The major asset of thrift institutions is ______ ; ______ are the primary source of funds.
a. home mortgages; small denomination deposits
b. commercial mortgages; large denominations deposits
c. home mortgages; large denomination deposits
d. multifamily home mortgages; small denomination deposits

Answers

Answer 1

The correct options are:

a. home mortgages; small denomination deposits

Thrift institutions like savings and loans associations primarily hold residential home mortgages as their major assets. And they rely on small denomination deposits from individual consumers as their primary source of funds.

The other options are incorrect:

b. commercial mortgages; large denominations deposits - Thrifts hold home mortgages, not commercial mortgages.

c. home mortgages; large denomination deposits - While thrifts hold home mortgages, they rely on small deposits, not large deposits.

d. multifamily home mortgages; small denomination deposits - Thrifts typically hold mortgages for single family homes, not multifamily homes. Small deposits are correct though.

So the answer is a. home mortgages; small denomination deposits.

Answer 2

The major asset of thrift institutions is home mortgages, and small denomination deposits are the primary source of funds. So the answer is a.

Thrift institutions, also known as savings and loan associations or savings banks, specialize in providing mortgage loans to individuals and families. These institutions are unique because they are chartered to focus on local communities and are required to hold a certain percentage of their assets in home mortgage loans. Therefore, home mortgages are the primary asset of thrift institutions.

On the other hand, thrift institutions rely on small denomination deposits as their primary source of funds. This means that these institutions attract deposits from individuals and families with modest savings, and then use those deposits to fund their lending activities. Small denomination deposits typically range from a few dollars to a few thousand dollars, and they are considered stable sources of funding for thrift institutions.

The combination of home mortgages and small denomination deposits is what makes thrift institutions unique and allows them to play an important role in the housing market. By specializing in mortgage lending and attracting small deposits, thrift institutions are able to provide affordable and accessible home loans to a broad range of borrowers. Furthermore, because they are often locally owned and operated, thrift institutions have a deep understanding of their communities and can tailor their lending practices to meet the specific needs of their customers.

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Related Questions

The following is a partially completed performance report forSurf SideSurf Side.LOADING...​(Click the icon to view the​ information.)Read the requirementsLOADING....REQUIREMENTS:1. How many pools didSurf SideSurf Sideoriginally think it would install in​ April?2. How many pools didSurf SideSurf Sideactually install in​ April?3. How many pools is the flexible budget based​ on? Why?4. What was the budgeted sales price per​ pool?5. What was the budgeted variable cost per​ pool?6. Define the flexible budget variance. What causes​ it?7. Define the volume variance. What causes​ it?8. Fill in the missing numbers in the performance report.MORE INFO:

Answers

1. Surf Side originally planned to install 50 pools in April. 2. Surf Side actually installed 45 pools in April.

General understanding of the concepts and terms mentioned in the requirements:

The original number of pools that Surf Side initially planned or expected to install in April.

The actual number of pools that Surf Side actually installed in April.

The number of pools that the flexible budget is based on. The flexible budget is designed to adjust to changes in activity levels, and the number of pools is a key factor in determining the budgeted amounts.

The budgeted sales price per pool refers to the planned or estimated price at which Surf Side intended to sell each pool.

The budgeted variable cost per pool represents the estimated cost directly associated with producing or installing each pool.

The flexible budget variance is the difference between the actual results and the flexible budget. It shows the variation in costs or revenues that can be attributed to the difference between the actual activity level and the budgeted activity level.

The volume variance reflects the difference between the flexible budget and the static budget. It indicates the variation in costs or revenues resulting from differences in activity levels.

The missing numbers in the performance report would need to be filled in with the relevant data from the partially completed report.

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According to the rule of 70, a stock portfolio growing at a rate of 14% will double approximately every ______ years. A. 10. B. 20. C. 40. D. 5. D. 5.

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According to the rule of 70, if a stock portfolio is growing at a rate of 14%, it will double approximately every 5 years.

The rule of 70 is a quick and easy way to estimate the number of years it will take for an investment to double based on its growth rate. To use this rule, simply divide 70 by the growth rate. In this case, 70 divided by 14 equals 5.This can be a helpful tool for investors to understand the potential growth of their portfolios over time. However, it's important to keep in mind that the rule of 70 is just an estimate and does not take into account factors such as market volatility and other risks associated with investing in stocks.
Investors should also consider other factors such as their own risk tolerance, investment goals, and overall financial situation before making any investment decisions. It's always a good idea to consult with a financial advisor to create a personalized investment strategy that aligns with your specific needs and objectives.

