The gas tank has an inner diameter of 1.50 m and a wall thickness of 25 mm. If it is made from A-36 steel and the tank is pressured to 5 MPa, determine the factor of safety against yielding using (a) the maximum-shear-stress theory, and (b) the maximum-distortion-energy theory.

The magnitude of the response at 70Hz is approximately 1.075 x 10⁹.

To find the magnitude of the response at 70Hz, we need to substitute the given values into the given frequency response equation and solve for the magnitude.

First, we can simplify the expression as follows:

vout/vin = jωl / (( jω)2 jωr l)

vout/vin = 1 / (-ω²r l + jωl)

Substituting l = 2H and r = 1ω:

vout/vin = 1 / (-ω³ * 2 + jω * 2)

Now we can find the magnitude of the response at 70Hz by substituting ω = 2πf = 2π*70 = 440π:

|vout/vin| = |1 / (-ω³ * 2 + jω * 2)|

|vout/vin| = |1 / (-440π)³ * 2 + j(440π) * 2|

|vout/vin| = |1 / (-1075036000 + j3088.77)|

To find the magnitude, we need to square both the real and imaginary parts, sum them, and take the square root:

|vout/vin| = sqrt((-1075036000)² + 3088.77²)

|vout/vin| = 1075036000.23

Therefore, the magnitude of the response at 70Hz is approximately 1.075 x 10⁹.

Learn more about magnitude

brainly.com/question/14452091

#SPJ11

The unit vector, u. in the direction of F is approximately (0.967i, 0.080j, 0.241k).

A unit vector is a vector that has magnitude of 1. It is also known as the direction vector.

We know that to find the unit vector we need to divide the force vector by its magnitude. as,

[tex]u=\frac{F}{|F|}[/tex]

Given, [tex]f_{x}=12i[/tex]

           [tex]f_{y}=1j[/tex]

           [tex]f_{z}=3k[/tex]

[tex]|F|=\sqrt{f_{x} ^{2}+f_{y} ^{2}+f_{z} ^{2} }[/tex]

Now, the magnitude of the force vector can be calculated using the given components as:

|F| = √(12² + 1² + 3²)

|F| = √(154)

|F| ≈ 12.4

So, the unit vector in the direction of F can be now obtained by dividing the force vector by the magnitude calculated i.e., 12.4.:

u = F / |F|

∴[tex]u=\frac{f_{x} }{|F|} i+\frac{f_{y} }{|F|}j+\frac{f_{z} }{|F|}k[/tex]

∴u = (12/12.4)i + (1/12.4)j + (3/12.4)k

 u ≈ 0.967i + 0.080j + 0.241k

Therefore, the unit vector u in the direction of F is approximately u = (0.967, 0.080, 0.241).

Learn more about unit vector here

brainly.com/question/28028700

#SPJ4

The magnitude of the acceleration a can be expressed in terms of h and T as a = 2h/T^2.

For part (a), the sketch of the velocity v(t) of the elevator would show an initial slope that increases with time due to the acceleration a. Then, after time T, the slope of the graph would become constant, indicating that the elevator is moving at a constant velocity for a time interval of 4T. Finally, the slope of the graph would decrease with time due to the braking acceleration a until the elevator comes to a stop at the sixth floor.
For part (b), we can use the kinematic equations to find the value of a in terms of h and T. Using the equation v = u + at, where u is the initial velocity (zero in this case), we can find the velocity of the elevator after the acceleration phase:
v = at
Using the equation s = ut + 1/2at^2, we can find the distance traveled during the acceleration phase:
h/2 = 1/2at^2
Rearranging the equation, we get:
a = 2h/T^2
Therefore, the magnitude of the acceleration a can be expressed in terms of h and T as a = 2h/T^2.

To know more about Acceleration visit:

https://brainly.com/question/12550364

#SPJ11

(A) The maximum acceleration of the pistons is 929.7 cm/s^2, directed opposite to the displacement, (B) The maximum speed of the pistons is 597.4 cm/s.

The maximum acceleration of the pistons can be calculated using the formula :- a _ max = -4π²f²A

where f is the frequency of oscillation, A is the amplitude of motion, and the negative sign indicates that the acceleration is in the opposite direction of the displacement.

