The three main components of the criminal justice system in relation to the administration of justice in the Republic of South Africa are-
1. The prosecution service -
-It decides whether or not to prosecute someone who is suspected of having committed a crime.
2. The presiding officer-
-The magistrate or judge who hears the case, and the judiciary (the courts) decide if the accused is innocent or guilty after having heard evidence.
3. The Department of Justice provides accessible and quality justice for all-
- The prison system, done by the Department of Correctional Services (DCS), makes sure that sentences are done.
Justice actually mean?Justice is the ethical and philosophical thing that individuals should be treated impartially, fairly, nice, and rationally by the law and by those who leader it, that laws should guarantee that no one do damage, and that if harm is allegedly occurring, corrective action should be performed.
Justice means to different people?Giving each individual what they deserve, or, in more formal terms, giving each person their due, is what is meant by justice. Nowadays, the terms justice and fairness are used in pace of other since they are join.
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What can one do when the Governor unlawfully declares a State of Emergence? Secondly, pick and describe a scenario in which the Governor can legally declare a State of Emergency.
Explain the requirements necessary for reasonable suspicion, probable cause, and beyond a reasonable doubt, and provide an example of when each is required.
What does it mean to sustain an objection? What does it mean to overrule an objection?
You are representing Kevin, a Firestone State Trooper, in a civil case. The plaintiff, Sarah, is alleging that your client falsely arrested her for an offense she did not commit. During discovery, Sarah presents only a picture of the arrest record from the database. Given that Sarah is not alleging that she was overtimed, what motion could you make during pre-trial and what grounds should you use for the motion. What standards would you have to meet for the motion to be accepted?
You are a Public Defender working for the Department of Justice. An Associate Attorney General, Who is your superior and helps manage the State Attorney's Office, contacts you and orders you to take more guilty pleas in case you have a good chance of winning acquittals so that they can raise the conviction rate. Is this ethical? What should you do in this situation?
What legal grounds exist for an appeal? What court handles appeals, and how do you file for an appeal to be heard by them?
Explain sentencing Limitations in the State of Firestone as set by both statutory and Constitutional law. What are some types of punishments that could be issued other than incarceration? Can these punishments be issued in conjunction with the max incarceration time?
Roger is forbidden by his mother to cross the street without an adult. One day, as Roger is walking down the sidewalk alone, a car swerves off the road and onto the sidewalk. In order to avoid being hit, Roger jumps into the street. Explain if Roger has broken his mother's rule by its content and by the intent of the rule?
Explain the difference between a lay witness and an expert witness. How should you introduce a witness as an expert?
Dani is being battered to the point of serious bodily injury by an unidentified subject; as a result of this, she draws a legally obtained weapon and open fires on them. Unbeknownst to Dani, she is walking slow and Deputy Xavier is in her line of fire (though she does not see them), and is shot by Dani. Deputy Xavier returns fire, killing Dani. Between Dani and Deputy Xavier, who is justified in their usage of deadly force? 1) Dani 2) Deputy Xavier 3) Both of them 4) Neither of them
Which of these is NOT a reason a judge should dismiss a juror? 1) Conflict of interest 2) Legal competence 3) Potential bias 4) Employment
Which of these questions would you be most likely to object to? 1) where did the crime occur? 2) was there physical contact between the suspect and the victim? 3) was it the defendant who shot the victim and disposed of the murder weapon 4) how many times did the suspect fire their weapon?
On what grounds would you object to your selected question in 14(a)?
What party can walve their presentation of evidence? 1) The plaintiff/prosecution 2) the defense 3) both the plaintiff/prosecution and the defense 4) neither the plaintiff/prosecution nor the defense
The first question is about unlawful declaration of State of Emergency; the rest are related to legal proceedings and ethics.
(1) What can one do when the Governor unlawfully declares a State of Emergence? Secondly, pick and describe a scenario in which the Governor can legally declare a State of Emergency.
If the Governor unlawfully declares a State of Emergency, individuals can challenge the declaration in court through a lawsuit. They can argue that the Governor exceeded his/her legal authority, and therefore the declaration should be deemed invalid.
