on Friday= 311.75 x 92.7120 x 94/100

Mary will receive on Friday(a)=27168.788 Yen

The least Favorable day is Wednesday because the exchange rate on Wednesday is the least.

So, Mary will receive on Wednesday= 311.75 x 87.5507 x 94/100

So, Mary will receive on Wednesday(b)= 25,656.2949 Yen

Difference between (a) and (b) = 1512.4931 Yen

Hence, Mary will receive 1512.4931 more Yen if she makes her trade on the day with the most favorable exchange rate than if she makes her trade on the day with the least favorable exchange rate.

To get more about the exchange rate visit:

https://brainly.com/question/1366402

salary : $12 per hour

Answer:

4 weeks

Step-by-step explanation:

original base amount 150 200

1st week deposit 175 210

2nd week deposit 200 220

3rd week deposit 225 230

4th week deposit 250 240

Answer: No

Step-by-step explanation:

(3,1) is not a solution because when plugging in x=3 and y=1 to the second equation, you get: 12(3) + 1 = 13 → 36 + 1 = 13 → 37 = 13, which is false.

Answer:

54cm²

Step-by-step explanation:

2(3x6) + 2(6x1) + 2(3x1)

= 54cm²

Answer: [tex]log (x^3y )[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

First we want to make the coefficients of the log the exponents of what is in the log

[tex]3 log (x) + 2 log (y) - log (y)\\log (x^3) + log (y^2) - log (y)[/tex]

Now adding two log with the same base is the same as multiplying what you are taking the log of

[tex]log (x^3) + log (y^2) - log (y)\\log (x^3y^2) - log (y)[/tex]

Now subtracting two logs with the same base is the same as dividing what you are taking the log of

[tex]log (x^3y^2) - log (y)\\log (\frac{x^3y^2}{y} )[/tex]

Now we simplify

The [tex]y^2[/tex] cancels out the y in the denomiator

[tex]log (x^3y^2) - log (y)\\log (x^3y )[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

xlog3+ylog2-ylog

log3×log2 -ylog

log6-ylog

Answer:

1. 32

2. 47

3. See explanation for number 3 below

Step-by-step explanation:

All you have to do is simply add 17 to however old Titus is. So if he's 15 years old, you just simply have to do 15+17, which is 32. For number 3, I'm assuming that they just want an explanation for how you do this process, in which case, this explanation is the answer to number 3. If that's not what they're looking for in number 3, then I'm sorry. But I'm pretty sure that's what they want there.

Answer:

Its 320 i think its so many numbers my eyes cant keep up

Step-by-step explanation:

just add em all up

Apply Pythagorean theorem

Again

Answer:

2√5

Step-by-step explanation:

The given pyramid is composed of two right angle triangles. Notice the triangles of the pyramid share a common side. With the help of it, we can figure out x

recall Pythagoras theorem

[tex] {a}^{2} + { b }^{2} = {c}^{2} [/tex]

here,

To find:

now plug in the value of a and c in the formula respectively:

[tex] {4}^{2} + { b }^{2} = {10}^{2} \\ \implies {b}^{2} = {10}^{2} - {4}^{2} \\ \implies {b}^{2} = 84 \\ \implies \boxed{ b_{1} = 2\sqrt{21}}[/tex]

here,

Utilizing Pythagoras theorem yields:

[tex] {x}^{2} + { 8}^{2} = {(2\sqrt{21})}^{2} \\ \implies {x}^{2} = {(2\sqrt{21})}^{2} - {8}^{2} \\ \implies {x}^{2} = 20\\ \implies \boxed{ x= 2\sqrt{5}}[/tex]

and we're done!

Answer:

132 cm³

Explanation:

[tex]\sf volume \ of \ cone = \dfrac{1}{3} \pi r^2h[/tex]

put radius: 3 cm, height: 14 cm, π as 22/7

[tex]\sf \rightarrow \dfrac{1}{3} *\dfrac{22}{7} * (3)^2(14)[/tex]

[tex]\sf \rightarrow 132 \ cm^3[/tex]

Answer:

297 [tex]cm^{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

area of triangle x 4 + area of rectangle

[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x 12 x 9 x 4+ 9 x 9

Answer:

The awnser is 400 meter run

Step-by-step explanation:

i took the quiz

The mean absolute deviation shows that the event were her times the most spread out is C. 400 meter hurdles.