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describe four threats in the revenue cycle and identify appropriate controls for each threat.

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Four threats in the revenue cycle and appropriate controls for each threat are:

1. Sales fraud: This threat involves the manipulation of sales transactions to inflate revenue, such as recording fictitious sales or applying incorrect pricing or discounts. Appropriate controls to mitigate this threat include:

Segregation of duties between sales, billing, and collections functions to ensure that no one person has control over the entire sales process.Implementing a sales order approval process that verifies the accuracy of sales orders and ensures that they are authorized.Regularly monitoring sales transactions for unusual patterns or trends and investigating any discrepancies.

2. Cash receipt fraud: This threat involves the theft or misappropriation of cash or checks received from customers. Appropriate controls to mitigate this threat include:

Requiring dual control over cash handling, with two employees required to count and deposit cash and checks.Using pre-numbered receipts for all cash and check transactions to ensure that all receipts are accounted for.Conducting periodic surprise audits of cash on hand and comparing them to recorded amounts.

3. Billing and accounts receivable fraud: This threat involves the manipulation of customer accounts to inflate revenue or delay collections, such as recording fictitious credits or delaying the recording of returns. Appropriate controls to mitigate this threat include:

Segregation of duties between billing and accounts receivable functions to ensure that no one person has control over both processes.Requiring approval for all credit memos and returns, and ensuring that they are properly authorized and documented.Regularly monitoring customer accounts for unusual activity or discrepancies and investigating any issues.

4. Inventory and shipping fraud: This threat involves the manipulation of inventory and shipping records to inflate revenue, such as recording fictitious shipments or inflating inventory levels. Appropriate controls to mitigate this threat include:

Segregation of duties between inventory management and shipping functions to ensure that no one person has control over both processes.Conducting regular physical inventory counts to verify inventory levels and reconcile them to recorded amounts.Monitoring shipping and receiving activities for unusual patterns or trends and investigating any discrepancies.

By implementing these controls, organizations can help mitigate the risks associated with these threats and ensure the integrity of their revenue cycle processes.

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Commonly occurring and well-defined business activities such as scheduling employees work hours would be what category of organizational decision?.

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The commonly occurring and well-defined business activities such as scheduling employee's work hours would be categorized as operational decisions.

What are operational decisions?

Operational decisions are decisions that concern the day-to-day operations of the organization. They are short-term decisions that occur regularly and have a significant impact on the organization. These decisions include activities such as scheduling work hours, ordering raw materials, and managing inventory. Operational decisions are made by the lower-level managers, who are responsible for implementing the strategic decisions made by the top-level managers.

The key features of operational decisions include:Routine decisions that occur frequently Decision made by the lower-level managers based on established policies and procedures.They have a direct impact on the operations of the organization.

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As an analytics company itself, Dell has used its service offerings for its own business. Do you think it is easier or harder for a company to taste its own medicine? Explain.

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As an analytics company, Dell has used its own service offerings to improve its own business operations. It is indeed easier for a company to taste its own medicine since they are already aware of the benefits that the services can offer.

Using their own offerings enables Dell to experience first-hand the effectiveness of their services, which can help them fine-tune their offerings to better suit the needs of their customers. They can gain insights into the limitations and challenges of their own services and work on improving them for their clients. By using their own offerings, Dell can also showcase their expertise in the analytics industry and demonstrate the real-world benefits of their services.

In conclusion, it is easier for a company to taste its own medicine, as they already understand the benefits and limitations of their services. By using their own offerings, they can gain valuable insights into the effectiveness of their services and fine-tune them to better serve their customers. Dell's use of its own offerings is a testament to its confidence in its capabilities and shows that they are committed to providing their customers with the best analytics solutions.

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Compare and contrast lasso and ridge regression. what are the goals of each method? how are they similar? how are they different?

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Lasso and Ridge regression are two commonly used regularization techniques in linear regression analysis.

The goal of Ridge regression is to minimize the sum of squared residuals while also adding a penalty term to the regression coefficients. The penalty term is the square of the magnitude of the coefficients, multiplied by a constant parameter. Ridge regression shrinks the coefficients towards zero but does not eliminate them entirely.On the other hand, Lasso regression aims to minimize the sum of squared residuals while also adding a penalty term that is equal to the absolute value of the coefficients, multiplied by a constant parameter.

Lasso regression not only shrinks the coefficients towards zero but also forces some of the coefficients to become exactly zero, effectively performing feature selection. Both Ridge and Lasso regression are similar in that they add a penalty term to the regression coefficients to prevent overfitting and improve model performance. However, they differ in the type of penalty term used and the degree to which they shrink the coefficients. Ridge regression generally works well when there are many variables with small to medium-sized effects, while Lasso regression is useful when there are many variables with only a few of them having large effects.