(2) Explain the requirements necessary for reasonable suspicion, probable cause, and beyond a reasonable doubt, and provide an example of when each is required.
Reasonable suspicion is a standard required for police officers to conduct a brief, investigatory stop of an individual. It is based on specific, articulable facts that, taken together with rational inferences from those facts, provide reasonable suspicion that the person has committed or is about to commit a crime. An example of when reasonable suspicion is required is when a police officer observes an individual acting suspiciously in a high-crime area and stops them for questioning.
(3)What does it mean to sustain an objection? What does it mean to overrule an objection?
To sustain an objection means that the judge agrees with the objection raised by a party, and therefore the objection is accepted. The judge will usually instruct the jury to disregard the evidence or testimony that was the subject of the objection.
To overrule an objection means that the judge disagrees with the objection raised by a party, and therefore the objection is rejected. The evidence or testimony that was the subject of the objection is allowed to be presented to the jury.
(4) You are representing Kevin, a Firestone State Trooper, in a civil case. The plaintiff, Sarah, is alleging that your client falsely arrested her for an offense she did not commit. During discovery, Sarah presents only a picture of the arrest record from the database. Given that Sarah is not alleging that she was overtimed, what motion could you make during pre-trial and what grounds should you use for the motion? What standards would you have to meet for the motion to be accepted?
You could make a motion for summary judgment during pre-trial, arguing that there is no genuine dispute of material fact and that Kevin is entitled to judgment as a matter of law. The grounds for the motion would be that Sarah has presented no evidence beyond the arrest record to support her claim of false arrest.
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There are
creative commons license.
different types of
O A. six
O B. nine
O C. seven
O D. four
What is meant by the statement, "You can decide at any time to exercise these rights and not answer any
questions or make any statements"?
O Once the suspect has agreed to speak, he or she cannot later claim that they were forced to do so
O The suspect is always encouraged to change his or her mind and begin speaking with the police
Even if the suspect initially agrees to speak with the police, he or she has the right to stop the interview at any time and seek
legal advice
Once the suspect has made a decision to speak or to remain silent, that choice cannot be changed
Answer:
This is because you can invoke your rights at any time. This means that after invoking your rights, any incriminating statements you made after will be inadmissible as evidence. A person may still invoke their right to remain silent or right to an attorney even after they have agreed to answer the officer's questions.
the redrawing of district and precinct lines following the national census to reflect population changes defines which of the following terms?
The redrawing of district and precinct lines following the national census to reflect population changes is commonly referred to as "redistricting."
In this case option A is correct
Redistricting is the process of adjusting electoral district boundaries to ensure that each district contains roughly the same number of people, as required by the United States Constitution.
The goal of redistricting is to ensure that each person's vote carries the same weight, and that representation in government is distributed fairly among all citizens.
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the redrawing of district and precinct lines following the national census to reflect population changes defines which of the following terms?
redistricting
single member district
reapportionment
regional districts
A new goal of punishment that has emerged over the last decade is called justice. This process advocates a type of punishment that is designed to repair losses to the victim and the community while attempting to keep the offender connected to society.
a. retributive
b. restorative
c. reconstructive
d. restrictive
Restorative justice is the type of punishment that advocates repairing the losses of the victims and the community while simultaneously trying to connect the offender to society. Option (b) is the correct answer.
Retributive justice: Retributive justice is the punishment of criminals, which includes imprisonment or fines as a consequence of a crime.
Its goal is to deter the individual from committing crimes in the future by making him or her fearful of the punishment that would follow.
Restorative justice: Restorative justice, on the other hand, emphasizes repairing the injury and reestablishing communication between the offender and the victim.
This helps in maintaining healthy relations in society. Reconstructive justice: Reconstructive justice is a system that emphasizes improving society's overall framework to prevent individuals from committing criminal acts in the first place.
Restrictive justice: Restrictive justice is a type of punishment where the offender is confined and kept away from society. The punishment is in the form of imprisonment, probation, or parole, and it intends to ensure that the offender does not engage in criminal activities again.