To find the frequency of oscillation, we can first convert the engine speed from rpm to Hz:

f = 1500 rpm / 60 s/min

f = 25 Hz

Substituting the given values, we get:

a_max = -4π²(25 Hz)²(3.8 cm)

a_max = -929.7 cm/s²

The maximum speed of the pistons can be found using the formula:- v_max = 2πfA

Substituting the given values, we get:

v_max = 2π(25 Hz)(3.8 cm)

v_max = 597.4 cm/s

To know more about displacement refer here :-

https://brainly.com/question/28609499#

#SPJ11

The minimum force necessary to create the desired torque is 66.7 N. To calculate the minimum force necessary to create a torque of 10 N⋅m with a 15 cm wrench, we need to use the formula: Torque = Force x Distance

Rearranging this equation to solve for Force, we get: Force = Torque / Distance

Substituting the given values, we get: Force = 10 N⋅m / 0.15 m = 66.7 N

Therefore, the minimum force necessary to create the desired torque is 66.7 N. This means the mechanic needs to apply a force of at least 66.7 N on the wrench in order to tighten the spark plug to the recommended torque of 10 N⋅m.

To know more about torque, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/31323759#

#SPJ11

It will take approximately 0.0254 seconds for a pulse to travel from one support to the other in this piano string under these conditions.

The speed of a pulse traveling through a string can be determined by the equation:

v = sqrt(T/μ)

where v is the speed of the pulse, T is the tension in the string, and μ is the linear mass density of the string (mass per unit length). To solve for the time it takes a pulse to travel from one support to the other, we need to first calculate the linear mass density of the string:

μ = m/L

where m is the mass of the string and L is its length. Plugging in the given values, we get:

μ = 10.0 g / 2.0 m = 5.0 g/m

Next, we can calculate the speed of the pulse:

v = sqrt(310 N / 5.0 g/m) ≈ 78.5 m/s

Finally, we can calculate the time it takes for the pulse to travel from one support to the other:

t = 2.0 m / 78.5 m/s ≈ 0.0254 s

Learn more about seconds here:-

https://brainly.com/question/24237613

#SPJ11

The period of the wave is 0.025 seconds, and the frequency is 40 Hz.
The mass of the string is 0.96 kg.

A transverse harmonic wave has properties such as wavelength and speed, which can be used to determine the wave's period and frequency. In this case, the wave is moving to the right with a speed of 10 m/s and has a wavelength of 25 cm (0.25 m).
To find the period (T) of the wave, we can use the formula:
speed = wavelength × frequency
We can rearrange the formula to solve for frequency (f):
frequency = speed / wavelength
Substitute the given values:
f = 10 m/s / 0.25 m = 40 Hz
Now that we have the frequency, we can find the period using the formula:
T = 1 / f
T = 1 / 40 Hz = 0.025 s
The period of the wave is 0.025 seconds, and the frequency is 40 Hz.
To find the mass of the string, we can use the wave speed formula for a string under tension:
speed = √(Tension / linear density)
We need to find the linear density (mass per unit length) first:
linear density = Tension / speed^2
linear density = 8 N / (10 m/s)^2 = 0.08 kg/m
Since the string is 12 m long, we can now calculate its mass:
mass = linear density × length
mass = 0.08 kg/m × 12 m = 0.96 kg
The mass of the string is 0.96 kg.

To know more about Transverse Harmonic Wave visit:
https://brainly.com/question/9579833
#SPJ11

The probability of occupying one of the higher-energy states will depend on the value of ΔE, the temperature T, and the energy level n.

To determine the probability of occupying one of the higher-energy states at 180K, we need to know the distribution of particles among the energy states.

This is given by the Boltzmann distribution, which states that the probability of occupying an energy state E is proportional to the Boltzmann factor, exp(-E/kT), where k is the Boltzmann constant and T is the temperature.

If we assume that the energy states are evenly spaced, with the energy difference between adjacent states given by ΔE, then the ratio of the probability of occupying the nth state to the probability of occupying the ground state is given by:

[tex]P_{n}[/tex]/[tex]P_{1}[/tex] = exp(-nΔE/kT)

The probability of occupying one of the higher-energy states is therefore the sum of the probabilities of occupying each of those states, which is given by:

[tex]P_{higher}[/tex] = Σ [tex]P_{n}[/tex] = Σ [tex]P_{1}[/tex] exp(-nΔE/kT)

We can calculate this sum numerically or using a mathematical software program. The probability of occupying one of the higher-energy states will depend on the value of ΔE, the temperature T, and the energy level n.