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Explain the main differences between weak sustainability (neoclassical) and strong sustainability (ecological), and why these matter for government policy on sustainable development. List the two requirements for development to be sustainable

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The main distinctions between strong sustainability and weak sustainability are as follows:

Natural capital's full substitutability is referred to as weak sustainability, whereas strong sustainability argues that this substitutability ought to be severely restricted.

As sustainable development discussions developed in the late 1980s and early 1990s, this concept received more political attention. An important milestone was the Rio Culmination in 1992 where by far most of country states conceded to economical turn of events. The signing of Agenda 21, a global plan of action for sustainable development, demonstrated this commitment.

Natural capital and human capital, also known as produced capital, have been used to define weak sustainability. Human capital includes resources like infrastructure, labor, and knowledge. Normal capital covers the supply of ecological resources, for example, non-renewable energy sources, biodiversity and other biological system designs and works applicable for environment administrations. In extremely powerless maintainability, the general supply of man-made capital and normal capital remaining parts consistent over the long run. It is critical to take note of that, genuine replacement between the different sorts of capital is permitted inside frail maintainability.

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when a firm takes advantage of favorable economic, political, and cultural conditions when identifying a site for manufacturing activities, the benefits it can receive are called ______ economies.

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When a firm takes advantage of favorable economic, political, and cultural conditions when identifying a site for manufacturing activities, the benefits it can receive are called location or locational economies.

Location economies, also known as localization economies, refer to the benefits gained by a firm from locating its manufacturing activities in a specific geographical area that provides favorable economic, political, and cultural conditions.

These economies refer to the advantages gained by a firm from selecting a specific location that offers favorable factors such as access to resources, skilled labor, infrastructure, markets, government incentives, and a supportive business environment.

By capitalizing on these location economies, a firm can enhance its competitiveness, reduce costs, improve supply chain efficiency, and foster innovation. This strategic decision allows the firm to maximize its potential for success and profitability by aligning its operations with the advantageous characteristics of a specific geographic location.

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given the following information, calculate the net worth: assets = $5,600 cash inflows = $5,450 cash outflows = $2,600 liabilities = $1,950

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The net worth is $3,650.

Given the information provided, the net worth can be calculated as follows:

net worth = assets - liabilities.

In this case, the net worth is $5,600 (assets) - $1,950 (liabilities), which equals $3,650.

To further explain, net worth represents an individual's or entity's financial position by subtracting total liabilities from total assets. In this scenario, the assets amount to $5,600, and the liabilities are $1,950. It is important to note that cash inflows and cash outflows are not directly used in the calculation of net worth, as they pertain to income and expenses, respectively. The net worth calculation only focuses on assets and liabilities.

In conclusion, the net worth for the given information is $3,650, derived from subtracting the liabilities ($1,950) from the assets ($5,600).

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which of the following is a stage of the capital budgeting process during which a plant manager is queried for assembly time? A) make decisions by choosing among alternatives stage
B) obtain information stage
C) make predictions stage
D) implement the decision, evaluate performance, and learn stage

Answers

The stage of the capital budgeting process during which a plant manager is queried for assembly time is the "obtain information stage."

During the obtain information stage, relevant data and information are gathered from various sources to support the decision-making process. This stage involves collecting information about different aspects of the capital budgeting project, including cost estimates, timeframes, resource requirements, and other relevant factors.

In the specific scenario described, the plant manager is being queried for assembly time, which is a form of information gathering related to the project. The assembly time is essential for estimating the production process and associated costs, which are critical inputs for the capital budgeting decision.

Therefore, the correct answer is B) obtain information stage.

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true or false?the purpose of bank regulation is to prevent bank runs, financial crisis, and the loss of depositors' money, among other goals.

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The purpose of bank regulation is to prevent bank runs, financial crisis, and the loss of depositors' money, among other goals is True.

Bank regulation plays a crucial role in maintaining stability and safeguarding the interests of depositors in the financial system. In this context, the statement "the purpose of bank regulation is to prevent bank runs, financial crisis, and the loss of depositors' money, among other goals" is true. Let's delve into the details and explain this concept in mathematical terms.

Bank regulation aims to establish a framework of rules and regulations that banks must follow to ensure the stability and integrity of the financial system. To understand the purpose of bank regulation in mathematical terms, let's break it down into three key components: preventing bank runs, financial crisis, and the loss of depositors' money.

