Read the following excerpt from a patient's health record: "PMHx: hypercholesterolemia, currently controlled with diet. Positive history of gonococcal urethritis 3 years previously. No history of urolithiasis." Which of the following definitions is part of the patient's past medical history?

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Answer 1

The definition that is part of the patient's past medical history (PMHx) is "hypercholesterolemia, currently controlled with diet."

The PMHx section of a patient's health record provides information about the patient's previous medical conditions or illnesses. In this case, the patient has a history of hypercholesterolemia, which refers to high levels of cholesterol in the blood.

The condition is currently controlled with diet, indicating that the patient manages their cholesterol levels through dietary modifications rather than medication.

The other information provided in the excerpt, such as the history of gonococcal urethritis and no history of urolithiasis, are additional elements of the patient's medical history but are not explicitly stated as part of the PMHx section.

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Related Questions

Binge drinking before what age has been found to increase alcohol-related problems and dependence by 3 times?

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Binge drinking before age 15 has been found to increase alcohol-related problems and dependence by 3 times

For men, binge drinking is when they have five or more drinks in one sitting, whereas for women it's four or more. The majority of binge drinkers do not suffer from a serious alcohol use disorder.However, binge drinking is a risky activity linked to severe accidents and a number of diseases.

Additionally, it raises the likelihood of developing an alcohol use disorder. Younger folks (18 to 34) are most likely to binge drink. Men binge drink almost twice as frequently as women do. The researchers discovered that more than 40% of respondents who started drinking before the age of 15 were diagnosed with alcohol dependence at some point in their lives.

Therefore, Binge drinking before age 15 has been found to increase alcohol-related problems and dependence by 3 times

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The form of resistance training which involves dynamic movement performed on exercise devisces that produce maximum resistance throughout the full range of motion is?

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The form of resistance training which involves dynamic movement performed on exercise devices that produce maximum resistance throughout the full range of motion is called isokinetic exercise.

What is isokinetic exercise?

Isokinetic exercise is defined as the type of exercise that involves performing exercise at a fixed velocity with an accommodating resistance.

This type of exercise occurs when the velocity of limb movement is held consistent by a rate-controlled device.

The importance of Isokinetic exercise include the following:

Increases the ability of our body muscles to actively remain constant for a higher duration of time.

It helps balance the metabolism of the body.

This type of exercise is important for athletes as it improves their performance.

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What are risks of doing physical activity?

Use specific examples.

Answers

Answer: cardiac arrest, torn acl or other muscles/ ligaments, injury of head such as concussion, etc.

Explanation:

Death ,broke arm ,broke back

A verruca is more commonly called a: a. mole. b. wart.
c. scar.
d. freckle.

Answers

Answer is b. A wart
Reason
That’s the medical name for a wart, usually on the bottom of the foot, like a plantar wart

Tim has been diagnosed as having oppositional defiant disorder; vince has been diagnosed as having conduct disorder. what is the major difference between these two boys?

Answers

The answer is Vince has engaged in more serious forms of disorder and rule violation than Tim has.

Conduct disorder refers to a group of behavioral and emotional problems characterized by ignoring others. Children with behavioral disabilities find it difficult to follow rules and act in a socially acceptable way. Their behavior is hostile and can sometimes be physically violent.

Conduct Disorder (CD) is diagnosed when a child exhibits a persistent pattern of aggression against others and shows serious violations of rules and social norms with family, school, and peers. Violations of these rules can be accompanied by violations of the law and can lead to arrests.

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Ruth has frequent pain in her joints and back? what type of pain is she suffering from?

Answers

Ruth must be suffering from arthritis. The swelling and pain of one or more joints are symptoms of arthritis. Joint stiffness and pain are the primary signs of arthritis; these symptoms often worsen with age.

The other symptoms may include-

Joint painBack painIntermittent pain

There are two main types of arthritis:

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is chronic inflammatory disease that damages your joints and has an autoimmune component.

It is known as osteoarthritis when the protecting cartilage at the ends of the joints deteriorates due to ageing and excessive use.

Both osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis can wreak havoc on your lower back's joints by inflaming them.

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_____ activates an area of the brain that is also activated during physical pain

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The anterior insula and the anterior cingulate cortex activates an area of the brain that is also activated during physical pain.