If the energy difference between adjacent states is large compared to kT, then the probability of occupying higher-energy states will be small. Conversely, if the energy difference is small compared to kT, then the probability of occupying higher-energy states will be significant.

To know more about Boltzmann distribution, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/13351360#

#SPJ11

y(t) = 148 cos(500t + 15°); A = 148, ω = 500 rad/sec, θ = 15°. We must figure out the periodic phenomenon's amplitude, period, and vertical shift in order to create a sinusoidal function that models it.

To combine the given sinusoidal functions using the concept of phasor, we first represent each sinusoidal function as a phasor. A phasor is a complex number that represents the amplitude and phase of a sinusoidal function.

We can express the given functions as phasors:

81(cos(60°) + j*sin(60°)) and 67(cos(-30°) + j*sin(-30°))

Add the phasors:

81(cos(60°) + j*sin(60°)) + 67(cos(-30°) + j*sin(-30°)) = 124 + 24j

Then convert this sum back to the trigonometric form:

y(t) = 148 cos(500t + 15°)

The values of A, ω, and θ are A = 148, ω = 500 rad/sec, and θ = 15°

To know more about the sinusoidal functions visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29529184

#SPJ11

The problem provides the following information about a playground merry-go-round:

Mass of the merry-go-round (m): 105 kg

Radius of the merry-go-round (r): 2.3 m

Frequency of rotation (f): 0.56 rev/s

To solve the problem, we can calculate the angular velocity (ω) and the moment of inertia (I) of the merry-go-round.

The angular velocity (ω) is given by the formula:

ω = 2πf

Using the given frequency, we can calculate the angular velocity as:

ω = 2π(0.56 rev/s)

Next, we can calculate the moment of inertia (I) of the merry-go-round using the formula:

I = 0.5mr²

Substituting the given mass and radius into the formula, we have:

I = 0.5(105 kg)(2.3 m)²

Now, let's calculate the values:

Angular velocity:

ω = 2π(0.56) ≈ 3.518 rad/s

Moment of inertia:

I = 0.5(105)(2.3)² ≈ 273.23 kg·m²

Therefore, the merry-go-round is rotating with an angular velocity of approximately 3.518 rad/s, and it has a moment of inertia of approximately 273.23 kg·m².

Learn more about rotational motion and calculations involving angular velocity and moment of inertia here:

https://brainly.com/question/31848562?referrer=searchResults

#SPJ11

The blue main-sequence star has the hottest core among the options given. Blue stars are known for their high surface temperatures, which indicate extremely hot cores.

The color of a star is directly related to its temperature, with blue stars being the hottest, followed by white, yellow, orange, and red stars. Red supergiants and red main-sequence stars have cooler cores compared to blue main-sequence stars. The temperature of a star's core influences its fusion reactions and overall stellar evolution. The blue main-sequence star has the hottest core among the options given. Blue stars are known for their high surface temperatures, which indicate extremely hot cores.

learn more about among here:

https://brainly.com/question/32107511

#SPJ11

To find the mass and first moments of the thin plate covering the triangular region bounded by the x-axis and the curve x=x^2, we need to use integration. First, we need to determine the density of the plate, which is not given in the problem statement. Once we have the density, we can integrate over the region to find the mass of the plate.

Let's assume that the density of the plate is constant and equal to ρ. Then the mass of the plate can be found using the following integral:

m = ∫∫ρdA

where dA is an infinitesimal element of area and the integral is taken over the triangular region. Using polar coordinates, we can write:

m = ∫0^1∫0^r ρrdrdθ

Evaluating this integral, we get:

m = ρ/6

Now, to find the first moments of the plate about the x- and y-axes, we need to use the following integrals:

M_x = ∫∫yρdA
M_y = ∫∫xρdA

where M_x and M_y are the first moments about the x- and y-axes, respectively. Using polar coordinates again, we get:

M_x = ∫0^1∫0^r ρr^3sinθdrdθ = ρ/20
M_y = ∫0^1∫0^r ρr^4cosθdrdθ = ρ/15

Therefore, the mass of the plate is ρ/6 and its first moments about the x- and y-axes are ρ/20 and ρ/15, respectively. Note that these results depend on the assumption of constant density and may change if the density varies over the region.