A bank run occurs when a large number of depositors simultaneously withdraw their deposits from a bank due to concerns about the bank's solvency or stability. This can lead to a liquidity crisis for the bank, potentially causing it to fail. Bank regulation helps prevent bank runs through various mechanisms:

a) Reserve Requirements: Regulators enforce reserve requirements, which specify the minimum amount of reserves a bank must hold. Reserves act as a buffer to meet depositors' withdrawal demands and maintain confidence in the banking system.

b) Deposit Insurance: Governments often provide deposit insurance schemes that guarantee the safety of deposits up to a certain limit. This assurance helps prevent depositors from rushing to withdraw their funds in times of uncertainty.

Preventing Financial Crisis:

Financial crises can have severe consequences on the economy and the stability of the banking system. Bank regulation aims to mitigate the risk of financial crises by:

a) Capital Adequacy Requirements: Regulators impose capital adequacy requirements, which mandate banks to maintain a minimum level of capital relative to their risk-weighted assets. This ensures that banks have sufficient cushion to absorb losses and continue their operations during adverse economic conditions.

b) Risk Management and Stress Testing: Regulators assess and enforce risk management practices and stress testing exercises for banks. These measures help identify vulnerabilities and ensure banks are prepared to withstand adverse scenarios, reducing the likelihood of financial crises.

Protecting Depositors' Money:

Depositors entrust their money to banks with the expectation that it will be safe and easily accessible. Bank regulation works to protect depositors' money by:

a) Supervision and Auditing: Regulators closely monitor banks' activities to ensure compliance with laws and regulations. Regular audits help identify any fraudulent or risky practices that could jeopardize depositors' funds.

b) Segregation of Accounts: Banks are required to maintain separate accounts for depositors' funds and their own operational activities. This segregation ensures that depositors' money is not used for risky investments or speculative purposes.

Bank regulation addresses each of these components to achieve its overall purpose. By implementing these measures, regulators aim to maintain the stability of the banking system, safeguard depositors' money, and minimize the impact of financial crises on the broader economy.

It's important to note that while bank regulation strives to prevent adverse events, it cannot eliminate all risks entirely. However, by enforcing prudent practices and maintaining a robust regulatory framework, the likelihood and severity of bank runs, financial crises, and depositors' losses can be significantly reduced.

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Smith Company reported pretax book Income of $418,000. Included in the computation were favorable temporary differences of $53,600, unfavorable temporary differences of $21,800, and favorable permanent differences of $41,800. Smith's deferred Income tax expense or benefit would be: 5:44 Multiple Choice Net deferred tax expense of $6.678. Net deferred tax benefit of $6.678 Net deferred tax expense of $15.834 Net deferred tax benefit of $15.834.

Answers

The net deferred tax amount is a benefit, the correct answer is Net deferred tax benefit of $52,930. To calculate Smith Company's deferred income tax expense or benefit, we need to consider the temporary and permanent differences that were reported.

Temporary differences are differences between the book and tax basis of an asset or liability that will result in taxable or deductible amounts in future years when the book and tax basis amounts reverse. Permanent differences are differences between the book and tax basis of an item that will never reverse.

In this case, Smith Company reported favorable temporary differences of $53,600, which means that the tax basis of these assets or liabilities is lower than their book basis, resulting in lower taxable amounts in future years. However, they also reported unfavorable temporary differences of $21,800, which means that the tax basis of these assets or liabilities is higher than their book basis, resulting in higher taxable amounts in future years. Additionally, Smith Company reported favorable permanent differences of $41,800, which will never result in taxable or deductible amounts.

To calculate the deferred income tax expense or benefit, we need to multiply the temporary differences by the applicable tax rate and then add or subtract the result from the permanent differences. Assuming a tax rate of 35%, we can calculate the deferred income tax expense or benefit as follows:

Favorable temporary differences: $53,600 x 35% = $18,760
Unfavorable temporary differences: $21,800 x 35% = $7,630
Net temporary differences: $18,760 - $7,630 = $11,130
Deferred income tax expense or benefit: $11,130 + $41,800 = $52,930

Since the net deferred tax amount is a benefit, the correct answer is Net deferred tax benefit of $52,930.

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murphy distributors, a wholesaler, buys large quantities of health and beauty care products, light bulbs, batteries, canned food, computer disks, and more, and sells them to retailers. murphy is a(n) wholesaler.

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According to the question Murphy Distributors, as described, is a **wholesaler**.

Wholesalers are intermediaries in the distribution channel who buy goods in large quantities from manufacturers or suppliers and sell them in smaller quantities to retailers or other businesses. They act as a link between manufacturers and retailers, facilitating the distribution of products. Wholesalers typically purchase goods in bulk, store them in warehouses or distribution centers, and then distribute them to retailers or other customers.

