The FIRST rule of safe lifting is to keep your back in a straight, vertical position.
Emergency medical services (EMS), often known as ambulance services or paramedic services, are types of emergency services that offer immediate pre-hospital treatment and stabilisation for serious illnesses and injuries, as well as transportation to final care. A first aid squad, FAST squad, emergency squad, ambulance squad, ambulance corps, life squad, or other initialisms such as EMAS or EMARS may also be used.
Maintain a straight posture with your back straight, chest out, and shoulders back. This keeps your upper back straight while allowing your lower back to arch slightly. Lift slowly by straightening your hips and knees (not your back). Maintain a straight back and avoid twisting as you raise.
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The most common nutritional concern in adolescence is____ Group of answer choices a. ADHD b. early maturation c. late maturation d. obesity
Obesity is the most common nutritional concern in adolescence because of the overeating.
What is the most common nutritional concern during adolescence?The nutritional concern during adolescence include problems of overeating and consistently making poor food choices, resulting in obesity. Many adolescents develop problems with unhealthy and restrictive dieting without meeting the minimum nutritional requirements that are necessary for healthy growth and development of an adolescence.
So we can conclude that Obesity is the most common nutritional concern in adolescence because of the overeating.
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Which statement would the nurse include in teaching about the psychodynamic theory of conversion disorder
The emotions associated with traumatic events are transformed into physical symptoms." is the statement which will be included to teach psychodynamic theory of conversion disorder.
What is Psychodynamic theory of conversion disorder?This states that the occurrence of some symptoms which aren't caused by organic diseases are usually as a result of psychological factors
Conditions such as traumatic events etc usually have an effect on the physical body.
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Review the 4 cases below. Pose the potential condition/s. Consider how a psychologist would analyze the situations. What questions would each ask? What would each be interested in observing? What type of treatment would each be likely to suggest? Choose from the treatment options listed in your book to develop treatment programs for these individuals based on their situations. Elaborate on your responses and include your reasoning for your answers.
Case #11 – Avery. A 32-year-old woman and a high-powered stock broker, Avery is frustrated by her inability to quit smoking. She has tried several times and has been successful for brief periods, but she always starts smoking again when her life becomes stressful.
Case #4 – Margo. Margo, 28, has been experiencing periods of extreme sadness which makes it difficult for her to cope with life, coupled with extreme anxiousness about literally everything. She experiences panic attacks about driving, going to certain stores, doing her banking, and various other daily life activities. These periods are followed by times where she feels she is bursting with energy and is on top of the world.
Case #1 – Edward. Edward, 53, has been having difficulty since a car accident which killed his wife and three children two years ago. He has difficulty in day-to-day activities, and has been questioning his very existence. He has stopped going to work, lost his home, and has been staying with his elderly parents, unable to return to the house that reminds him of his former life.
Case #10 – George. In his mid-thirties, George finds that he is having difficulty establishing an intimate relationship with the woman he is dating. He cares for her and would someday like to get married, but he is reluctant to make a commitment.
A. Case #: Case #11 – Avery
Considerations:
Possible Diagnosis/diagnoses:
Recommendations for treatment (include multiple treatment approaches):
B. Case #: Case #4 – Margo
Considerations:
Possible Diagnosis/diagnoses:
Recommendations for treatment (include multiple treatment approaches):
C. Case #: Case #1 – Edward.
Considerations:
Possible Diagnosis/diagnoses:
Recommendations for treatment (include multiple treatment approaches):
D. Case #: Case #10 – George
Considerations:
Possible Diagnosis/diagnoses:
Recommendations for treatment (include multiple treatment approaches):
Psychological follow-up is nothing more than seeking an emotional balance to deal with the work routine and life's obstacles.
