Reptiles do not have the ability to create their own heat, and instead, sit in the sun for long periods of time in the mornings to warm up. Mammals and birds, on the other hand, have the ability to create their own heat. Where do mammals and birds get the energy for this heat?answer choiceso from oxygen they breath ino from sunlight the animals absorbo from body fat that keeps all heat trapped in the bodyo from food the animals eat

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Answer 1

Reptiles do not generate their own heat and rely on basking in the sun in order to warm up.

Mammals and birds, however, have the ability to create their own heat. The energy to generate this heat comes from food they eat. Mammals and birds obtain energy from the breakdown of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats in the food they consume. This energy is then used by the body to create heat through metabolic processes such as respiration and digestion. This process helps to maintain the body temperature of these animals, even in cold environments. Heat can also be generated by burning stored body fat which helps to keep the body warm in colder environments. So, the energy that mammals and birds use to generate their own heat comes from the food they eat and the stored body fat.

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T/F lymphocytes reside temporarily in lymphoid tissue, then move to other parts of the body.

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True, lymphocytes reside temporarily in lymphoid tissue, then move to other parts of the body.

The Lymphoid tissue is the reticular connective tissue, they reside in the   temporarily in lymphoid tissue, then move to other parts of the body.

lymphoid tissues consist of cells and organs that make up the lymphatic system, such as white blood cells (leukocytes), bone marrow, and the thymus, spleen, and lymph nodes and the simplest lymphoid organs are the lymph nodes.

The role of lymphoid tissues is to particular function in the immune response and sometimes also play a central role in metastasis, which can relate to cancer.

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rank these organisms from the most difficult to destroy or control to the easiest to control. instructions choice 1 of 3. bacterial endospores toggle button bacterial endospores choice 2 of 3. streptococcus species toggle button streptococcus species choice 3 of 3. pseudomonas aeruginosa toggle button pseudomonas aeruginosa

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Bacterial endospores are the most difficult to destroy or control while Streptococcus species are easier and Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the easiest to control. This is because of the high resistance of bacterial endospores.

What are bacterial endospores?

Bacterial endospores are highly resistant and the most difficult to destroy or control. They are tough, dormant structures produced by a few species of bacteria that are highly resistant to physical and chemical stressors.

Streptococcus species are less resistant than bacterial endospores, but they can be controlled through a variety of measures such as antibiotics, immunizations, and good hygiene.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the easiest to control among the three given organisms. They are gram-negative bacteria that can be controlled with antibiotics or antiseptics, and proper wound care.

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in animals, the hox genes encode a family of transcription factors that are important for proper development of embryonic segments and are widely conserved in organisms. the figure below shows the embryonic segments in which one such gene, hoxc6, is expressed in the embryo of a mouse, a chick, and a goose. embryonic segments are counted from the anterior end. during the formation of vertebrae, the most anterior embryonic segment that expresses hoxc6 marks the end of the cervical (neck) vertebrae and the beginning of the thoracic (rib) vertebrae. all mammals have seven cervical vertebrae. the figure shows three embryonic segments labeled, from top to bottom, as mouse, chick, and goose. a key indicates white boxes represent no h o x c 6 expressed and shaded boxes represent h o x c 6 expressed. the left portion of the segments is labeled anterior and the right portion of the segments is labeled posterior. mouse contains 20 boxes; from left to right, 7 white and then 13 shaded. chick contains 21 boxes; from left to right, 14 white and then 7 shaded. goose contains 25 boxes; from left to right, 17 white and then 8 shaded. which of the following statements is most likely to be true? responses the chick and the goose have the same number of thoracic vertebrae. the chick and the goose have the same number of thoracic vertebrae. the most anterior expression of hoxc6 is the eighth vertebra in mammals. the most anterior expression of hoxc6 is the eighth vertebra in mammals. hoxc6 is expressed in the same embryonic segments in birds and mammals. hoxc6 is expressed in the same embryonic segments in birds and mammals. hoxc6 is expressed in the same vertebra at the anterior end of all bird embryos.

Answers

The correct answer is hoxc6 is expressed in the same embryonic segments in birds and mammals.