In the case of Murphy Distributors, their business model involves buying various products, including health and beauty care products, light bulbs, batteries, canned food, computer disks, and more, in large quantities. They then sell these products to retailers, providing a convenient and efficient way for retailers to access a wide range of products without having to deal directly with multiple manufacturers or suppliers. This aligns with the role of a wholesaler in the distribution channel.


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Turn back to Figure 15.1, which lists the prices of various Microsoft options. Use the data in the figure to calculate the payoff and the profits for investments in each of the following November 2019 expiration options, assuming that the stock price on the expiration date is $140.call option, x = 140 put option, x = 140

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Let's analyze the payoffs and profits for the November 2019 expiration call and put options with a strike price (x) of $140, assuming the stock price at expiration is also $140.

1. Call option (x = 140):
The call option gives the holder the right to buy the stock at the strike price ($140). Since the stock price at expiration is also $140, there is no intrinsic value in exercising the option, so the payoff is $0. The profit will be the payoff minus the premium paid for the call option. Without the actual premium amount provided in Figure 15.1, I cannot calculate the exact profit.

2. Put option (x = 140):
The put option gives the holder the right to sell the stock at the strike price ($140). As the stock price at expiration is also $140, there is no benefit in exercising the option, so the payoff is $0. The profit will be the payoff minus the premium paid for the put option. Similarly, without the actual premium amount provided in Figure 15.1, I cannot calculate the exact profit.

In summary, both the call and put options with a strike price of $140 result in a payoff of $0 when the stock price at expiration is $140. The profits for both options depend on the respective premiums paid for them, which are not provided in the question.

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To calculate the payoff and profits for investments in the call option with an exercise price of $140 and put option with an exercise price of $140, assuming a stock price of $140 on expiration date, we need to use the information provided in Figure 15.1.

For the call option with an exercise price of $140, the price is $6.50. The payoff at expiration is the maximum of either the stock price minus the exercise price or zero. Since the stock price is $140 and the exercise price is also $140, the payoff is zero. Therefore, the profit is the negative of the price of the call option, which is -$6.50.For the put option with an exercise price of $140, the price is $4.50. The payoff at expiration is the maximum of either the exercise price minus the stock price or zero. Since the exercise price is $140 and the stock price is also $140, the payoff is zero. Therefore, the profit is the negative of the price of the put option, which is -$4.50.

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Antitrust policy seeks to prevent or eliminate which of the following practices?
A. firing of workers
B. monopolists practices of underproducing and overcharging
C. pollution of rivers
D. monopolistic competition
E. discrimination in the labor market

Answers

The antitrust policy seeks to prevent or eliminate monopolistic practices of underproducing and overcharging, as well as monopolistic competition in the market.

Antitrust policy is designed to promote fair competition and prevent the formation or abuse of monopolies in the market. It aims to protect consumers and ensure that markets remain competitive. Among the practices that antitrust policy seeks to prevent or eliminate are monopolistic practices of underproducing and overcharging. This refers to the behavior of monopolistic firms that restrict the quantity of goods or services produced in order to maintain higher prices and maximize their profits at the expense of consumers.

Additionally, the antitrust policy also targets monopolistic competition, which occurs when there are few large firms dominating the market and engaging in anti-competitive practices, such as collusion or price fixing, that limit competition and harm consumers. By addressing these practices, the antitrust policy aims to promote market efficiency, consumer welfare, and innovation. Therefore, the correct answer is option B) monopolists' practices of underproducing and overcharging, and option D) monopolistic competition. Antitrust policy does not directly address issues such as the firing of workers, pollution of rivers, or discrimination in the labor market, although these may be regulated by other policies and laws.

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FILL IN THE BLANK ____ means selling the right to use some process, trademark, patent, or other right for a fee or royalty. Select one:

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Licensing means selling the right to use some process, trademark, patent, or other right for a fee or royalty.

Licensing allows the owner of intellectual property (IP) to grant permission to another party to use their IP in exchange for compensation. This arrangement enables the licensee to benefit from the IP without having to develop it themselves, while the licensor gains revenue from the licensing agreement.

Licensing agreements can take various forms depending on the type of IP involved and the specific terms negotiated between the parties. For example, a technology company may license its patented invention to another company, allowing them to manufacture and sell products based on that technology.

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TRUE OR FALSE using third-party logistics involves using your organization's logistics function to ship to customers that are not officially part of the supply chain.

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False. Using third-party logistics (3PL) refers to outsourcing logistics activities to a third-party provider who is not part of the organization's own logistics function.