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Which of the following is NOT one of the elements of a libel suit?a. Identificationb. Clear and present dangerc. Defamationd. Faulte. Injury
Defamation is NOT one of the elements of a libel suit. (C)
Libel is a type of defamation that consists of false statements that are published in a written form. A libel suit requires four elements: identification, clear and present danger, fault, and injury. Identification means that the individual responsible for the libelous statement must be identified.
Clear and present danger means that the statement was false, and it created harm or the potential to cause harm. Fault means that the person who made the statement either acted negligently or with intentional malice. Injury means that the libelous statement caused some form of harm or damage to the plaintiff.
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what the forensic lab plays within crime scene investigation?
The TRIPS agreement is based on the notion that inadequate protection of intellectual property the incentive for innovation. (Choose reduces or increases.)
The TRIPS agreement is based on the notion that inadequate protection of intellectual property the incentive for innovation reduces.
The TRIPS Agreement mandates that all inventions, whether processes or products, in all fields of technology be eligible for patent protection, subject to the usual requirements of novelty, inventiveness, and industrial applicability.
The TRIPS Agreement specifies how databases must be protected under copyright and guarantees that computer programs will be treated as literary works under the Berne Convention. It also broadens the scope of international copyright regulations to include rental rights.
The TRIPS Agreement established a minimum standard of protection for the intellectual property of other WTO Members that Members must offer. Copyrights, trademarks, patents, geographical indications (GI), industrial and layout designs, and undisclosed information (trade secrets) are just a few of the topics it covers.
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In 1873, the congressional law that officially discontinued silver coinage. became known to critics as the "Crime of '73."
In 1873, the congressional law that officially discontinued silver coinage became known to critics as the "Crime of '73." The act, also known as the Coinage Act of 1873, ended the circulation of silver dollars, half dollars, and quarter dollars.
It was a controversial law because it had long-lasting implications for the US monetary system and the country's economy. The Coinage Act of 1873 played a significant role in shaping the country's monetary system. It was instrumental in ending the bimetallism era, which allowed gold and silver to be used interchangeably as a currency. The law put the US on the gold standard, which meant that the country's currency was tied to gold.
The gold standard was a crucial factor in stabilizing the US economy in the late 19th century, but it had its drawbacks too, particularly during economic crises. The passage of the Coinage Act of 1873 created much controversy in the United States, and it is still considered a significant moment in US monetary history. Those who opposed the law saw it as a conspiracy to deprive people of their right to use silver as a currency. As a result, it became known as the "Crime of '73."
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In some cases, the sale of a property triggers payment in full of a deferred tax or special assessment. If this is the case, the tax may be paid by
all of these.
If a property sale triggers payment of a deferred tax or special assessment, the responsibility for paying the tax usually falls on the seller.
This is because the tax or assessment is typically attached to the property and not the owner. As such, when the property changes hands, the new owner inherits any existing tax liability.
The payment of the deferred tax or special assessment may be made directly by the seller, or the payment may be deducted from the sale proceeds before the seller receives their payment. This deduction is typically made at closing, where the seller's proceeds are calculated and paid out.
It is important for both buyers and sellers to be aware of any outstanding tax or assessment liabilities attached to a property before entering into a transaction. Failing to account for these liabilities can result in unexpected costs and delays in closing the deal.
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Your organization entered into an interoperability agreement (IA) with another organization a year ago. As a part of this agreement, a federated trust was established between your domain and the partner domain.The partnership has been in the ongoing operations phase for almost nine months now. As a security administrator, which tasks should you complete during this phase? (Select two.)answer choicesa. Negotiate the BPO agreementb. Conduct periodic vulnerability assessmentsc. Verify compliance with the IA documentsd. Draft an MOU document
The tasks that a security administrator should complete during the ongoing operations phase are as follows: Conduct periodic vulnerability assessments and Verify compliance with the IA documents. Let's discuss both tasks in detail below.
Periodic vulnerability assessments: Vulnerability assessments are conducted to identify and manage potential vulnerabilities within an IT infrastructure or system. It is a proactive approach that allows the organization to assess its security posture and improve it.