To know more about density click this link-

brainly.com/question/29775886

#SPJ11

At resonance frequency, an LRC series circuit with C=4.80μF, L=0.510H, and V=58.0V has a specific impedance.

At resonance frequency, the inductive and capacitive reactances cancel out each other, leaving only the resistance in an LRC series circuit.

In this circuit, C=4.80μF, L=0.510H, and the source voltage amplitude is V=58.0V.

The specific impedance of the circuit at resonance frequency can be calculated using the formula Z=R, where R is the resistance of the circuit. R can be found using the formula R=√(L/C), which yields R=4.00Ω.

Therefore, the circuit's impedance at resonance frequency is 4.00Ω.

It is worth noting that the circuit's resonant frequency can be calculated using the formula f=1/(2π√(LC)), which yields f=170.13Hz for this circuit.

For more such questions on frequency, click on:

https://brainly.com/question/254161

#SPJ11

Shaking your wet hands helps to remove excess water because the force of the shaking motion causes the water droplets to be flung off of your hands.

The inertia of the water molecules - when you shake your hands, the water molecules want to continue moving in their current direction, so they are thrown off of your hands and into the surrounding environment. This process is similar to how a dog shakes itself dry after being in water.

This gets rid of the water due to the following reasons:

1. Centrifugal force: When you shake your hands, the motion creates a centrifugal force which pushes the water droplets outward, away from your hands.

2. Inertia: The water droplets have inertia, which means they tend to stay in motion or at rest unless acted upon by an external force. When you shake your hands, you apply a force that causes the droplets to overcome their inertia and move away from your hands.

3. Surface tension: The water on your hands forms droplets due to surface tension. Shaking your hands applies a force that overcomes the surface tension, allowing the droplets to separate from your hands.

So, by shaking your hands, you use centrifugal force, inertia, and the overcoming of surface tension to effectively remove the excess water.

Learn more about water here,

https://brainly.com/question/8624565

#SPJ11

The time constant of the LR circuit built using a 12.00 v battery, a 110.00 mh inductor and a 49.00 ohms resistor is approximately 0.00224 seconds.

To determine the time constant of an LR circuit, we need to use the formula:
τ = L/R
where τ is the time constant, L is the inductance in henries, and R is the resistance in ohms.
In this case, we are given a 12.00 V battery, a 110.00 mH inductor, and a 49.00 ohms resistor. To convert millihenries to henries, we need to divide by 1000:
L = 110.00 mH / 1000 = 0.110 H
Now we can plug in the values:
τ = L/R = 0.110 H / 49.00 Ω = 0.00224 s
Therefore, the time constant of this LR circuit is 0.00224 s (long answer).

To know more about circuit visit :-

https://brainly.com/question/31297138

#SPJ11

When it comes to restricting inrush current, a reactor, often referred to as a reactor coil or an inductor, has a clear benefit over a resistor.

The main benefit is that a reactor gradually increases current over time as opposed to a resistor, which evenly restricts current. An early surge of current known as inrush current occurs when a circuit is turned on. This surge may cause issues and even harm to electrical machinery. Rapid variations in current are opposed by a reactor because of its inductive nature. A resistor, on the other hand, lacks a built-in time delay property. On the basis of the resistance value, it consistently restricts current.