A. Case #: Case # 11 - AveryConsiderations: compulsive smokerPossible diagnoses/diagnoses: nicotine addictionRecommendations for treatment (include various treatment approaches): follow-up and nicotine treatmentB. Case nº: Case nº 4 - MargoConsiderations: need psychiatric follow-upPossible diagnoses/diagnoses: bipolarRecommendations for treatment (include various treatment approaches): anti-bipolarsC. Case #: Case #1 – Edward.Considerations: need psychiatric follow-upPossible diagnoses/diagnoses: post-traumatic depressionRecommendations for treatment (include various treatment approaches): follow-up and anti-aciolyticsD. Case nº: Case nº 10 - GeorgeConsiderations: need psychiatric follow-upPossible diagnoses/diagnoses: affectivity disorderRecommendations for treatment (include various treatment approaches): follow-up and anti-aciolytics.With this information, we can conclude that During psychological counseling, what you should do is just be yourself without worrying about judgments or invasion of privacy.
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Which of the following amendments have been selectively incorporated to the states using the Fourteenth Amendment
The portions of the bill of right has been selectively incorporated to the states using the fourteenth amendment.
What is Bill of right?
These comprises of the first ten amendments to the U.S constitution and comprises of essential rights and liberties.
They were incorporated using the fourteenth amendment in 1868 thereby making it the most appropriate choice.
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hich of the following statements is true regarding the International Committee of Medical Journal Editors (ICMJE) guidelines
Individuals who do not meet the criteria for authorship but who have made a noteworthy contribution are normally listed in the acknowledgments section is regarded as the true statement regarding the International Committee of Medical Journal Editors (ICMJE) guidelines.
What are Guidelines?This is referred to a general rule or principle about how certain things are to be done in a given profession or workplace. There are different criteria for publishing based on International Committee of Medical Journal Editors (ICMJE) guidelines.
This criteria include listing those who made various degree of contributions to the work in the acknowledgment section which helps promote inclusiveness and hardwork thereby making it the most appropriate choice in this scenario.
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A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has mild preeclampsia and will be caring for herself athome during the last 2 months of pregnancy. This of the following statements by the client indicates anunderstanding of the teaching
I will alternate the arm I use to check my blood pressure.
Preeclampsia:During pregnancy, preeclampsia, a dangerous blood pressure problem, can appear. Preeclampsia patients frequently have hypertension (high blood pressure) and excessive urine protein levels (proteinuria). Usually beginning after the 20th week of pregnancy.
Pre-eclampsia is assumed to develop when there is a problem with the placenta, the organ that connects the baby's blood supply to the mother's. However, the exact etiology of pre-eclampsia is unknown.
Preeclampsia signs and symptoms, in addition to elevated blood pressure, may include:
More protein in the urine (proteinuria) or other kidney-related symptoms.Decreased blood platelet levels (thrombocytopenia)Hepatic issues are indicated by elevated liver enzyme levels.A terrible headache.Learn more about preeclampsia here:
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What is the usual number of posterior film sensor images taken in the parallel technique?
Posterior film sensor images using the parallel technique for maxillary posterior films the film is placed because it will be placed in the mouth on the surface of one being radiographed ,opposite side of the surface.
If it is placed on the cotton wool before the film is placed for upper teeth and then film is placed for lower teeth.There are some purpose for using this technique that is increased distance between the radiation sources and film to obtain a bundle of parallel rays.
It is 16 inches long receptor distance which is used with the paralleling technique. This is used to position an intraoral receptor in the mouth and maintain the receptor in position during exposure.
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A client is prescribed tamoxifen, 20 mg by mouth twice per day for treatment of breast cancer. The client reports to the nurse that she has worsening bone pain. How should the nurse respond
The nurse should respond in a way that Acute worsening of bone pain commonly indicates that the drug will produce a good response.
Tamoxifen is a powerful hormone treatment used to treat breast cancer that has hormone receptors. It can significantly lower the incidence of invasive cancer and cancer recurrence. Tamoxifen is used by certain people to reduce their risk of breast cancer.