The figure shows that the anterior end of the embryonic segments in the mouse, chick, and goose all express hoxc6. However, the number of thoracic vertebrae can vary between different species, so the chick and the goose do not necessarily have the same number of thoracic vertebrae. The most anterior expression of hoxc6 does not indicate how many thoracic vertebrae are present, so the statement that the most anterior expression of hoxc6 is the eighth vertebra in mammals is not correct.

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in angiosperms, each pollen grain produces two sperm. what do these sperm do?

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In angiosperms, the two sperm produced by each pollen grain play important roles in the fertilization process.

One of the sperm fuses with the egg cell to form the zygote, which develops into the embryo of the seed. The other sperm fuses with two polar nuclei in the female gametophyte to form a triploid (3n) cell, which develops into the endosperm. The endosperm serves as a source of nutrients for the developing embryo. This double fertilization process is a unique feature of angiosperms and is believed to have contributed to their evolutionary success.

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If oxygen is unavailable, predict what happens to the citric acid cycle.
a. It stops because ADP levels increase in the absence of oxygen.
b. It stops because the supplies of NAD+ and FAD become depleted.
c. It continues because ATP levels are low, and low ATP activates enzymes of the cycle.
d. It continues because none of the reactions in the citric acid cycle require oxygen.

Answers

NAD+ and FAD supplies run out, which causes it to halt.

As no oxygen is required for any of the processes inside the citric acid cycle, it keeps going.

In the absence of oxygen, cells undergo fermentation instead of the citric acid cycle as well as oxidative phosphorylation after glycolysis.

Acetyl-CoA is created during the metabolism of glucose when oxygen is present. The citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) in the mitochondrial matrix is where it is oxidised to CO2 by decreasing NAD to NADH. This electron transport chain uses NADH as part of the OXPHOS to produce more ATP. The conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid can result in an excess of lactic acid in the muscle, which can cause lactacidosis.

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What stage of production are the cattle kept in large pastures? a. Cow/Calf Production b.Backgrounding C.Feedlot d.Both A & B​

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a. Cow/Calf Production stage of production are the cattle kept in large pastures

What does "backing cattle on pasture" mean?

Growing steers and heifers from weaning until they enter the feedlot for finishing is known as backgrounding. It is appropriate for farmers who do not want to finish cattle or keep a cow herd but still want to add weight to calves after weaning.

the part of the cow-calf industry that generates feeder calves for further feeding or grazing. Recently weaned calves gain body weight during the backgrounding or stocker phase of production, culminating in yearlings that are prepared for feedlots. Cattle are fed during the final phase of production until they achieve market weight.

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The nasal cavity extends from the ______ (superiorly) to the _______ (inferiorly).

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The nasal cavity extends from the nasal vestibule (superiorly) to the nasopharynx (inferiorly).

The nasal vestibule is the most anterior part of the nasal cavity, located just inside the nostrils, while the nasopharynx is the upper part of the pharynx that lies behind the nasal cavity. The nasal cavity is a complex structure located behind the nose and in front of the brain. It is lined with a mucous membrane that contains ciliated cells, goblet cells, and various types of glands. The cavity is divided into two halves by the nasal septum, which is made up of bone and cartilage. Each half of the nasal cavity contains three turbinates, or bony projections, that increase the surface area of the nasal mucosa. The nasal cavity has several important functions. It warms and moistens the air that enters the lungs, and it filters out dust, pollen, and other particles that can cause respiratory irritation or infection.

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what type of weathering would most likely be associated with coastal environments?

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Chemical weathering would most likely be linked to chemical weathering, especially as a result of saltwater's impacts.

The dissolution of minerals and rocks can occur as a result of chemical reactions when seawater is present when rocks and landforms are continuously exposed to sea spray, tidal surges, and waves.

As a result, new minerals may emerge or preexisting ones may become weaker, causing erosion and the development of coastal landforms including sea cliffs, sea stacks, and beaches.

Living things like mollusks and algae can also contribute to chemical weathering by secreting acids that erode rocks and minerals.