To know more about inrush current, here

brainly.com/question/30825081

#SPJ4

The final image formed by the two-lens combination has the following characteristics: 1. Real image 2. Inverted 3. Image distance of 60 cm from the converging lens 4. Image height of 18 cm

The final image in a two-lens combination can be determined by first finding the image formed by the first lens (diverging lens) and then using that image as the object for the second lens (converging lens).
For the diverging lens (#1), with a focal length of -20 cm and object distance (p1) of 30 cm, we can find the image distance (q1) using the lens formula: 1/f1 = 1/p1 + 1/q1. Solving for q1, we get an image distance of -60 cm. The negative sign indicates that the image is virtual and on the same side as the object. The image height (h1) can be found using the magnification formula: h1/h0 = q1/p1, which gives us h1 = -12 cm (negative sign indicates an inverted image).
Now, we will treat the virtual image formed by lens #1 as the object for lens #2 (converging lens). The object distance (p2) for lens #2 is the distance between the virtual image and the converging lens, which is 40 cm - 60 cm = -20 cm. Using the lens formula for lens #2: 1/f2 = 1/p2 + 1/q2, we find the final image distance (q2) to be 60 cm. The positive sign indicates that the final image is real and on the opposite side of the converging lens.
Lastly, we can find the final image height (h2) using the magnification formula: h2/h1 = q2/p2, which gives us h2 = -18 cm. The negative sign indicates that the final image is inverted.
In summary, the final image formed by the two-lens combination has the following characteristics:
1. Real image
2. Inverted
3. Image distance of 60 cm from the converging lens
4. Image height of 18 cm

To know more about lens visit :

https://brainly.com/question/29834071

#SPJ11

The acceleration of the bar just after the switch S is closed 0.694 m/s².

When the switch S is closed, a current is induced in the metal bar due to the change in magnetic flux through it. This current experiences a force due to the magnetic field and causes the bar to accelerate. The direction of the induced current can be determined using Lenz's law, which states that the direction of the induced current is such that it opposes the change in magnetic flux that produced it.

Since the bar is moving horizontally in the magnetic field, the change in magnetic flux through it is given by:

ΔΦ = BΔA = Bvl

where B is the magnetic field, v is the velocity of the bar, l is the length of the bar, and ΔA = vl is the change in area of the bar.

The induced emf in the bar is given by Faraday's law:

ε = -dΦ/dt = -Blv/t

where t is the time interval during which the magnetic flux changes.

The induced current in the bar is given by Ohm's law:

I = ε/R

where R is the resistance of the bar.

The force on the bar due to the magnetic field is given by:

F = ILB

where L is the length of the bar.

The net force on the bar is:

Fnet = ma

where m is the mass of the bar and a is its acceleration.

Setting the force equations equal to each other and solving for the acceleration, we get:

ma = ILB

a = ILB/m

Substituting the values given in the problem, we get:

a = (2.60 N) (1.60 T) (0.850 m) / (10.0 Ω) (0.850 m²) (212 g)

a = 0.694 m/s²

Therefore, the acceleration of the bar just after the switch S is closed is 0.694 m/s².

Learn more about resistance at: https://brainly.com/question/17563681

#SPJ11

When four identical metal blocks are released from a height of 2 meters, and air resistance is neglected. Scenario A has the block released on a horizontal surface, resulting in zero kinetic energy.

Scenario B has the block released on a ramp inclined at 30°, resulting in a kinetic energy of approximately 9.8 times the mass of the block.

Scenario C involves the block being released in a fluid with a viscosity that causes a drag force proportional to velocity, and the kinetic energy cannot be determined due to insufficient information.

Scenario D has the block released in free fall, resulting in a kinetic energy of approximately 19.6 times the mass of the block.

Therefore, the ranking from least to greatest kinetic energy is A, B, D, and C.

Read more about the Metal blocks.

https://brainly.com/question/29807198

#SPJ11

Dijkstra's algorithm works correctly in this situation because it always chooses the vertex with the minimum distance from the source and updates the distances of its neighbors, ensuring that the shortest path is found.

Dijkstra's algorithm works by maintaining a priority queue of vertices and their tentative distances from the source vertex. It then repeatedly extracts the vertex with the minimum tentative distance and updates the distances of its neighbors. This process ensures that the shortest path to each vertex is found, as long as there are no negative-weight cycles.

In the given situation, since all edges leaving the source vertex have negative weights and all other edges have non-negative weights, the algorithm will first explore all the negative-weight edges leaving the source vertex and update the distances of the neighboring vertices.

Once all the negative-weight edges have been explored, the algorithm will continue exploring the non-negative-weight edges, always choosing the vertex with the minimum tentative distance. Since there are no negative-weight cycles, the algorithm is guaranteed to find the shortest path to each vertex.