A known side effect of using tamoxifen is the increase in bone pain. But, it is believed that tamoxifen works if you see acute worsening in bone pain. It is just a part of the process and ultimately the drug will produce a good response.
Therefore, The nurse should respond in a way that Acute worsening of bone pain commonly indicates that the drug will produce a good response.
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The nurse is aware that the newborn's circulatory dynamics during transition can be positively affected by which action
Early clamping(30-40seconds) of the umbilical cord changes circulatory dynamics during transition and is affected positively while late clamping affects it negatively.
What is Umbilical cord?This refers to a cord which connects the baby to the mother's placenta and helps to supply nutrients and other vital substances such as oxygen to the fetus. This ensures the fetus grows and develops under the right type of environment. It is usually clamped after birth and falls off after a while when healing is completed.
Early clamping of the cord will ensure that systemic vascular resistance is increased while on the other hand, late clamping will lead to low cardiac output and the baby will be at risk of asphyxic insult.
This is therefore the reason why early clamping is recommended and will affect the circulatory dynamics positively.
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The PACER Test measures cardiovascular fitness. The PACER Test measures cardiovascular fitness. True False
The PACER test measures cardiovascular fitness is a true statement.
In 1982, Leger and Lambert developed a multistage shuttle run they called the Progressive Aerobic Cardiovascular Endurance Run (PACER). The PACER was created to assess aerobic capacity, which can be described as having endurance, performance, and fitness. The PACER's goal is to maintain a certain speed for as long as possible.
This test may be performed simultaneously to huge numbers of children for very little expense. In contrast to many other tests of endurance capacity, the test continues until maximal effort is reached.
The level of practice and motivation might affect the final score, and scoring can be subjective. Since the test is typically performed outside, the environment can have an impact on the outcomes.
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A patient has questions regarding a recently prescribed antitussive agent. Which response by the nurse is the best
A patient has inquiries about a recent antitussive agent. The best response by the nurse is that it will reduce the frequency of your cough
Antitussives, commonly referred to as cough suppressants, are medications that reduce coughing. Although the precise mechanism of action is uncertain, antitussives are assumed to function by blocking the cough reflex arc in the brain stem's coordinating region.
The best medicine to try if you have a dry cough is one that contains an antitussive, like dextromethorphan or pholcodine. The best medicine to try if you have a chesty cough is one that contains an expectorant, like guaifenesin or ipecacuanha. taking this medication orally, with or without a meal, as recommended by your physician, typically every four hours
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Rapid assessment of mrs. bailey’s breathing reveals irregular, gasping breaths. you correctly identify this pattern of breathing as?
You correctly identify this breathing pattern on agonal, Breathing patterns consist of tidal volume and respiratory rate in an individual. An average breathing pattern is 12 breaths per minute and 500 mL per breath. Eupnea is normal breathing at rest. There are types of altered breathing patterns that are symptoms of many diseases.
What is breathing pattern?The normal adult, at rest, breathes comfortably 12 to 18 times per minute. Newborns, this value reaches 30 to 40 breaths per minute, that is, almost double that of an adult at rest and children can reach 25 to 30 breaths per minute.
With this information, we can conclude that Breathing rate is the number of breaths you take per minute.
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5. How can proper nutrition, rest, exercise, and following God's standards of morality and self-control help prevent disease
Proper nutrition, rest, exercise, and following God's standards of morality and self-control help to body to be overall healthy.
Nutrition is provided to the body by the ingested food. The macromolecules are broken down into micromolecules with the help of enzymes and absorbed into the circulation. Exercise is a key component to improve the metabolism of the body and muscle strength. The resistance training exercises increase muscle endurance. A balanced diet is necessary to avoid muscle protein breakdown. Essential amino acids are obtained from the recommended protein sources like milk-based whey protein, soy-based isolate, and egg protein. Following proper nutrition, exercise and self-control lead to a healthier life.