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How does military sonar affect whale behavior? Mass strandings of whales occur on beaches near military exercises where sonar is used, raising concerns about the effects of human-generated underwater sounds on animal behavior. Scientists are collecting behavioral data on several species of whales to find out how sonar affects them. Part A Using the graph, estimate the number of minutes of foraging per hour before and after the sound exposure. Then predict the effect of sonar on the fitness of blue whales. Explain your reasoning Breathing 50 5 100 150 Sound exposure 200 Foraging 03 20 40 60 8 100120 Time (minutes) Source: Goldbogen, J. A., B. L Southall, S. L DeRuiter, et al. 2013. Proceedings of the et al. 2013. Proosedings of the Royal Society B 280 : 2013.0657

Answers

Military sonar affects whale behavior by disrupting their natural behavior and potentially leading to mass strandings on beaches.

Evidence suggests that military sonar can have a significant effect on the foraging behavior of blue whales, as seen in the graph provided. Before sound exposure, the number of minutes of foraging was estimated to be around 5 minutes per hour. After the sound exposure, however, the number of minutes of foraging dropped to around 3 minutes per hour. This suggests that military sonar can have a negative effect on the fitness of blue whales as foraging time is significantly reduced, leading to a decrease in energy intake and potentially affecting overall health.

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On a Linux system using RPM for package management, which of the following commands would you use to search online repositories for an available Firefox package?
a. apt search firefox
b. yum search firefox
c. rpm -s firefox
d. apt-get search firefox

Answers

The command that you would use to search online repositories for an available Firefox package on a Linux system using RPM for package management is `yum search firefox`. So the correct answer is option B.

The RPM Package Manager, commonly referred to as RPM, is a package management system for RPM Package Manager an open-source utility. It is a command-line utility for Linux that provides functionality for installing, updating, removing, and verifying software packages. RPM is a part of numerous Linux distributions, including Red Hat Enterprise Linux, Fedora, CentOS, and SUSE Linux Enterprise Server. The `yum search firefox` command is used to search for available packages. `yum` is the primary command-line interface to the Yellowdog Updater, Modified (YUM) package manager.

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15. Which of the following proteins is the product of an immediate early gene expressed following mitogenicstimulation of cell-cycle entry? A.​E2F B.​Rb C.​Myc D.​G1-cyclins E.​All of the above

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The protein that is the product of an immediate early gene expressed following mitogenic stimulation of cell-cycle entry is E2F. So the correct option is A.

An immediate early gene is one whose transcription is induced rapidly and transiently in response to a wide range of stimuli. They are frequently responsive to growth factor signaling pathways and other environmental factors that regulate cell function. The immediate early gene products, on the other hand, can control the function and expression of other genes, as well as directly regulate cellular physiology. It is known that the expression of immediate early genes is required for cellular responses to many external and internal stimuli. Following mitogenic stimulation of cell-cycle entry, the protein E2F is the product of an immediate early gene expressed.

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Question 4 of 25 How are genes and proteins related? A. Genes and proteins are both made of DNA. OB. Protein are made of parts of genes. C. Both are made from amino acids. D. One gene codes for one protein. SUBIT​

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Genes and proteins related as D. One gene codes for one protein.

What is genes?

Genes are segments of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) that contain the genetic information that is passed from parents to offspring during reproduction. They are the fundamental units of heredity that determine the traits and characteristics of an organism. Genes are composed of nucleotide sequences that code for the production of specific proteins or functional RNA molecules. The sequence of nucleotides in a gene determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein, which ultimately determines its structure and function. Genes are located on chromosomes, which are long, thread-like structures made up of DNA and proteins. In humans, each cell typically contains 46 chromosomes arranged in 23 pairs, with one set inherited from each parent.

Here,

Genes are segments of DNA that provide the instructions for the synthesis of proteins. Proteins, on the other hand, are large molecules composed of long chains of amino acids. During the process of protein synthesis, the genetic information encoded in DNA is transcribed into RNA, which is then translated into a specific sequence of amino acids that makes up a protein.

Each gene codes for the production of a specific protein or a functional RNA molecule. This is known as the one gene-one protein hypothesis, which has been refined to the one gene-one polypeptide hypothesis to account for RNA molecules that are not translated into proteins. So, a gene provides the genetic code for the synthesis of a protein, which is made up of amino acids.

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many people dislike the taste of leafy greens such as kale or mustard greens. this makes sense, because these vegetables activate ____ taste receptors, which are also activated in response to plants that are toxic.