Periodic vulnerability assessments should be conducted by a security administrator to ensure that both organizations' systems and data are secure and there is no unauthorized access. The frequency of conducting these assessments depends on the nature and sensitivity of the data shared between the organizations.Verify compliance with the IA documents: The interoperability agreement (IA) is a document that outlines the terms and conditions of the partnership between the organizations. Compliance with the IA documents ensures that both parties are following the rules and regulations set forth in the agreement.
A security administrator should ensure that the partner organization is following the IA documents and all the security measures are in place to safeguard the data shared between them. In case of any non-compliance, the security administrator should take necessary steps to mitigate the risk and bring the partner organization back into compliance. Therefore, the correct answer is B and C, which are Conduct periodic vulnerability assessments and Verify compliance with the IA documents, respectively.
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which later amendment helped ensure the right to vote originally granted by the 15th amendment?the 24th Amendmentthe 23th Amendmentthe 22th Amendment
The 24th Amendment helped ensure the right to vote originally granted by the 15th Amendment.
The 15th Amendment, ratified in 1870, prohibits the denial of voting rights on the basis of race, color, or previous condition of servitude. However, many states continued to use various tactics, such as poll taxes and literacy tests, to prevent African Americans from voting.
The 24th Amendment, ratified in 1964, abolished the use of poll taxes in federal elections. This helped to remove a major barrier to voting for African Americans, as well as other low-income and marginalized groups who were disproportionately affected by poll taxes.
Therefore, while the 23rd Amendment granted residents of the District of Columbia the right to vote in presidential elections, and the 22nd Amendment limited the number of terms a president could serve, neither of these amendments directly addressed voting rights or helped to ensure the right to vote granted by the 15th Amendment.
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if people are to form authentic and rational attitudes about public policies and leaders they require which of the following?
If people are to form authentic and rational attitudes about public policies and leaders they require accurate and insightfully interpreted political information. The correct answer is B.
A wide range of activities that people engage in as part of political participation allow them to form and express their opinions on the world and its governance as well as attempt to influence the decisions that have an impact on their lives. Political liberty refers to fundamental rights that are necessary for the majority's formation, expression, and transformation into public policy. Information sharing, relationship building, acting ability development, and maintaining or changing conditions are some of the goals of citizen participation. Different levels of power can be used by citizens to accomplish these goals. The correct answer is B.
The question is incomplete, complete question "If people are to form authentic and rational attitudes about public policies and leaders they require which of the following?
A. freedom of religious beliefs
B. accurate and insightfully interpreted political information
C. narrowly framed interpretations of political events
D. continuous polling by public officials to find out political attitudes"
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Explain FIVE (5) investigative functions relevant to Dato ARahman case.
Answer:
The case of Dato ARahman involves allegations of corruption and abuse of power. Here are five investigative functions that would be relevant to this case:
Explanation:
Gathering evidence: This involves collecting and analyzing evidence related to the allegations against Dato ARahman. This could include financial records, witness statements, emails, phone records, and any other documents or information that could support or refute the allegations.Conducting interviews: Investigators would need to interview people who have information relevant to the case, including witnesses, whistleblowers, and anyone else who may have information about Dato ARahman's actions. These interviews could help investigators gather additional evidence and build a stronger case.Tracing financial transactions: This involves tracing the flow of money related to the allegations against Dato ARahman. Investigators would need to follow the money trail to determine if any illegal transactions occurred and who was involved in them.Analyzing data: Investigators may need to analyze large amounts of data, such as financial records or communications, to identify patterns or anomalies that could be relevant to the case. This could involve using data analysis tools or working with forensic accountants or other experts.Coordinating with other agencies: Given the seriousness of the allegations against Dato ARahman, it may be necessary for investigators to coordinate with other agencies or departments, such as the police, financial regulators, or anti-corruption agencies. This would ensure that all relevant information and resources are being utilized to investigate the case thoroughly.
true/false. maquiladoras are foreign-owned manufacturing plants allowed to operate in mexico with special privileges in return for employing mexican citizens.
The given statement "maquiladoras are foreign-owned manufacturing plants allowed to operate in Mexico with special privileges in return for employing Mexican citizens." is true as maquiladoras are foreign businesses that operate in Mexico with advantages in return for hiring Mexicans.