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Chronic alcohol abuse will not only cause an individual to develop liver damage, but may also lead to cerebellar damage. Damage to the cerebellum will cause the individual to:
Damage to the cerebellum will cause the individual to appear clumsy and uncoordinated.
What happens if the cerebellum is damaged?
The coordination of voluntary motor action, balance and equilibrium, and muscle tone are all functions of the cerebellum. It is situated toward the rear of the brain, just above the brain stem. Compared to the frontal and temporal lobes and the brain stem, it is relatively trauma-resistant.
Slow and uncoordinated motions are the outcome of cerebellar damage. When walking, people with cerebellar abnormalities frequently sway and stumble.
A cerebellar injury can cause the following symptoms:
loss of coordination of motor movement (asynergia)inability to judge distance and when to stop (dysmetria)inability to perform rapid alternating movements (adiadochokinesia)movement tremors (intention tremor)staggering, wide-based walking (ataxic gait)tendency to fallweak muscles (hypotonia)slur (nystagmus)Learn more about cerebellum injury here:
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Which stage(s) are most appropriate and effective for improving health and wellness, as well as promoting a healthy body weight for most weight-loss clients and those new to exercise
A Final statement or concluding statement
Stages 1 & 2 are most appropriate and effective for improving health and wellness, as well as promoting a healthy body weight for most weight-loss clients and those new to exercise.
How stage training can improve cardiorespiratory endurance?Overloading is required if the objective is to assist clients enhance their stamina and muscle endurance. The body must be subjected to a task that tests its current level of fitness. This increased exertion will result in exhaustion and, with correct recovery, will eventually result in cardiorespiratory improvements.
If the workloads are of sufficient size (i.e., somewhat more than the body's existing capabilities), the body must adapt in order to be ready for the next time such a demand is placed on the body.
With this in mind, it is clear to see that cardiorespiratory exercise is much more than running at a moderate speed for lengthy periods of time.
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Under general anesthesia, a provider excises one chalazion from each upper eyelid. What cptâ® and icd-10-cm codes are reported?
Although chalazion surgery is not regarded as serious surgery, anaesthetic is used throughout the procedure. You might have a local anaesthetic that only affects the region around your eyes or a general anaesthetic that puts you to sleep for the surgery, depending on your health requirements, age, and medical history.
Whether a single or several chalazia are removed under these circumstances, the codeCPT 67808 is utilised for excisions requiring general anaesthesia and/or hospitalisation. Similarly for icd-10-cm codes are as follows-
For chalazion right upper eyelid ICD-10-CM Code H00.11
For chalazion, left upper eyelid, ICD-10-CM code H00.14
Aftercare is involved post surgery, antibiotics are prescribed. Steroid ointment is given in some cases
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Which is an acceptable method of selecting an appropriately sized oropharyngeal airway?.
By measuring the anatomical landmark from the earlobe to the nose of the patient.
The oropharyngeal airway is an intraoral J-shaped medical device, which is inserted in the mouth of a patient who is unconscious like in paralysis condition etc. It is important to select the appropriate size of the oropharyngeal airway tube before inserting it into the patient's mouth to avoid any complications. The airway device prevents the closure of the epiglottis and opens the mouth for breathing. It is mainly used when the patient is at respiratory obstruction by the formation of excessive mucous or blockage of the airway by the tongue.
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Online Engagement with Surgical Treatments for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia: Are Minimally Invasive Surgical Therapies Outpacing the Gold Standard
No minimally Invasive Surgical Therapies are not outpacing the Gold Standard.
Prostatic HyperplasiaBenign prostatic hyperplasia, or BPH, is an enlargement of the prostate gland in males that is not a malignant condition. Additionally known as benign prostatic blockage or benign prostatic obstruction, benign prostatic hyperplasia has these names. As a man ages, the prostate grows in two distinct phases. Early in adolescence, the prostate doubles in size, which is the first sign. Nearly all of a man's life is spent in the second phase of growth, which starts at age 25. With the second growth phase comes benign prostatic hyperplasia quite frequently. The urethra is pressed up against and compressed as the prostate enlarges. Intensification of the bladder wall When the bladder eventually becomes weak and can no longer entirely empty, some pee may remain in the bladder.