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many people dislike the taste of leafy greens such as kale or mustard greens. this makes sense, because these vegetables activate bitter taste receptors, which are also activated in response to plants that are toxic.

What exactly is taste receptor activation?

Taste receptor binding causes gustatory G-protein activation, intracellular Ca2+ release, TRPM5 activation, depolarization, activation of voltage-gated Na+ channels (VGNC), and release of ATP, which stimulates purinergic receptors on afferent fibers, resulting in taste perception.

It allows animals to avoid exposure by communicating the presence of poisons in meals, particularly unpleasant defensive chemicals contained in plants. TAS2Rs, a class of G protein-coupled receptors expressed on the surface of taste buds in vertebrates, begin bitter perception.

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how is oxaloacetate that is lost from the cycle (to biosynthetic reactions) replenished? (by what enzymes?) group of answer choices pyruvate carboxylase citrate synthase idh pepck pep carboxylase malic enzyme

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Oxaloacetate that is lost from the cycle (to biosynthetic reactions) is replenished by pyruvate carboxylase (first option) and PEP carboxykinase enzymes (fourth option) in the process called Gluconeogenesis.

Gluconeogenesis is a metabolic pathway where glucose is synthesized from simple non-carbohydrate precursors, mainly amino acids, lactate, glycerol, and pyruvate. The process occurs mostly in the liver and kidneys, but it can occur in other tissues as well.

Gluconeogenesis is the process by which oxaloacetate that is lost from the cycle is replenished. The following are the steps in Gluconeogenesis:

Pyruvate carboxylase converts pyruvate to oxaloacetate.PEP carboxykinase converts oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate.Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase converts fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to fructose-6-phosphate.Glucose-6-phosphatase converts glucose-6-phosphate to glucose.

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many body systems must work together to carry out many cellular processes. how do the muscular system, excretory, and the digestive system work together to maintain homeostasis?

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Many body systems must work together to carry out many cellular processes. The muscular system, excretory, and the digestive system work together to maintain homeostasis by carrying out many cellular processes, these three systems help to digest food, absorb nutrients, excrete waste products, and regulate fluid balance in the body.

The muscular system helps with digestion by moving food through the digestive tract. The stomach and intestines contain smooth muscles that help mix and propel food through the digestive system. The muscular system also works with the excretory system to excrete waste products from the body. The muscles of the bladder help to empty urine from the body.

The digestive system works with the excretory system to eliminate waste products from the body. After nutrients are absorbed from the digestive tract, waste products are sent to the excretory system to be eliminated from the body. The digestive system also helps to maintain fluid balance in the body. The excretory system regulates fluid balance by controlling the amount of water that is excreted from the body. Together, these three systems help to maintain homeostasis by regulating the levels of nutrients, waste products, and fluids in the body.

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a method of distinguishing strains that relies on determining the nucleotide sequence of select dna regions

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The method of distinguishing strains that relies on determining the nucleotide sequence of select DNA regions is: DNA sequencing

DNA sequencing is a process of determining the precise order of nucleotides within a DNA molecule. The four different nucleotides present in DNA are adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and thymine (T).

In DNA sequencing, a sample of DNA is broken down into its component nucleotides and then reassembled in a predetermined order. This order is determined through a variety of techniques such as electrophoresis, polymerase chain reaction (PCR), and sequencing.

Once the order of nucleotides is established, the specific strain of DNA can be identified. This technique is invaluable in the fields of medicine, forensics, and evolutionary biology, as it helps to distinguish between strains of bacteria, viruses, and other organisms.

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which three features are present in both plant cells and most bacterial cells?

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Both plant and bacterial cell are different, the plant is eukaryotic whereas the bacteria is prokaryotic, but there are many similarities between them like,

Both plant cell and the bacterial cell have cell wall for protection of inner organelle and also separates the molecular machinery of life from the outside environment, while allowing for transport into and out of the cell.

The bactrial and plant cell have DNA as their genetic material

The plant and bacterial both perform their own metabolic reaction and do not depend on other.

Both bacteria and plant cell, have both have vesicles and vacuoles.

They have cytoskeleton to provide support to the cell.

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what two nitrogenous bases have two ring structures and are called ?

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The two nitrogenous bases with two ring structures that are found in DNA are called purines.