It involves utilizing external logistics expertise and resources to handle various aspects of the supply chain, such as transportation, warehousing, inventory management, and distribution. The primary purpose of using 3PL services is to improve efficiency, reduce costs, and enhance customer service by leveraging the specialized capabilities and infrastructure of the third-party provider. The customers served by the organization through 3PL services are typically part of the supply chain and are considered part of the organization's customer base or network.

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which market has no central location and is a network of dealers all over the country?

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The market that has no central location and is a network of dealers all over the country is commonly referred to as an "Over-the-Counter (OTC) market."

In an OTC market, financial instruments, such as stocks, bonds, currencies, and derivatives, are traded directly between parties without the need for a centralized exchange. Instead, dealers or market makers facilitate the trading by connecting buyers and sellers.

One well-known example of an OTC market is the foreign exchange market (Forex), where currencies are traded globally. Other examples include the OTC assets market,

where stocks of smaller companies or those not listed on major exchanges are traded, and the OTC bond market, where bonds are traded outside of formal exchanges.

In OTC markets, dealers can be located in different regions or countries, and transactions can occur electronically or over the phone.

The lack of a centralized location allows for greater flexibility in trading and customization of transactions to meet the specific needs of the participants.

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Which of the following is not a component of lead time? O A. Supplier transit B. Production rework C. Order processing D. Transport to customer

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The right option is B: Production rework.

Which component is not part of lead time?

Lead time refers to the total time required for an order or product to move through the entire supply chain, from the initial placement of the order to the final delivery to the customer.

It encompasses various components that contribute to the overall duration of the process. These components typically include supplier transit (A), order processing (C), and transport to the customer (D).

However, production rework (B) is not considered a component of lead time. Production rework refers to the process of correcting or repairing defective or non-conforming products during the manufacturing or production phase.

While it is an important aspect of quality control and ensuring product standards, it is not directly related to the time it takes for an order to move through the supply chain.

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Who among the following has violated the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938?
a. Rachel, who pays all her workers a minimum wage of $13.
b. Sally, who does not consider time her employees spend travelling to work as compensable time.
c. Jeremy, who employs his 16-year-old cousin in his meat-packing plant.
d. Randy, who employs his 17-year-old son in his stationery store as a cashier.

Answers

The person who has violated the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 is (option) b. Sally, who does not consider time her employees spend traveling to work as compensable time.

Sally's failure to consider the time her employees spend traveling to work as compensable time violates the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA). According to the FLSA, employers must compensate employees for all hours worked, including travel time that is an integral part of their job duties. By not considering travel time as compensable, Sally is not providing her employees with the wages they are entitled to under the law.

The FLSA sets standards for minimum wage, overtime pay, and child labor, among other provisions, to ensure fair treatment and compensation for workers. In this case, Rachel, who pays all her workers a minimum wage of $13, is complying with the minimum wage requirement, and Jeremy, who employs his 16-year-old cousin in his meat-packing plant, may not be in violation if he adheres to the appropriate child labor restrictions. Similarly, Randy, who employs his 17-year-old son as a cashier, may not be in violation as long as he meets the requirements for employing minors. However, Sally's failure to consider travel time as compensable is a violation of the FLSA.

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If the U.S. has a bilateral trade agreement with the host country that calls for the total tax paid to be equal to the maximum amount that could be paid in the highest taxing country, what is the total amount of income taxes Green Valley Exporters will pay to the host country, and how much will they pay in U.S income taxes on the foreign earned income?A. $25,000; $10,000 B. $25,000; $26,250 C. $35,000; $0 D. None of these

Answers

The  B. Green Valley Exporters will pay a total of $25,000 in income taxes to the host country, which is equal to the maximum amount that could be paid in the highest taxing country as per the bilateral trade agreement. They will also pay $26,250 in U.S income taxes on the foreign earned income.

This is because the U.S taxes its citizens on their worldwide income, including income earned abroad. The foreign tax credit may apply to reduce the U.S tax liability by the amount of taxes paid to the host country, but in this case, the U.S tax liability exceeds the amount of foreign tax paid. Therefore, Green Valley Exporters will pay $26,250 in U.S income taxes.

Since the bilateral trade agreement states that the total tax paid should be equal to the maximum amount that could be paid in the highest taxing country, Green Valley Exporters will pay the maximum tax amount to the host country. In this case, that amount is $35,000. As a result of the trade agreement, Green Valley Exporters will not need to pay any additional U.S. income taxes on the foreign earned income, as the total tax paid is already equal to the highest possible amount.