A maquiladora is a manufacturing facility or plant in Mexico. According to a 1989 decree, the Secretariat of Commerce and Industrial Development of the nation has given these corporations permission to operate. They are owned by overseas companies.
Maquiladoras were first created in the 1960s to combat unemployment and promote foreign investment. They typically operate close to the border with Mexico. Businesses that use the maquiladora model can benefit from a wide range of advantages. Typically, the manufactured goods are exported all the way to the Mexican border and beyond.
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examples of mala prohibita
Answer:
Mala prohibita are crimes that are illegal only because they are prohibited by law, rather than being inherently immoral. Examples include traffic violations, drug offenses, white-collar crimes, gambling offenses, firearms offenses, prostitution and sex-related crimes, alcohol-related offenses, intellectual property offenses, immigration offenses, and environmental offenses.
Examples:
Traffic violations such as speeding, driving without a license, and running a red light.Drug offenses such as possession of controlled substances.White-collar crimes such as tax evasion, money laundering, and insider trading.Gambling offenses such as illegal gambling and bookmaking.Firearms offenses such as possessing an illegal firearm or carrying a concealed weapon without a permit.Prostitution and other sex-related crimes such as solicitation and public indecency.Alcohol-related offenses such as selling alcohol to minors and driving under the influence (DUI).Intellectual property offenses such as copyright and trademark infringement.Immigration offenses such as illegal entry or overstaying a visa.Environmental offenses such as pollution violations and illegal dumping.Which of the following could be argued by the defendant in a product liability case based on strict liability to limit the dollar amount of the damages awarded to the plaintiff?
Answers:
a. The product was based on state of the art design
b. The manufacturer exercised all reasonable care in the manufacture of the product.
c. The user was careless or misused the product.
d. All of the above can be pled to reduce damages.
The defendant in a product liability case based on strict liability could argue that the user was careless or misused the product to limit the dollar amount of the damages awarded to the plaintiff. Hence, Option c is the correct.
What is product liability?Product liability is a legal term used to describe the liability of manufacturers and sellers for injuries caused by a product's design, production, and marketing. There are three theories under which a plaintiff can bring a product liability lawsuit: negligence, breach of warranty, and strict liability.
In a product liability case based on strict liability, the defendant might claim that the plaintiff was careless or misused the product. This can be argued to reduce the amount of damages awarded to the plaintiff.
Strict liability is a legal doctrine that imposes liability on a party without requiring proof of fault. In product liability cases, it means that a manufacturer or seller is strictly liable for any injuries caused by a defective product, regardless of whether they were negligent or not.
Hence, Option c is the correct.
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Title VII of the Civil Rights Acts of 1964 prohibits unlawful discrimination in the workplace. It is located in Chapter 42 of the United States Code. It begins at section 2000e. If a lawyer was going to properly cite this statute, what would the Citation look like?
paragraph 3 states that overcrow cities and urban spawn have put more peolple and wild animals close
The rapid growth of urban areas has resulted in many challenges, one of which is the increasing proximity between people and wild animals.
How would you support your answer ?As cities expand and new suburbs are built, they often encroach on the habitats of wild animals. As a result, animals such as deer, coyotes, and raccoons are often found living in close proximity to humans. This can be particularly problematic for both people and animals. Wild animals can be a threat to human safety, particularly if they become aggressive or attack humans. On the other hand, people can also be a threat to wild animals, either intentionally or unintentionally.
For example, they may kill animals that they perceive as pests or encroach on their habitats. Moreover, the increasing proximity between people and wild animals can also increase the spread of diseases. Overall, it is crucial for policymakers to find ways to balance the needs of humans and wild animals in urban areas to minimize potential conflicts and protect both groups.
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. The ______ test is used if the classification involves either a suspect class or a fundamental constitutional right.
A. minimum rationality
B. quasi-strict scrutiny
C. rational basis
D. prior restraints
E. strict scrutiny
which of the following is not one of the necessary factors that leads to a crime according to routine activities theory?
Routine activities theory suggests that for a crime to occur, three necessary factors must be present: a motivated offender, a suitable target, and the absence of a capable guardian.