It should be noted that the mean absolute deviation means the average distance that's between each data point and the mean.

In this case, the mean absolute deviation shows that the event were her times the most spread out is 400 meter hurdles. This was illustrated as it has has the highest mean absolute deviation when compared to others.

Learn more about mean absolute deviation on:

https://brainly.com/question/17381861

let's evaluate this expression

[tex]\pmb{\displaystyle\frac{2}{5}g+3h-6 }[/tex]

[tex]\pmb{\displaystyle\frac{2}{5} *10+3(6)-6}[/tex]

[tex]\pmb{\displaystyle\frac{2}{5} *10+18-6}[/tex]

[tex]\pmb{\displaystyle\frac{2}{5} *10+12}[/tex]

Multiply:

[tex]\pmb{\displaystyle\frac{2}{5} *\frac{10}{1} =\frac{20}{5} =4}[/tex]

Final Step:-

[tex]\pmb{4+12}[/tex]

[tex]\pmb{16}[/tex]

======================================================

Hope everything is clear; if you need any explanation/clarification, kindly let me know, and I'll comment and/or edit my answer :)

Answer:

27

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply 9 x 6 and you get 54. Since it's a triangle divide by 2 and you get 27

Answer:

It has 6 faces, So, each face has an area = 486/6 = 81 sq cm. Side of the cube =√81= 9 cm. Hence, volume of the cube = 9^3 = 729 cm^3.Jul 18, 2019

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it's help

There's a mistake in your question it's not T.S.A of cuboid it is T.S.A of cube . Because it's not possible to find the length , breadth and height of cuboid without giving only it's Total Surface Area .

If TSA of cube box is 486 cm square , find its volume .

For solving such types of questions we must have knowledge of faces of shapes and formula for surface areas and volumes of three dimensional shapes .

We know that cube have 6 faces . So area of each faces is equal to :

[tex] \rightarrow \: \cancel\frac{486}{6} \: cm \: sq.[/tex]

Now , dividing 486 by 6 :

[tex] \rightarrow \: 81 \: cm \: sq.[/tex]

Therefore , each square faces of cuboid have area of 81 cm square .

Now , We know that area of square :

Therefore , side/edge of cube is of 9 cm ..

Now , finding volume of cube :

We know that volume of cube is equal to ,

Therefore , volume of cube is 729 cm³ .

Answer:

Third one down |2s + 1| -3

Step-by-step explanation:

there is no value of s where it is valid

Answer:

Mr Bean will get 1000 naira.

Step-by-step explanation:

They invested in the ratio of 5:3:2 , meaning that Mr Bean will get half the profit. 1/2 X 2000 = 1000

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 4% probability of Anne winning two matches.

The formula is:

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

The parameters are:

In this problem:

The probability that he wins two matches is P(X = 2), hence:

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{2,2}.(0.2)^{2}.(0.8)^{0} = 0.04[/tex]

4% probability of Anne winning two matches.

More can be learned about the binomial distribution at https://brainly.com/question/24863377

Answer:

A(11:15)

Step-by-step explanation:

3+3 is 6

then Is 6+2 so is 8 then ir repeats ats 3 Like 3 6 8 and then 11

Answer:

3000

because you need to dived it

Answer:

3/1

Step-by-step explanation:

Make sure you know a few concepts first:

Alternatively

Answer:I think that each friend would get 1.5/ 1  1/2.

Step-by-step explanation:

3 divided by 2 equals 1.5

3/x=27/54

or,x×27=3×54

or,27x=162

or,x=162/27

or,x=6

Hope you will give me brainliest

Answer: Let SP of 15 candles = Rs.100. CP of 12 candles = SP of 15 candles = Rs.100 CP of 15 candles = = Rs.125 Loss = CP – SP = 125 – 100 = 25 = 20% 10.

Step-by-step explanation: This was a simple answer also CP means sale price

154 cm3 = 0,154 dm3 = 0,154 l = 154 ml

Answer:

125,44

Step-by-step explanation:

Loss = 112÷100*12

=13,44

Therefore : 112 + 13%

=112 + 13,44

=125,44