What is anterior insula?

The lateral sulcus, which is the fissure separating the temporal lobe from the parietal and frontal lobes in either hemisphere of the human brain, is where the insular cortex, also known as the insula or insular lobe, is folded deeply.

The insulae are thought to have a role in consciousness as well as a number of other processes that are frequently connected to emotion or the control of the body's homeostasis. Compassion, empathy, taste, perception, motor control, self-awareness, cognitive ability, interpersonal experience, and awareness of homeostatic emotions like hunger, pain, and weariness are some of these abilities. It is associated with psychopathology in respect to them.

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_____ is a fear of unknown people common in infants at about 6 months and increasing in intensity until about 12 months, and then declining in the second year.

Answers

Answer:

stranger anxiety fits this description.

During conception there are three stages. What takes place during the second stage which is fertilization?.

Answers

The sperm and egg unite following intercourse.

What are the stages of conception?

Sperm and egg transport:

To the location of fertilization, the sperm must be delivered. The semen develops a gel after ejaculation to shield it from the acidic environment of the vagina. The most mobile protected sperm pass through the cervical mucus layers that protect the uterus' entrance. After the sperm have entered the uterus, the sperm are propelled through the fallopian tubes by contractions. A few minutes after ejaculation, the first sperm enter the tubes. However, it's unlikely that the initial sperm will fertilize the egg.

Ovulation marks the beginning of egg transport, which terminates when the egg enters the uterus. The fimbriated, or finger-like, end of the fallopian tube glides over the ovary after ovulation. The egg is picked up and moved into the tube by the cilia's adhesive sites, which are present on the surface of the fimbriae. A forward motion is produced by contractions of the muscles brought on by the egg's movement and the cilia inside the tube. It takes over 30 hours to travel through the tube.

Fertilization and Embryo Development:

The egg sleeps for an additional 30 hours until it reaches the ampullary-isthmic junction, a particular area of the tube. In this section of the tube, the sperm and egg unite to form the fertilized egg. The fertilized egg then starts to quickly fall toward the uterus. The resting time in the tube appears to be required for the fertilized egg to fully mature and for the uterus to get ready to receive the egg.

After penetration, a number of things happened to prepare the first cell division. The term "zygote" refers to the single-cell embryo. The human embryo proceeds through a process known as mitosis, which involves several cell divisions, during the course of the following seven days. After this stage of transition, the embryo develops into a blastocyst, which is a collection of highly structured cells.

Implantation:

About five to six days after fertilization, when the embryo reaches the blastocyst stage, it emerges from the zona pellucida and starts the process of implantation in the uterus.

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In the setting of a head injury, hypertension, bradycardia and biot respirations indicate:______.

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In the setting of a head injury, hypertension, bradycardia, and bio respirations indicate Herniation of the brain stem

When something inside the skull exerts pressure on the brain tissues, it can cause brain herniation. Most frequently, a brain tumor, stroke, or head injury causes bleeding or swelling in the brain. Brain tumors may cause brain herniation as a secondary consequence, including brain tumors with metastasis.

A brain herniation may begin subtly with pupillary asymmetry (herniation), advance to altered levels of consciousness (reticular activating system compression), and proceed to the moribund stage of aberrant posture (diencephalon and brainstem compression), and then result in death.

Brain herniation is diagnosed via magnetic resonance imaging or computed tomography.

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A client is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram. Before the test, which is the priority nursing action?

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A client is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram. Before the test, the priority nursing action must be to determine a history of iodine or seafood allergies.

An excretory urogram, commonly known as an intravenous pyelogram, is an X-ray examination of the urinary tract. The doctor can examine kidneys, bladder, and the tubes that transfer urine from kidneys to the bladder i.e. ureters during an intravenous pyelogram.

To detect conditions that can impact the urinary tract, such as kidney stones, bladder stones, kidney cysts, or urinary tract cancers, an intravenous pyelogram may be employed.

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In what position should the hand be placed when splinting the wrist, hand, and fingers?

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Wrist is splinted in neutral position .