The two types of purines are adenine (A) and guanine (G). Purines are one of the two major types of nitrogenous bases found in DNA, the other being pyrimidines, which have a single ring structure.

The purine bases are characterized by their ability to form hydrogen bonds with specific pyrimidine bases, which allows for the complementary base pairing that forms the basis of DNA's double helix structure. Together, the base pairing of purines and pyrimidines helps to maintain the stability of the DNA molecule.

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¿De qué forma explorar las diferentes ramas de la microbiología ha cambiado la visión que tenías de los microbios y su impacto en la vida del ser humano?

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Exploring the different branches of microbiology has made me realize how important and influential microbes are in human life.

Microbes have a huge influence on  mortal life. In the area of health, they beget and spread  conditions, but they also play a vital  part in abetting digestion and producing essential vitamins and nutrients. In terms of  husbandry, microbes are essential for the process of  turmoil and the  product of food.

Microbes are also important for bioremediation, which is the process of  drawing up  defiled areas. Eventually, microbes are important in the  product of biopharmaceuticals and other  medicines, which are used to treat a wide range of medical conditions. In short, microbes are incredibly important to  mortal life and play a huge  part in our everyday lives.

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Which of the following would be a sign of a melanoma? A.) asymmetry. B.) uniform coloration. C.) a size smaller than 6 mm. D.) regular borders.

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Asymmetry would be a sign of melanoma. So the correct answer is option A.

Melanoma is a type of skin cancer that affects melanocytes, which are the cells that produce pigment. The tumor is usually brown or black, and it may have a variety of shapes and sizes. Melanoma is responsible for the majority of skin cancer deaths, even though it accounts for just a small percentage of skin cancer diagnoses. According to the National Cancer Institute, the ABCDEs of melanoma are as follows:

A: Asymmetry: When one-half of the mole does not look like the other half, it is asymmetrical.B: Border: The border of the mole is jagged or blurred.C: Color: The mole has a mixture of colors or is an unusual color, such as black or red.D: Diameter: The mole is larger than a pencil eraser, which is usually about 6 mm.E: Evolving: The mole has changed in shape, size, or color, or it has begun to itch or bleed.

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What makes the reactants of photosynthesis and the reactants of cellular respiration similar? (1 point)
• Both involve ATP molecules.
• Both involve light energy.
• Both involve combinations of glucose, water, and carbon dioxide.
• Both involve combinations of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.

Answers

I believe the correct alternative is c) Both involve combinations of glucose, water, and carbon dioxide.

The formula for cellular respiration is: C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O. (glucose + oxygen -> carbon dioxide + water).While the formula for Photosynthesis is: 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6+ 6O2. (Carbon Dioxide + Water -> Glucose + Oxygen).

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One example of non-Mendelian inheritance is uniparental inheritance. Choose the definition of uniparental inheritance. One parent transmits all genetic information to all offspring. One parent transmits all genetic material to only half of the offspring. Two parents transmit combined genetic information to all offspring. Two parents transmit combined genetic information to half of their offspring. Select the examples of genetic material that are uniparentally inherited in sexually reproducing eukaryotes. nuclear DNA lysosome DNA mitochondrial DNA plastid DNA

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The definition of uniparental inheritance is that one parent transmits all genetic material to all offspring. The examples of genetic material that are uniparentally inherited in sexually reproducing eukaryotes include mitochondrial DNA and plastid DNA.

What is uniparental inheritance?

Uniparental inheritance is a type of inheritance where one parent transmits all genetic information to all of their offspring. This is opposed to the usual type of inheritance in sexually reproducing eukaryotes, where two parents transmit a combined set of genetic information to their offspring.

In this type of inheritance, the parent is responsible for contributing all genetic material to the offspring. The genetic material that is contributed can be different from the usual nuclear DNA that is inherited from both parents. Instead, in cases of uniparental inheritance, other forms of genetic material, such as mitochondrial DNA and plastid DNA, can be inherited.

What are the examples of genetic material that are uniparentally inherited?