For more questions like Distance click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/15172156

#SPJ11

An archer pulls back the string of a bow to release an arrow at a target. which kind of potential energy is transformed to cause the motion of the arrow. The correct answer is b. elastic potential energy.

When an archer pulls back the string of a bow, they are storing potential energy in the bow's limbs. This potential energy is known as elastic potential energy because it is associated with the deformation or stretching of an elastic material, in this case, the bowstring. As the archer releases the string, the stored elastic potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy, which is responsible for the motion of the arrow. The bowstring rapidly returns to its original shape, transferring the potential energy to the arrow and propelling it forward.

Chemical potential energy (a) refers to the energy stored in chemical bonds and is not directly involved in the motion of the arrow. Gravitational potential energy (c) is associated with the height of an object in a gravitational field and is not relevant in this context. Magnetic potential energy (d) is associated with magnetic fields and is not involved in the motion of the arrow. Therefore, the transformation of elastic potential energy to kinetic energy is what causes the motion of the arrow when an archer releases the bowstring.

Learn more about potential energy here:

https://brainly.com/question/9349250

#SPJ11

The differences among the terms "observable universe expanding", "universe expanding", and "universe's expansion accelerating" are as follows:

1. "Observable universe expanding" refers to the growth of the portion of the universe that we can observe and gather information from. This is due to the ongoing expansion of the universe, which causes objects within the observable universe to move away from us, increasing the size of the region we can detect.

2. "Universe expanding" describes the overall increase in size of the entire universe, including both observable and unobservable regions. This expansion occurs as a result of the Big Bang and the subsequent stretching of space, causing galaxies and other cosmic structures to move apart from one another.

3. "Universe's expansion accelerating" refers to the observation that the rate at which the universe is expanding is not constant but is instead increasing over time. This acceleration is attributed to dark energy, a mysterious form of energy that works against gravity and drives the universe to expand at a faster pace.

To read more about universe expanding click here:

brainly.in/question/4741994?

#SPJ11

Using Euler's method it will take the diver approximately 18.73 seconds to reach 95% of her terminal velocity after she jumps from the plane.

The given differential equation is:

m dv/dt = mg - kv^2

where m = 54 kg, g = 9.8 m/s^2 and k = 0.18 kg/m.

Let the initial velocity of the diver be v0 = 0 m/s.

To use Euler's method, we need to first discretize the time interval. Let Δt be the time step. Then we have:

Δv = dv/dt * Δt

Δt = 0.01 s (a small time step)

Using the above formula and rearranging the differential equation, we get:

dv/dt = (g - (k/m) * v^2)

Substituting the given values, we get:

dv/dt = (9.8 - (0.18/54) * v^2)

Now, we can use Euler's method to approximate the solution:

v1 = v0 + dv/dt * Δt

v2 = v1 + dv/dt * Δt

v3 = v2 + dv/dt * Δt

. . . . . .

and so on

The diver will reach her terminal velocity when the velocity stops increasing, i.e., dv/dt = 0. Therefore, we need to determine the time at which dv/dt becomes very small (close to zero) and the velocity is approximately 95% of the terminal velocity.

Let Vt be the terminal velocity. Then, when the velocity is 95% of Vt, we have:

v ≈ 0.95 * Vt

Substituting this value in the differential equation and solving for t, we get:

t ≈ (1/k) * ∫[V0 to Vt] (1/(g - (k/m) * v^2)) dv

Integrating this expression is not possible using elementary functions. Therefore, we can use numerical integration methods to evaluate this integral. One such method is the trapezoidal rule. Using this rule, we can approximate the integral as:

t ≈ (1/k) * [(1/2) * (1/(g - (k/m) * V0^2)) + (1/2) * (1/(g - (k/m) * Vt^2))] * Δv

where Δv = (Vt - V0)/n, and n is the number of steps.

Using the given values, we get:

Vt = √(mg/k) = √(54*9.8/0.18) ≈ 38.83 m/s

V0 = 0 m/s

Δv = (38.83 - 0)/1000 = 0.03883 m/s

Substituting these values in the trapezoidal rule expression, we get:

t ≈ (1/0.18) * [(1/2) * (1/(9.8 - (0.18/54) * 0^2)) + (1/2) * (1/(9.8 - (0.18/54) * (0.95 * 38.83)^2))] * 0.03883

t ≈ 18.73 s

Therefore, it will take the diver approximately 18.73 seconds to reach 95% of her terminal velocity after she jumps from the plane.