Many people with mild to moderate carpal tunnel syndrome wear a splint at night for a few weeks. The splint holds the joint in a neutral position. The symptoms are worse at night because your hand is more likely to bend while you're sleeping. It stabilizes your wrist in a straight and sometimes slightly bent-back position. Wearing a wrist splint minimizes pressure on the median nerve and allows you a period of relative rest from movements that make carpal tunnel syndrome worse.

Splint should be wore over the back of the arm. The metal insert should run along the inside of the arm onto the palm of the hand. The splint should not restrict any finger movements. Splints can be washed in warm water, but the metal bar should be removed.

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What do you need to know in order to work out safely?
A. Exactly how many calories you're planning to burn.
B. All of the rules of a particular sport..
C. Your own limitations.
D. Your coach's emergency number.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is C, your own limitations.

Explanation:

You need to know your own limitations if you're going to work out so that you don't burn yourself out.

C. Knowing your own limitations can be life saving.

The ___ records the heart’s voltage difference between the left leg electrode and a central point between the right arm and left arm.

Answers

Answer:

Lead III

Explanation:

....records from left leg

A pregnant client and family are planning a trip that requires a 7-hour car ride. Which education will the nurse provide about traveling in a car?

Answers

Traveling or driving during pregnancy get out of the car frequently to stretch and move about.

When you're not driving, you can also perform some exercises in the car, such as wriggling your toes and flexing and twisting your feet. Your legs' blood flow will be maintained, which will lessen any stiffness and soreness. Additionally, using compression stockings for lengthy (4+ hour) automobile trips can improve blood flow to the legs and reduce the risk of blood clots during pregnancy.

Driving during Pregnancy can cause fatigue and vertigo, so it's crucial to stay hydrated and consume natural energy-boosting foods like fruit and almonds while traveling by automobile.

Wear your seatbelt with the lap strap over your pelvis under your bump, not across it, and the cross strap between your breasts to keep the air flowing during driving.


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Which factor contributes to skeletal calcium loss by a client who has paraplegia?

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Decreased weight bearing is the main factor that contributes to skeletal calcium loss by a client who has paraplegia.

What is paraplegia?

Paraplegia is a cognitive disease/disorder where the individual loses his/her ability to move different parts of the body, i.e., the patient don't have certain motor skills and related functions.

This condition (Paraplegia) may derive in serious health problems because the individual loos muscle mass and suffers from different pathophysiological conditions, which can be associated with accidents and spinal cord injury.

In conclusion, decreased weight bearing is the main factor that contributes to skeletal calcium loss by a client who has paraplegia.

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A nurse notes late decelerations on the fetal monitor. What priority actions should the nurse take?

Answers

A nurse notes late decelerations on the fetal monitor. The nurse should Administer oxygen via face mask.

Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency and happen as a result of the fetus receiving less oxygen and blood during uterine contractions. When hypoxemia occurs, a face mask and 8–10 L/minute of oxygen are required. The supine position should be avoided since it reduces the fetus's uterine blood supply. To relieve pressure from the gravid uterus on the inferior vena cava, the patient should be placed onto her side. When a late slowdown is noticed, an intravenous oxytocin infusion is stopped. Due to increased uteroplacental insufficiency brought on by this medication's stimulation of contractions, the oxytocin would result in further hypoxemia. Although the nurse would record the incident, choice 4 would postpone the need for treatment.

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Question 4 of 10
When it comes to weight gain, faster is better.
OA. True
OB. False

Answers

True because your gaining waitstaff is a good idea to have you and the people who have you on your mind if

Do you think it's possible to remove sodium from your diet completely? why or why not?

Answers

Answer: I don’t think removing sodium from your diet completely is possible because if your blood don’t have enough sodium you can get Hyponatremia.

Explanation: Hyponatremia is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. Its symptoms are similar to those caused by dehydration. In severe cases, the brain may swell, which can lead to headaches, seizures, coma, and even death

Gwen eats huge amounts of food in a single sitting, and then vomits and uses laxatives to purge the excess food. gwen appears to suffer from?

Answers

Based on the given description, Gwen appears to suffer from Overeating

This is mainly due to the fact that she eats huge amounts of food in a single sitting and due to this mass of food into her intestine, her body cannot convert all the foods at once and she purges.

What is Overeating?

This refers to the process where a person eats too much food in a given time frame.