The examples of genetic material that are uniparentally inherited in sexually reproducing eukaryotes include mitochondrial DNA and plastid DNA. Mitochondrial DNA is a type of genetic material found in the mitochondria of a cell. It is inherited solely from the mother's egg cell, and all of the offspring inherit the same mitochondrial DNA. Plastid DNA is another type of genetic material found in plant cells. It is inherited from one parent, either the mother or the father, depending on the species.

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1. what kind of isolating barrier is featured in the dobzhansky-muller model of speciation. is this a different kind of barrier than what you see in allopatric and sympatric speciation (disregarding polyploidy for the sake of simplicity)? explain. (7.5)

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The kind of barrier that is seen in the Dobzhansky-Muller model of speciation, a hybrid inviability barrier is featured, which is different from allopatric and sympatric speciation.

In the Dobzhansky-Muller model of speciation, two genetically divergent populations of the same species are isolated from one another geographically.

Genetic mutations accumulate in each of these populations over time, leading to differences in their genomes.

Hybrid inviability is a process in which the two parental species mate and produce a hybrid offspring that is unable to survive in its environment.

This type of isolating barrier is caused by genetic incompatibilities between the two parental species that result in deleterious epistatic interactions.

When these two populations come back into contact with one another, the hybrids that are produced are unable to survive due to genetic incompatibilities between their parental genomes.

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Some behaviors such as mating and caring for young are genetically

determined in certain species of birds. The presence of these behaviors is

most likely due to the fact that

A) birds do not have the ability to learn

B) individual birds need to learn to survive and reproduce

C) these behaviors helped birds to survive in the past

D) within their lifetimes, birds developed these behaviors

Answers

The behaviors such as mating and caring for young are genetically determined in certain species of birds. The presence of these behaviors is most likely due to the fact that these behaviors helped birds to survive in the past.

The correct option is C)

Certain behaviors such as mating and caring for young are genetically determined in certain species of birds. The presence of these behaviors is most likely due to the fact that these behaviors helped birds to survive in the past. Over time, many bird species have developed and passed on behaviors that aid in their survival and reproduction. These innate behaviors enable birds to adapt and respond to their environment with efficiency and precision. Birds that display these behaviors, such as mating and caring for young, are more likely to produce offspring, ensuring the survival of their species. The genetic predisposition for these behaviors is thus passed down to future generations, perpetuating the cycle of survival and reproduction.

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some species of dinoflagellates produce neurotoxins that cause fish kills and red tides T/F

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some species of dinoflagellates produce neurotoxins that cause fish kills and red tides is true.

Red tides are a natural occurrence brought on by an abundance of specific dinoflagellate species in the water, which causes an accumulation of algal blooms. The term "red tide" refers to an algal bloom that can cause the water to turn a reddish-brown tint. Although though not all dinoflagellate species produce toxins, those that do have the ability to release them into the water nearby, where they can gather in filter-feeding shellfish like clams, mussels, and oysters.

Those who eat these tainted shellfish may get symptoms ranging from slight tingling or numbness to respiratory paralysis and even death. Red tides can have ecological effects as well as negative effects on human health, such as reducing the amount of oxygen in the sea and creating dead zones where no marine life can survive.

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in 2007, mycologists agreed to classify all fungi into seven what it is ?

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In 2007, mycologists agreed to classify all fungi into seven major clades. A clade is a group of organisms that share a common ancestor.

How are fungi classified?

The classification of fungi is done based on their morphology, genetics, and biochemistry. The division of fungi into seven groups is done based on their DNA sequences.

Fungi are classified into the following groups:

Chytridiomycota, Zygomycota, Glomeromycota, Ascomycota, Basidiomycota, Deuteromycota

All these groups of fungi are called phyla or clades. These groups have significant differences between them. For example, chytrids have a flagellated stage, while ascomycetes and basidiomycetes produce spores inside specialized sacs called asci and basidia, respectively. Cryptomycota was added later, and it contains a group of fungi-like organisms that were only discovered in 2008.

Cryptomycota is microscopic, and they lack chitin in their cell walls. They also have unique genes that differ from other fungi.

Thus, in 2007, mycologists agreed to classify all fungi into seven major clades.