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which method of anesthesia is likley to be used for a 45-year-old alcohol-intoxicatted man closed reduction and cast application of a fractured forearm
The axillary block method of anesthesia is likely to be used for a 45-year-old alcohol-intoxicated man with closed reduction and cast application of a fractured forearm.
An axillary block is a term used for the axillary brachial plexus block. The terminal branches of the brachial plexus are rendered unconscious by the axillary block, a peripheral nerve block that is done in the axilla. Surgery on the forearm, wrist, hand, and fingers uses axillary blocks for anesthetic and/or analgesia.
The ventral rami of the upper thoracic and lower cervical nerve roots combine to produce the brachial plexus. The brachial plexus nerves pass via the neck, collarbone, and arm before entering the arm.
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What is the correct volume of air to deliver during BVM
ventilations?
Select the correct answer to this question.
100 mL
700 mL
1,600 mL
The correct volume of air to deliver during BVM ventilations is = 1,600 mL. That is option C.
What is BVM ventilations?BVM ventilations also called Bag-valve-mask (BVM) ventilation is defined as the emergency process that helps in the oxygenation and ventilation of a patient until another means for breathing is created for the patient.
According to the American Heart Association, a normal adult BVM holds about 1.5 L of air – almost three times the recommended 600 mL tidal volume for an adult patient.
Therefore, the correct volume of air to deliver during BVM ventilations is = 1,600 mL.
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The nurse is assessing a newborn who appears healthy and at term. Which assessment finding of the feet does the nurse predict to observe to confirm the status of at-term birth
Creases on two-thirds of the foot will confirm the status of at-term birth.
What is the significance of the foot in a new-born?The inspection of a newborn must include a thorough check of the feet. The newborn foot, which has between 26 and 28 bones, is complicated despite its relatively small size. Numerous malformations can be seen when both feet are simultaneously observed.
It is important to look closely at the skin for any unique folds or wrinkles that could result from different foot deviations. On one side of the foot, the skin may be abnormally loose and excessively skinfold, while other portions of the skin may be abnormally stiff, indicating additional tension on the skin.
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What fitness rating indicates that you have the level of fitness needed to live a full, healthy life
Answer:
Between 20 and 25
Explanation:
Your BMI is the percentage of fat in your body in relation to the lean muscle mass and is one of the best indicators of fitness levels in healthy individuals. If your BMI falls between 20 and 25, then you are healthy with appropriate fat and muscle mass.
An elderly client with diabetes comes to the clinic in winter reporting numbness of the feet. After removing the client's shoes and socks, the nurse notes that the feet are ice cold to the touch and appear waxy and pale. What is the appropriate nursing action
Appropriate nursing action for diabetic feet is to Wash the client's lower legs in a warm water bath.
Throughout the body, damaged nerves can result from high blood sugar (glucose). The nerves in the legs and feet are most frequently damaged by diabetic neuropathy. Diabetic neuropathy symptoms can range from numbness to discomfort in the hands, feet, and legs, depending on which nerves are impacted.Diabetes and peripheral neuropathy are conditions that cause nerve damage. It causes numbness, loss of feeling, and occasionally discomfort in your hands, legs, or feet. It is the most frequent side effect of diabetes.Every day, wash your feet in warm water—not hot water. Don't let your feet soak. Apply moisturizer to the top and bottom of your dry feet, but avoid the space between your toes as this could cause an infection. Avoid walking barefoot.learn more about diabetic feet here: https://brainly.com/question/9293707
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A client is admitted for a right below-knee amputation (BKA) as a result of poorly managed diabetes mellitus. Which complication is the client at most risk for after surgery
The client is at risk of developing surgical site infection post the right below-knee amputation (BKA) as a result of poorly managed diabetes mellitus.