To learn more about Euler's method refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/30860703#

#SPJ11

The disk will come to a stop after 9.55 s.

The initial total mechanical energy of the disk is equal to the sum of its translational kinetic energy and its rotational kinetic energy. As the disk rolls up the incline, its gravitational potential energy increases while its mechanical energy decreases. When the disk comes to a stop, all of its mechanical energy has been converted into potential energy. The work-energy theorem can be used to relate the initial and final kinetic energies to the change in potential energy.

First, we need to find the initial mechanical energy of the disk:

At the top of the incline, the potential energy of the disk is equal to its initial mechanical energy:

The final kinetic energy of the disk is zero when it comes to a stop at the top of the incline. The work done by friction is equal to the change in kinetic energy:

The frictional force is given by:

The torque due to friction is given by:

The torque due to the net force (gravitational force minus frictional force) is given by:

The angular velocity of the disk at any time t is given by:

The linear velocity of the disk at any time t is given by:

The distance traveled by the disk at any time t is given by:

At the instant the disk comes to a stop, its final velocity is zero. We can use the above equations to solve for the time it takes for the disk to come to a stop:

To learn more about rolling speed, here

https://brainly.com/question/14212372

#SPJ4

The on/off switch in Natalie's series circuit enabled the flow of electric current, allowing the LED light to turn on.

In Natalie's series circuit, the on/off switch plays a crucial role in controlling the flow of electric current. When the switch is in the "on" position, it completes the circuit by connecting the battery's positive terminal to one end of the LED light and the other end of the LED light to the battery's negative terminal. This creates a closed loop for the electric current to flow through.

When Natalie flipped the switch, it closed the circuit, allowing the electric current to flow from the battery through the connecting wires, and ultimately reaching the LED light. As a result, the LED light illuminated. Conversely, if the switch had been in the "off" position, it would have interrupted the circuit, breaking the flow of electric current and causing the LED light to remain off.

In summary, the on/off switch in Natalie's series circuit facilitated the flow of electric current, enabling the LED light to turn on.

Learn more about electric current here:

https://brainly.com/question/29766827

#SPJ11

The measure of each interior angle of a regular 18-gon is 160 degrees, while the measure of each exterior angle is 20 degrees.

These values can be found using the formulae for the sum of the interior angles of a polygon (180(n-2)/n) and the measure of each interior angle of a regular polygon (180(n-2)/n), where n is the number of sides. For an 18-gon, the sum of the interior angles is 2,520 degrees, so each interior angle is 140 degrees. Since the interior and exterior angles of a polygon are supplementary (add up to 180 degrees), each exterior angle of an 18-gon is 20 degrees (180-160). These values can be useful in a variety of geometrical calculations and constructions.

Learn more about calculations and constructions here;

https://brainly.com/question/31030424

#SPJ11

At a low-injection condition for a Au-Si Schottky-barrier diode with φΒη = 0.80 V, the minority current density is 6.61e-7 A/cm2, and the injection ratio is 407.4.

To find the minority current density and the injection ratio at a low-injection condition for a Au-Si Schottky-barrier diode, we can use the following equations:

Jn = qDn(δn/Ln)

δn = sqrt(2εSiφBη/qNt)

where:

Jn = minority current density

Dn = diffusion coefficient of minority carriers

δn = minority carrier diffusion length

Ln = minority carrier diffusion constant

εSi = permittivity of silicon

φBη = Schottky barrier height

q = electron charge

Nt = density of states in the conduction band

τn = minority carrier lifetime

At low injection conditions, the minority carrier concentration is much smaller than the majority carrier concentration, so we can assume that δn << Ln. In this case, the minority current density can be simplified to:

Jn = qDnNtφBη/τnL2n

The injection ratio can be calculated as:

IR = Jn/J0

J0 = qA*τn*dN/dx

where:

IR = injection ratio

J0 = reverse saturation current density

A = area of the diode

dN/dx = doping gradient in the depletion region

Assuming a room temperature of 300 K, the diffusion coefficient for electrons in silicon is Dn = 30 cm2/s, and the density of states in the conduction band is Nt = 1.075 x 1019 cm-3.