Hence, we can see that based on the fact that Gwen eats huge amounts of food in a single sitting, and then vomits and uses laxatives to purge the excess food. gwen appears to suffer from Overeating

She needs to cut down on her food intake if she wants to maintain a healthy level of her body's functions.

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What is the absolute minimum number of servings of fruits and vegetables recommended in a healthy diet per day?

Answers

According to a Harvard study, consuming a total of five servings of fruits and vegetables each day provides the most health advantages. A serving of fruit or vegetables for an adult weighs 80g.

Adults should consume at least 1 1/2 to 2 cups of fruit and 2-3 cups of vegetables every day as part of a healthy diet, depending on their age and sex. They are a wonderful source of dietary fibre, which can help to maintain a healthy gut and prevent constipation and other digestive issues. They are also a fantastic source of vitamins and minerals, including folate, vitamin C, and potassium.

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Victor has decided to start cycling once a week in place of his usual jog. Which principle is he trying to apply to overload his body?

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He is trying to apply the type principle to overload his body.

The principle of progression states that you ought to increase overload, which may be carried out by way of using FITT (frequency, depth, time, and type) while your body adapts to its gift ordinary. The specificity principle states that the most effective focused physical activities will enhance particular fitness desires.

The overload precept is a deceptively simple concept. To make health profits you have to overload the frame progressively. raise heavier weights, run longer, work out more days per week, and so on for you to offer sufficient pressure that the frame will adapt and get more potent, quicker, and extra effective.

An example of a program that uses the overload principle might be one that prescribes squatting a prescribed weight for 5 units for one week, shifting to squatting a barely heavier load for five units the following week, and step by step increasing the hundreds each next week.

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The home health rn is planning care for a patient with a seizure disorder related to a recent head injury. Which nursing action can be delegated to a licensed practical nurse (lpn)?

Answers

Action that can be delegated to a licensed practical nurse (lpn) is to Place medications in the home medication organizer.

An LPN performs tasks such taking vital signs, gathering samples, giving medications, maintaining patient comfort, and updating the nurses on the condition of their patients while working under the direction of doctors and RNs. They answer to physicians and registered nurses, and they occasionally manage CNAs. A licensed practical nurse's primary responsibility within an organization is to guarantee the security and comfort of patients.

The nurse should arrange the medicines by:

Ordering procedureData entry, interpretation, and collection.Determine the necessary doses.Fill method (e.g., select appropriate product, apply special handling requirements, measure, and prepare product for final check)

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What molecule most directly provides the energy you need for your muscles to contract?.

Answers

Answer:

Adenosine triphosphate, or ATP

Explanation:

What is the role of the bsn-prepared nurse in research, ebp, ru, and qi processes? How is this different from the msn-, phd-, and dnp-prepared nurse?

Answers

BSN-prepared nurses can work as participants of studies teams to coordinate and manipulate research, accumulate statistics, make sure the nicely-being of look at members, and present at meetings. In other phrases, they can take a principal function in the studies system.

Although nurse scientists on the doctoral degree and submit-doctoral degree design and put in force scientific studies, BSN nurses offer a vital function in research, appearing activity obligations along with making ready trial protocols and other trial-associated documentation. filing studies for regulatory approval.

EBP enables nurses to evaluate research so that they understand the dangers or effectiveness of a diagnostic check or remedy. The software of EBP permits nurses to consist of patients of their care plan.

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A complete listing of diagnoses for inpatients is typically recorded on the ________.
A. Face sheet
B. Nursing notes
C. Operative reports
D. Physician notes

Answers

Answer:

A. Face Sheet

Explanation:

A complete listing of diagnoses for inpatients is typically recorded on the Face sheet.

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What can typically be identified through an ultrasound in the 2nd trimester of pregnancy?.

Answers

Sex of the fetus, a full physiological profile, any disorders, diseases or mutations.

Which person’s theory believes that nursing encompasses a holistic (body, mind, and spirit) client systems approach to help individuals, families, communities, and society reach and maintain wellness?

Answers

Neuman's systems model believes that nursing encompasses a holistic (body, mind, and spirit) client systems approach to help individuals, families, communities, and society reach and maintain wellness.