These factors create opportunities for crime to occur, and their absence makes it less likely. However, the theory does not suggest that a specific individual or group of individuals is responsible for the occurrence of a crime. Instead, it focuses on the environmental and situational factors that create opportunities for criminal activity. Therefore, the identity of the potential offender is not a necessary factor in the theory.
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Which of the following is true regarding the changing profile of a police officer?
The percentage of women has not changed since the 1970s
The percentage of women has doubled since the 1970s but females still only comprise 12%
O The large majority of police officers are people of color
O Today only one in three officers is male
O Today almost one in two officers is female
The answer is option b. The percentage of women has doubled since the 1970s but females still only comprise 12%.
This statement is true regarding changing profile of a police officer.
What does the word "police" really mean?Police, a group of policemen who serve as the government's civil service. Police are generally in charge of doing law and order, protecting the public, and stopping, identifying, and looking into illegal activity. Policing is the term used to show these activities.
Three main duties of the police?Investigation, capture, and custody of those accused of committing crimes are among the main responsibilities of law enforcement.
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50 POINTS CAREER
Part I
For this part of the activity, you will be looking at two different author’s perspectives on workplace skills and creating a written response that analyzes, compares, and contrasts these viewpoints.
Browse through the text choices and select two to use for this activity.
Most Important Business Skills for Workplace Success
The Top Skills for the Modern Workplace
Communication Skills for Workplace Success
Specifically, in your response you should:
Compare and contrast the two authors’ differing opinions regarding the steps needed to obtain your desired job and/or the most important workplace skills for success.
Identify where the two articles/texts provide conflicting views or information and analyze whether you believe the conflicting information is based on fact or interpretation.
Cite any inferences that you draw from either/both texts on workplace skills necessary for success.
Be sure to cite any textual evidence that supports your claims, inferences, or thoughts on these two texts.
For this activity, I have chosen the following two texts:
Most Important Business Skills for Workplace Success
The Top Skills for the Modern Workplace
In the text "Most Important Business Skills for Workplace Success," the author emphasizes the importance of developing a wide range of business skills to succeed in the workplace. According to the author, the most important business skills include communication, teamwork, problem-solving, time management, and adaptability. The author suggests that individuals need to continuously learn and develop these skills in order to succeed in their desired jobs.
On the other hand, "The Top Skills for the Modern Workplace" article focuses on the top skills that are in demand in the modern workplace. The author identifies skills such as digital literacy, critical thinking, creativity, emotional intelligence, and cross-cultural competency as being essential in today's job market. The author argues that these skills are crucial for individuals to remain competitive in the fast-changing job market.
While both articles emphasize the importance of certain skills in the workplace, they differ in the skills that they prioritize. "Most Important Business Skills for Workplace Success" emphasizes the importance of soft skills such as communication and problem-solving, while "The Top Skills for the Modern Workplace" highlights the importance of technical skills such as digital literacy and critical thinking.
The conflicting views in these articles may be due to differences in interpretation and perspective. For example, the first article may be more geared towards individuals seeking to develop their overall business acumen, while the second article may be more focused on the skills required for success in a rapidly evolving technological landscape.
From these texts, it can be inferred that both soft skills and technical skills are crucial for success in the workplace. Employers are looking for individuals who possess a combination of technical and soft skills, and it is essential for individuals to continuously develop and improve their skills in order to remain competitive in the job market.
In conclusion, both articles provide valuable insights into the skills necessary for success in the workplace. While they differ in their prioritization of certain skills, they both highlight the importance of continuous learning and skill development. By combining both technical and soft skills, individuals can position themselves for success in the modern job market.
which of the following is a necessary qualification for anyone wishing to be presdient of the united states
Minimum age of 35 is a necessary qualification for anyone wishing to be president of the united states. The correct option is A.
A person cannot hold the office of president unless they were a natural-born citizen or a citizen of the United States at the time this Constitution was adopted. Additionally, a person cannot hold this office if they have not reached the age of 35 and have not lived in the country for 14 years.