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1. Which of the following enzymes are not involved in galactose metabolism?(a) Galactokinase(b) Glucokinase(c) Galactose-1-Phosphate Uridyltransferase(d) UDP-Galactose 4- epimerase

Answers

Answer:

B, Glucokinase

Explanation:

Temperature-sensitive conditional mutations cause expression of a wild-type phenotype at one growth temperature and a mutant phenotype at another- typically higher-temperature. Imagine when a bacterial cell carrying such a mutation is shifted from low to high temperatures, RNA polymerase process of elongation complete transcription normally, but no new transcripts can be started. The mutation in this strain most likely affects what feature?

Answers

Temperature-sensitive conditional mutations cause expression of a wild-type phenotype at one growth temperature and a mutant phenotype at another- typically higher-temperature. When a bacterial cell carrying such a mutation is shifted from low to high temperatures, RNA polymerase process of elongation completes transcription normally, but no new transcripts can be started. The mutation in this strain most likely affects initiation of transcription.

The DNA sequence of an organism changes from one generation to the next due to mutations and mutations can be beneficial, harmful, or neutral. Temperature-sensitive conditional mutations are a type of mutation that causes the protein to be unstable and non-functional when exposed to high temperatures. At normal or low temperatures, the protein is functional or less stable, this type of mutation is referred to as "conditional" because it is temperature-dependent. Temperature-sensitive conditional mutations can affect transcription initiation.

RNA polymerase binds to the DNA promoter to initiate transcription, and this interaction is highly sensitive to changes in temperature. When RNA polymerase binds to the promoter at high temperatures, it can unwind the DNA double helix, exposing the promoter, and the RNA polymerase can start transcribing. However, due to the temperature-sensitive mutation, the RNA polymerase cannot bind to the promoter at high temperatures. RNA polymerase process of elongation complete transcription normally, but no new transcripts can be started, which means that the mutation most likely affects initiation of transcription.

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Restriction enzymes recognize certain DNA sequences and:
A. some of them will cut straight through, while others will leave an overhang at both ends of the cut.
B. cut straight through both strands of DNA.
C. will alternate between cutting straight through both strands of DNA and leaving some overhang at both ends.
D. cut through the DNA, leaving some overhang at both ends.

Answers

The restriction enzymes will cut straight through both strands of DNA is a statement that is not entirely correct. Restriction enzymes recognize specific DNA sequences and cut the DNA in a particular way.  Therefore, the correct answer is option A.

Some of them will cut straight through, while others will leave an overhang at both ends of the cut. However, some of them cut straight through both strands of DNA. In contrast, others will cut through the DNA, leaving some overhang at both ends. Restriction enzymes are nucleases that cut DNA molecules into smaller pieces. These enzymes play a crucial role in genetic engineering as they allow scientists to manipulate DNA molecules in the laboratory. The enzymes recognize specific DNA sequences, and this ability allows them to cut the DNA at precise locations. Some of the restriction enzymes cut the DNA straight through both strands, while others cut through the DNA but leave overhangs at both ends. The overhangs can be used to join the cut DNA fragments with other fragments through a process called ligation.

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Drag each label into the proper position to identify whether the given bone is paired (right and left) or unpaired (singular) as related to the ADULT skeleton. Incus Parietal Xiphoid Vomer Trapezoid Occipital Hyoid Maxilla Mandible Sacrum Atlas Nasal Clavicle Ethmoid Frontal Patella Navicular Humerus Sphenoid Unpaired Paired

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The proper position to identify whether the given bone is paired (right and left) or unpaired (singular) are:

Incus: PairedParietal: PairedXiphoid: UnpairedVomer: UnpairedTrapezoid: PairedOccipital: UnpairedHyoid: UnpairedMaxilla: PairedMandible: UnpairedSacrum: UnpairedAtlas: UnpairedNasal: PairedClavicle: PairedEthmoid: UnpairedFrontal: PairedPatella: UnpairedNavicular: PairedHumerus: PairedSphenoid: Unpaired

What is the difference between adult skeleton and a child's skeleton?

The primary difference between an adult's skeleton and a child's skeleton is the number of bones and their sizes. A newborn baby's skeleton consists of approximately 270 bones, while an adult's skeleton has 206 bones.

As the child grows, some of the bones fuse together to form larger bones, leading to a reduction in the total number of bones. In addition, the bones in a child's skeleton are generally smaller and less dense than those in an adult's skeleton, due to ongoing growth and development.

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