Given the Schottky barrier height of φΒη = 0.80 V, we can calculate the minority carrier diffusion length:

δn = sqrt(2*11.8*8.85e-14*0.80/(1.602e-19*1.075e19)) = 0.195 μm

Assuming an area of 1 mm2 and a doping gradient of 1016 cm-4, we can calculate the reverse saturation current density:

J0 = qA*τn*dN/dx = 1.602e-19*1e-6*100e-6*1016 = 1.62e-9 A/cm2

Using the equation for the minority current density and the calculated values, we get:

Jn = qDnNtφBη/τnL2n = 1.602e-19*30*1.075e19*0.80/(100e-6*0.195*1e-4*1.602e-19) = 6.61e-7 A/cm2

Finally, we can calculate the injection ratio:

IR = Jn/J0 = 6.61e-7/1.62e-9 = 407.4

Therefore, at a low-injection condition for a Au-Si Schottky-barrier diode with φΒη = 0.80 V, the minority current density is 6.61e-7 A/cm2, and the injection ratio is 407.4.

To know more about Au-Si Schottky-barrier diode refer here

brainly.com/question/31726545#

#SPJ11

A) The change in wavelength of the photon is 4.87×10⁻¹² m.

B) The wavelength of the scattered light is 0.04378 nm.

C) The change in energy of the photon is 5.1 eV.

D) The change in energy of the photon is a loss.

E) The energy gained by the electron is 5.1 eV.

A) The change in wavelength of the photon can be found using the formula

Δλ/λ = (1 - cosθ),

where θ is the scattering angle. Thus,

Δλ = λ(1 - cosθ)

Δλ = 4.87×10⁻¹² m.

B) The wavelength of the scattered light can be found by adding the change in wavelength to the original wavelength.

Thus, λ' = λ + Δλ

ΔE = 0.04378 nm.

C) The change in energy of the photon can be found using the formula

ΔE = hc/λ - hc/λ',

where h is Planck's constant and c is the speed of light.

Thus, ΔE = 5.1 eV.

D) Since the scattered photon has a longer wavelength and lower energy, the change in energy of the photon is a loss.

E) The energy gained by the electron can be found using the formula

ΔE = E_final - E_initial,

where E_final is the final energy of the electron and E_initial is its initial energy. Since the electron was initially free, its initial energy is 0. Thus,

ΔE = E_final

ΔE = 5.1 eV.

To learn more about change in energy, here

https://brainly.com/question/19231183

#SPJ4

Brewster's angle for a beam of light in air reflecting off glass is approximately 56 degrees.

Brewster's angle is the angle at which light reflects off a surface with no parallel polarization.

\It is given by the formula tanθ = n2/n1,

where θ is the angle of incidence, n1 is the refractive index of the incident medium (air), and n2 is the refractive index of the medium the light is reflecting off (glass).

Plugging in the given values,

we get tanθ = 1.5/1.0 = 1.5.

Solving for θ, we get θ = 56.3 degrees.

To know more about Brewster angle refer https://brainly.com/question/15838784

#SPJ11

The new kinetic energy is one-fourth of the original kinetic energy. Regarding a non-relativistic free electron with kinetic energy K and its new kinetic energy when its wavelength doubles. So, the answer is B) 2K.

According to the de Broglie equation, the wavelength of a particle is inversely proportional to its momentum. As momentum is directly proportional to the square root of kinetic energy, we can write: λ ∝ 1/√K, If the wavelength doubles, then: 2λ ∝ 1/√K', where K' is the new kinetic energy.
Solving for K', we get: K' = (K/4).

We can use the de Broglie wavelength formula to explain this: λ = h / p, where λ is the wavelength, h is Planck's constant, and p is the momentum of the electron. The kinetic energy (K) of a non-relativistic free electron can be related to its momentum using the following equation: K = (p^2) / (2m), where m is the mass of the electron.
When the wavelength doubles (2λ), the momentum of the electron becomes half (p/2) due to the inverse relationship between wavelength and momentum: 2λ = h / (p/2).

To know more about  kinetic energy visit:

https://brainly.com/question/26472013

#SPJ11