The President must be a natural-born citizen, at least 35 years old, and have lived in the United States for at least 14 years, according to the Qualifications Clause in Article II, Section 1, Clause 5. Constitutional Conditions for Presidential Candidates in the United States, being a citizen of the United States by birth, to be 35 years of age minimum have resided in the US for the past 14 years. The correct option is A.
The question is incomplete, complete question "which of the following is a necessary qualification for anyone wishing to be presdient of the united states? A. minimum age of 35 B. member of congress C. Vice President D. in a primary election or party convention"
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Which of the following is NOT a group mentioned in the lesson that the bureaucracy is accountable to?a. Cabinetb. Judiciaryc. interest groups
Judiciary is NOT a group mentioned in the lesson that the bureaucracy is accountable to. (B)
The bureaucracy is accountable to the Cabinet, the President, Congress, the public, and interest groups. The judiciary is a branch of government, but the bureaucracy is not directly accountable to it; rather, it is accountable to the executive branch of government, which includes the Cabinet. (B)
The Cabinet is composed of the President and the heads of executive departments, who advise the President and collectively constitute the executive branch of the federal government.
Interest groups are organizations formed to represent citizens and to promote certain goals, and the bureaucracy is accountable to them because they can use their political power to influence public policy.
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by acting as ___ , the press allows citizens to pay more attention to what government is doing.
The public was to be served by the press, not the authorities. A democracy in which the government is answerable to the people depends on the press freedom, which is safeguarded by the First Amendment.
What is the press's function?Independent, reputable, and ethical media are the foundation of any democracy. They serve to educate, critique, and arouse discussion.
What is the name of a government that empowers its people?Democracy is a system of government in which the populace has the power to decide legislation ("direct democracy") or to elect representatives to do so ("representative democracy").
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what is The Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (SMCRA)?
The Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (SMCRA) is a federal law that regulates the surface mining of coal in the United States.
The law was designed to address the negative effects coal mining has on the environment and society, including erosion, habitat damage, and air and water pollution.
The law puts rigorous regulations on mining activities, such as the reclamation of land when mining is finished, and requires mining operations to get permission from the state in which they are working.
The law also stipulates that mining operations must pay a reclamation charge, which goes towards cleaning up and restoring mined-out land.
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assume that print todays date is a function that uses no parameters. write a statement that calls (invokes) this function.
Assuming that print today's data is a function with no parameters, the statement that calls this function is: print_todays_date()
How to write the statement ?In programming, a function is a block of code that performs a specific task. Functions are often used to break down a program into smaller, more manageable pieces of code that can be reused throughout the program.
When you define a function, you give it a name and a set of parameters (if any) that it takes as input. In the case of the "print today's date" function, it doesn't take any parameters, so you can simply write the name of the function followed by a set of empty parentheses, like this: print_todays_date().
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what is an example of a situation in which the government could use prior restraint against the press?
The prior restraint is the legal censorship or restriction on speech, expression, or other forms of public communication.
An example of a situation in which the government could use prior restraint against the press is a case of a national security breach or an invasion of privacy. Prior restraint is also used in cases of a criminal investigation. In this situation, if a newspaper or television channel has some valuable information about an ongoing investigation, the government may have to use prior restraint to stop the channel or the newspaper from publishing the information so that it won’t hinder the investigation process.
This situation usually happens in cases of political assassination or terrorism, where the government does not want the culprits to know the ongoing investigation process. Therefore, the government is forced to use prior restraint against the press to stop them from publishing sensitive information. The government also uses prior restraint to protect the privacy of individuals. If a newspaper or television channel has information about a person's personal life that could damage their reputation, the government can use prior restraint to stop them from publishing such information.
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george is walking down the street one day and sees two men across the street walking hand in hand
George seeing two men walking hand in hand is an example of a situation that may prompt a psychological reaction from him, either positive or negative, depending on his personal beliefs and values.
This situation highlights the issue of acceptance and tolerance of diversity in society, specifically with regards to sexual orientation and gender identity. In today's society, individuals have varying opinions and beliefs about what is acceptable behavior, and it is important to understand that diversity and individual differences should be respected and celebrated. This situation emphasizes the importance of cultivating empathy and understanding towards others, even when their beliefs and behaviors differ from our own.
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