Diabetes is a type of disease that leads to a rise in blood glucose levels. Amputation in the lower extremity of the body is extremely common in an individual with unregulated diabetes. This is because diabetes may result in diabetic neuropathy or peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Narrowing of the arteries in the PAD causes the development of ulcers and infections in the lower limbs, which ultimately causes amputation. Diabetes mellitus reduces the wound healing power and therefore delays the surgical site to recovery. This makes the client prone to surgical site infections.
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A group of occupational-related lung diseases characterized by inflammation, infection, and bronchitis, caused by inhaling substances in the workplace is called __________________.
A group of occupational-related lung diseases characterized by inflammation, infection, and bronchitis, caused by inhaling substances in the workplace is called Occupational asthma.
Occupational asthma:A specific form of asthma called occupational asthma is brought on by inhaled irritant exposure during work. Since occupational asthma frequently has a reversible course, avoiding the triggers may cause the symptoms to go away.
Inhaling compounds referred to as triggers might cause asthma symptoms in people with sensitive airways. Several industrial chemicals can cause asthma symptoms, which can result in occupational asthma. The most frequent triggers include chemicals, fungi, animal dander, wood dust, grain dust, or grain dust.
Symptoms of occupational asthma include wheezing, shortness of breath, runny nose, nasal congestion, eye discomfort, and tightness in the chest. When exposed to the irritant(s) at work, these symptoms may develop worse.
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Erikson's final adult developmental life stage involves reevaluating what we have done in our lives. If we feel we have done well, we have a sense of integrity. Otherwise, we have a sense of
i think so it might be i link so it might be
In recent years, the role of ______, the study of the distribution of disease, impairment, and general health status across a population, has expanded to include tracking bioterrorism.
In recent years, the role of epidemiology, the study of the distribution of disease, impairment, and general health status across a population, has expanded to include tracking bioterrorism.
What is epidemiology?Epidemiology can simply be defined as the branch of medicine which deals with the incidence, distribution, and possible control of diseases and other factors relating to health.
So therefore, in recent years, the role of epidemiology, the study of the distribution of disease, impairment, and general health status across a population, has expanded to include tracking bioterrorism.
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When a nurse commits a crime outside of the workplace, the BON's concern relates to whether the nurse may
When a nurse commits a crime outside of the workplace, the BON's concern relates to whether the nurse may perform the same act in the workplace.
Who is a Nurse?
This is referred to as healthcare professionals who are specialized in taking care of the sick and injured ones.
The concern is whether the nurses will act in such manner if in the workplace so as to ascertain ability to provide safe care to patients.
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When an applicant for a nursing license receives a final conviction for first degree murder, the NPA mandates that the applicant
When an applicant for a nursing license receives a final conviction for first degree murder, the NPA mandates that the applicant will not be eligible to apply for an initial nursing license until five years after being released from community supervision or parole.
A nurse practice act (NPA) was passed into law by all states and territories, and it creates a board of nursing (BON) with the power to create administrative rules or regulations to specify or explain the law. Rules and regulations must adhere to the NPA and are not permitted to stray from it. The NPA was created to control the profession and safeguard the populace from practitioners who pose a threat to the welfare, safety, and health of those living under its state board's purview. Conduct that gives rise to suspicions that a nurse's ability to practice is hampered by chemical dependency or drug or alcohol addiction is classified as NPA.learn more about NPA here: https://brainly.com/question/26460809
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which clinical manifestation is characterized by eczematous eruption with well defined geometric margins
According to the research, contact dermatitis manifestation is characterized by eczematous eruption with well defined geometric margins.
What is contact dermatitis?It is an inflammatory reaction of the skin to an irritant that has a toxic effect on the tissue.
It is highly prevalent in the health area, it presents with an eczematous skin rash that produces great itching and discomfort.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, contact dermatitis manifestation is characterized by eczematous eruption with well defined geometric margins.
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