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Does valuing a CDS using real-world default probabilities rather than risk-neutral default probabilities overstate or understate its value?

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Valuing a credit default swap (CDS) using real-world default probabilities, as opposed to risk-neutral default probabilities, can potentially either overstate or understate its value, depending on the circumstances.

Valuing a CDS requires estimating the probability of default by the reference entity. Risk-neutral default probabilities are typically used in financial models as they reflect market expectations and take into account the risk premium associated with the credit risk.

If real-world default probabilities are higher than risk-neutral default probabilities, valuing a CDS using real-world probabilities may overstate its value since it would reflect a higher expected loss. Conversely, if real-world default probabilities are lower than risk-neutral default probabilities, valuing a CDS using real-world probabilities may understate its value as it would imply a lower expected loss.

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Michal has an investment with the following annual returns for four years: Year 1:12% Year 2:-5% Year 3: 8% Year 4: 18% What is the arithmetic mean (AM) and what is the geometric mean (GM)?. AM = 8.25%, GM = 7.91%. AM = 8.25%, GM = 10.64%. AM = 10.75%, GM = 7.91%. AM = 10.75%, GM = 10.64%.

Answers

AM = 8.25%, GM = 7.91%.

The arithmetic mean (AM) is calculated by summing all the annual returns and dividing by the number of years. In this case, (12% - 5% + 8% + 18%) / 4 = 33% / 4 = 8.25%.

The geometric mean (GM) is calculated by taking the nth root of the product of (1 + R), where R represents the annual returns as decimal values. In this case, (1 + 0.12) * (1 - 0.05) * (1 + 0.08) * (1 + 0.18) = 1.15 * 0.95 * 1.08 * 1.18 = 1.23588. Taking the fourth root of 1.23588 gives us (1.23588)^(1/4) ≈ 1.0791 or 7.91%.

Therefore, the correct answer is that the arithmetic mean (AM) is 8.25% and the geometric mean (GM) is 7.91%. The arithmetic mean represents the average return over the four years, while the geometric mean represents the compounded annual growth rate.

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an advantage of a ________ allows a firm to hedge against currency risks. group of answer choices low tqm

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An advantage of a low total quality management (TQM) approach allows a firm to hedge against currency risks.

TQM refers to a management philosophy that focuses on continuous improvement and quality control in all aspects of an organization's operations. While TQM may not directly address currency risks, its emphasis on efficient and effective processes can indirectly contribute to hedging against such risks.

By implementing TQM practices, firms can enhance operational efficiency, reduce costs, and improve overall performance. This improved performance can help firms better withstand currency fluctuations and mitigate potential financial losses associated with foreign exchange rate changes.

TQM involves various principles and practices aimed at improving quality and efficiency throughout an organization. These practices include process optimization, waste reduction, employee empowerment, and customer focus. By implementing TQM, firms can streamline their operations, eliminate inefficiencies, and minimize costs. This increased operational efficiency can provide a competitive advantage and strengthen the firm's financial position, enabling it to better handle currency risks.

When a firm engages in international business activities, it becomes exposed to currency risks, such as exchange rate fluctuations. These fluctuations can impact the firm's profitability and financial stability, especially if the firm has significant foreign currency transactions or operations. However, by adopting a low TQM approach and implementing effective quality control measures, firms can achieve cost savings, reduce waste, and enhance productivity. These improvements contribute to a stronger financial position, making the firm more resilient to currency risks. Additionally, by continuously monitoring and improving processes, firms can identify and respond to changes in the market and adjust their strategies accordingly.

In summary, while a low TQM approach may not directly address currency risks, it offers advantages that can indirectly help firms hedge against such risks. By implementing TQM practices, firms can enhance operational efficiency, reduce costs, and improve overall performance, which in turn strengthens their financial position and enables them to better withstand currency fluctuations.

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Given total cost of producing your product is $7.7M, storing your product is $3.2M, and transportation of the product to the intended destination is $4.4M, what is the landed cost for your product?a) $3.4M b) $6.1M c) $9.7M d) $15.3M

Answers

Landed cost refers to the total cost of a product once it has arrived at its intended destination, including the cost of production.

storage, transportation, customs duties, taxes, and any other costs associated with getting the product to its final destination. It is an important metric for businesses that import or export products as i helps to determine the true cost of the product and its profitability.

In the given scenario, the total cost of producing the product is $7.7M, which includes the cost of raw materials, labor, and overhead costs. The cost of storing the product is $3.2M, which includes the cost of warehousing, handling, and insurance. The cost of transportation to the intended destination is $4.4M, which includes the cost of shipping or transportation, including fuel and other expenses.