Neuman's systems model:

The four nursing meta-paradigm concepts are delineated in the Neuman system model diagram (environment, person, nursing, health). Additionally, it can make it simpler for nurses to comprehend and apply the more general notions of nursing skills to real-world, everyday nursing experience. The individual is seen as a client or client system made up of innate qualities integrated within a particular structure in the Neuman systems paradigm.

A person, a family, a community, or a social issue is viewed as "a composite of variables (physiological, psychological, sociocultural, developmental, and spiritual) composed of a [central] core or essential survival factor structure and surrounding concentric defensive rings." The client system develops a series of defenses that are used as protection to interact with the environment called "defense lines." The typical line of defense can be interpreted as the climax.

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Mandy has been taking her temperature every morning with an accurate basal body thermometer. mandy is most likely using which type of contraception?

Answers

Mandy is using A. fertility awareness method.

Knowing when a woman is fertile and infertile during her menstrual cycle is known as fertility awareness. Utilizing fertility awareness techniques can help you prevent getting pregnant, get pregnant, or keep track of your gynecological health.Identifying the fertile days of the menstrual cycle is a step in fertility awareness-based (FAB) techniques of family planning, which can be done by watching fertility markers such cervical secretions and basal body temperature or by keeping track of cycle days. Just before your ovary releases an egg, your body temperature drops a little. Your temperature then increases 24 hours after the egg is released and remains elevated for several days. A woman's basal body temperature typically ranges from 36.1°C (97°F) to 36.4°C (97.5°F) prior to ovulation. It increases to 36.4°C (97.6°F) to 37°C (98.6°F) after ovulation.

Disclaimer

Mandy has been taking her temperature every morning with an accurate basal body thermometer. Mandy is most likely using which type of contraception?

A. fertility awareness method

B. withdrawal

C. oral contraceptives

D. hormonal implant

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What is a primary emotion?

Answers

Primary emotions are those that occur as a direct result of encountering some kind of cue. For example, if someone is late for a meeting that is scheduled, they may experience frustration or concern.

Answer:

These are emotions that are direct and more common.

Explanation:

Examples of these emotions are anger, and joy.

An example  is if someone, like family comes to visit you, you might be joyful to see them again.