To calculate the landed cost, we add up all these costs, including any customs duties, taxes, or other expenses incurred in getting the product to its final destination. In this case, we are only given the costs of production, storage, and transportation, so we simply add those up to get the landed cost of $15.3M.

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Which of the metrics below represents the agreed upon time between the purchase of a product and the delivery of the product? Inventory cycle time back order Inventory turnover customer order cycle time

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Customer order cycle time is a metric that represents the agreed upon time between the purchase of a product and the delivery of the product.

It is an essential measure in supply chain management and reflects the efficiency and responsiveness of a company's order fulfillment process. The customer order cycle time starts when the customer places an order and encompasses activities such as order processing, inventory allocation, picking and packing, shipping, and final delivery.

By tracking and analyzing this metric, organizations can assess their ability to meet customer demands and identify areas for improvement in their supply chain operations. A shorter customer order cycle time indicates faster order processing and delivery, leading to higher customer satisfaction and potentially gaining a competitive advantage in the market.

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when assembling a capable management team, the most important consideration is to recruit people multiple choice who have similar management styles, leadership approaches, business philosophies, and personalities. with personal commitments to social responsibility and a good track record for compliance with ethical norms. who are clear thinkers, are capable of figuring out what needs to be done, are good at managing people, and are skilled in delivering good results. who can drive change and create outstanding long-term profits. with strong organizational commitment and loyalty to superiors.

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Assembling a capable management team is crucial for the success of any business, and there are several factors to consider when recruiting individuals for this purpose.

While it may seem logical to recruit people who have similar management styles, leadership approaches, business philosophies, and personalities, this may not always be the best strategy. In fact, having a diverse team with a range of perspectives and skill sets can often lead to more innovative solutions and better outcomes. That being said, there are certain qualities that are essential for any member of a management team. Firstly, they should be clear thinkers who are capable of analyzing complex problems and figuring out what needs to be done. They should also be skilled at managing people and have a track record of delivering good results. A commitment to social responsibility and ethical norms is crucial, as this not only ensures that the business operates in a responsible and sustainable manner, but also helps to build trust with customers and stakeholders.

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Tapley Dental Associates is considering a project that has the following cash flow data. What is the project's payback?
Year 0 1 2 3 4 5
Cash flows -$1,000 $300 $310 $320 $330 $340
a. 2.11 years
b. 2.50 years
c. 2.71 years
d. 3.05 years

Answers

The answer is A. 2.11 years

A monopolist has less to gain from cost-saving measures in the production process when
a. the monopoly is unregulated.
b. regulators use average cost pricing to set the monopolist's price.
c. the demand for the product of the monopolist is inelastic.
d. changes in the regulated price occur only after considerable delay.

Answers

The monopolist has less to gain from cost-saving measures in the production process when the regulators use average cost pricing to set the monopolist's price (option b).

Option b states that regulators use average cost pricing to set the monopolist's price. In this scenario, the monopolist is allowed to set prices based on its average costs of production. This means that even if the monopolist implements cost-saving measures and reduces its production costs, it cannot pass on the savings to consumers through lower prices. As a result, the monopolist has less incentive to invest in cost-saving measures because it will not directly benefit from them in terms of increased profits or market competitiveness.

Options a, c, and d do not directly address the effect of cost-saving measures on the monopolist's incentives. While option a mentions an unregulated monopoly, it does not specifically address the impact on cost-saving measures. Options c and d discuss the demand for the monopolist's product and the timing of regulated price changes, but they do not directly relate to the monopolist's incentives for cost-saving measures. Therefore, option b is the correct answer as it directly addresses the impact of pricing regulation on the monopolist's incentives for cost-saving measures.

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to identify top candidates for positions within his design firm, alonzo networks with engineering professors and hosts informational sessions on campuses across the country. alonzo is performing

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Alonzo is performing recruitment activities to identify top candidates for positions within his design firm.

Recruitment is the process of identifying and attracting potential candidates for a job or position within an organization. In this scenario, Alonzo is actively engaging in recruitment activities to identify top candidates for positions within his design firm.

By networking with engineering professors and hosting informational sessions on campuses across the country, Alonzo is trying to reach out to talented individuals who may be interested in working for his firm.

Networking with professors can help Alonzo identify promising students or recent graduates who have the skills and knowledge needed for the position. Hosting informational sessions can also help him showcase his firm's culture, values, and job opportunities to potential candidates.

By actively recruiting, Alonzo can increase the chances of finding the best possible candidates for his design firm, which can help improve the overall quality of his team and ultimately benefit the business.

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