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for both firefox and internet explorer the menu bar is hidden until you press the ________ key. administrative law is a source of american law that is comprised of statutes. TRUE/FALSE the most consolidated wine industries dominated by a few large producers can be found in: why are mechanical interlocks included on dual-element heating contactors? Why Napoleon Bonaparte died alone on an island (and what island it was?) a client is taking spironolactone. which change in the diet should the nurse teach the client to make when taking this drug? S 41. If US$ 1 is equivalent to $ 47.50, the value of US$7 in Jamaican currency is? The sampling distribution of the quantity: (n-1)s^2 / sigma^2 A. a t distribution B. a normal distribution C. an F distribution D. a chi-square distribution which of the following market indexes is likely to be rebalanced most frequently? consider the function f(x)={xif x T/F: when a user interacts with his computer, he interacts directly with the kernel of the computers operating system. . Fill in the blanks using the terms provided:PolypCicatrixMaculaPruritisVesiclesNodulePustuleHeel fissureCellulitisPsoriasisEczemaKeloidFuruncleScabies1. Sarah has always suffered from dry hands and feet. Now she is concerned that the soles of her feet are cracked. She has a ___ Heel fissure_.2. Little Joey has a small whitish colored ________________ on his arm. The white color is due to the presence of pus.3. Jenny has had her ears pierced recently. Now, she has developed a significant amount of scar tissue, otherwise known as a _______________________ in each ear lobe.4. Alex had undergone major thoracic surgery as a child. He still has the scar or ___________________ to show for it.5. Tom has a vascular growth inside his ear. This is also known as a ______________________.6. Natalie has a large birthmark called a _______________ on her left leg.7. Sandra took off her new shoes to examine the blisters on her feet. Blisters are a collection of fluid-filled sacs called _____________________.8. Irene has a rounded mass of tissue called a ________________ on her arm.9. Philip has a massive boil or _________________ on his shoulder. His dermatologist has prescribed an antibiotic cream to treat it.10. Cindy was brought to the emergency room with redness on her arm accompanied by chills and fever. The attending physician diagnosed as an infection of the deeper layers of the skin otherwise known as ____________________.11. Peter returned from a camping trip with a skin problem. He was itching, which worsened at night. He also developed scabs over the most affected areas. His dermatologist suggested a topical antibiotic cream for an infection caused by a mite. This skin condition is called ___________________________.12. Little Murphy is six months old and his skin has erupted on his elbows, neck, knees and face. He is itchy and uncomfortable. Murphy suffers from __________________.13. Gary suffers from severe itching that has resulted in pink patches on his elbows, soles of his feet, arms, etc. He suffers from _____________________ a condition characterized by itching.14. The Latin word for severe itching is ______________________. Tanya flew 2,299 miles the first year on the job. She flew 3,831 miles the second year. Tanya flew 1,510 more miles the third year than the first and second years combined. How many miles did Tanya fly the third year?Please help me!! Nerve impulses are electrical signals produced by which structure? A. lipid sheath of Schwann cell. B. plasma membrane of neuron. C. synapse How many pounds make a gallon? the hollow conducting sphere shown has a total positive charge q on its surface. no othercharges are present. how do the electric potentials compare at points 1, 2, and 3? what is the most striking difference between a physician's approach to a sick patient and a medical anthropologist's perspective? Can someone help me please Effective leaders perform both management and leadership work. Does ethical decision making get lost in the complexity of work?Reading to question response: The Management MindsetThe management mindset is a rational response to time stress. There are only twenty-four hours in a day and everything we chose to do, including our work, play, family obligations, social engagements, and spiritual development or reflection must fit into that fixed container. But what does the time stress do to create the management mindset through which we see our organizational landscapes as stages for performance, and concomitantly how does this stage impact behavior?Lengel and Larsen (2010) drew on Ray Bradburys science fiction classic Fahrenheit 451 to shed light on the impact of time stress. Bradbury envisioned a future world in which individual uniqueness was subordinated to a common governmental vision. Translating to our context, this was a future in which personal value systems would be subordinated to a collective value system. His underlying thesis was that by killing their spirit to lead, people could effectively be controlled. The desire to control is a central feature of the management mindset that we will address later. For now the interesting inference from Bradburys work is that this control can be accomplished by simply keeping people busy and denying them access to a time and place to just talk. His metaphor for this time and place was the front porch (Bradbury p. 56). Without front porches and under time pressure, people would behave in ways that might not be in their best personal or collective interests.Certainly the pace of change facing businesses today and the drive to do more with less is keeping people busy. The forty hour work week is a distant memory for most organizational leaders. In a real sense, business is busyness, so half of Bradburys formula for control is clearly in place. But what about the front porches? Lengel and Larsen (2010) visualized front porches as bridges linking individuals to their shared community or commons. Front porches represent a time and place where private interests could be weighed against public interests in a relaxed atmosphere where formal relationships and the stress of busyness were absent. On front porches, people could just sit down together on rocking chairs and offer an open invitation for neighbors passing by to join in conversation without agenda or purpose beyond just being togetherjust talking. Front porches provide a stage for individuals to explore their uniqueness and remember their roots and responsibilities, and their obligations to the greater community. This is the context for deep ethical/moral inquiry and self reflection that handicaps the tension between collective intentions and individual values and ethics. It is also the context for sourcing courage in leadership. In this way these porches are stages for Quadrant 4 exploration.What do front porches and the spirit to lead have to do with teaching ethics and developing ethical people? Organizations have both static and dynamic qualities (Lengel and Larsen 2010). The static qualities represent the objective reference frame that is created to facilitate communication and organizational learning. The dynamic qualities have been traditionally referred to as the emergent informal organization. Management work focuses on control and maintenance of the static qualities of organizations while leadership work is typically focused on the emergent dynamic embracing learning and innovation. The management mindset views that static organization as reality and the dynamic as an anomaly to be dampened or controlled. In contrast the leadership mindset views the dynamic organization as the natural state and the static as the anomaly. Effective leaders perform both management and leadership work. But busyness eliminates front porches, and it is on front porches that leadership work is performed. Therefore, the management mindset tends to dominate organizational life. when preparing a flexible budget, the level of activity blank______.