The interventions that should be included in the care plan for a severely dysphagic client with ALS are:
Provide oral hygiene after each meal.Assess swallowing ability frequently.Allow the client sufficient time to eat.Maintain a suction machine at the bedside.Providing oral hygiene after each meal helps maintain oral health and prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia, which is a concern for clients with dysphagia.
Assessing swallowing ability frequently allows for ongoing monitoring of the client's swallowing function, detecting any changes or worsening of dysphagia, and guiding appropriate interventions.
Allowing the client sufficient time to eat is important as they may require more time to chew and swallow safely. Rushing the client may increase the risk of choking or aspiration.
Maintaining a suction machine at the bedside is crucial in case of aspiration or choking emergencies. It enables the prompt removal of secretions or foreign objects from the airway, promoting airway clearance and preventing respiratory compromise.
The option of providing a full liquid diet for ease in swallowing may not be appropriate for all clients with dysphagia, including those with severe dysphagia like the client with ALS mentioned. Dietary modifications should be determined based on the client's specific swallowing capabilities and recommendations from a speech-language pathologist or dysphagia specialist.
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The complete question is:
The nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client with a diagnosis of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). On assessment, the nurse notes that the client is severely dysphagic. Which intervention should be included in the care plan for this client? Select all that apply.
1. Provide oral hygiene after each meal.2. Assess swallowing ability frequently.3. Allow the client sufficient time to eat.4. Maintain a suction machine at the bedside.5. Provide a full liquid diet for ease in swallowing.The licensed practical nurse (LPN) is performing a purified protein derivative (PPD) test on a nursing home resident. Which statements about this test are correct
The preferred injection site is the ventral surface of the forearm and the purified protein derivative (PPD) test is an intradermal test.
Purified protein derivativeCurrently, the only skin test reagent for tuberculosis diagnosis that is commercially accessible is called purified protein derivative (PPD) (TB). The purpose of this work was to create a Mycobacterium tuberculosis-specific skin test reagent that would not produce false positive findings from the Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccine utilizing recombinant antigens. By comparing the proteins in the M. tuberculosis culture filtrate to the proteins in PPD IC-65 using tandem mass spectrometry, 54 proteins were discovered to be shared. Top candidates ESAT 6, CFP 10, and MPT64 were overexpressed in Escherichia coli expression strains and isolated as recombinant proteins. The antigens were tested on guinea pigs that had been exposed to M. tuberculosis H37Rv and BCG to determine the best immunodiagnostic PPD combinations to use.
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Imagine that tom, a 51-year-old man, breaks his foot and is nonambulatory for 8 weeks. What term describes the increase in tom’s energy expenditures?
Imagine that Tom, a 51-year-old man, breaks his foot and cannot walk for 8 weeks. The term that describes Tom's increased energy expenditure is bedridden patient
What does Nonambulatory mean?
“Non-ambulatory Persons” means persons unable to leave a building unassisted under emergency conditions.
What is the difference between ambulatory and non-ambulatory?Patients were classified as ambulatory or non-ambulatory based on the self-reported ability to walk 150 feet, walk one block, and climb one flight of stairs. Patients who could perform all the activities were classified as ambulatory; those who could perform none of the activities were classified as non-ambulatory.
With this information, we can conclude that The term that describes Tom's increased energy expenditure is bedridden patient
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The nurse educator is preparing an in-service on administration of sustained-release tablets. Which true statement about sustained-release tablets would the educator include in the preparation
The true statement about sustained-release tablets in which the educator would include in the preparation is that they should never be split, crushed, or chewed is what the educator should include in the preparation of sustained-release tablets.
What is Sustained-release tablets?These are the medications which are very potent and dissolve at a slow rate over an extended period of time thereby releasing small amounts at a time for optimal function.
Having it crushed or chewed will allow for more absorption of the medication into the bloodstream as a result of the surface area being increased which could lead to incidences of overdose or side effects being experienced.
This is therefore why Sustained-release tablets should be ingested as a whole substance.
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A pregnant woman is choking inside a local restaurant. Who has the most compelling legal duty to act?
13) when neither anti-a serum nor anti-b serum clot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type ________
When neither anti-A serum nor anti-B serum cause clumping (agglutination) of donor cells, the blood type specified is O.
What is agglutination?
Antibodies or agglutinins for the antigens A and B exsist in the plasma and these are termed anti-A and anti-B. Antigen antibody complexes are formed when the corresponding antigen and antibody are not present, thus effectively agglutinating the blood. in this, few blood drops are mixed with sera that contain anti -sera or antibodies. If the blood doesn't react to any of the anti-A or anti-B serum , then the blood type is O. The blood group O contains both antibodis A and B but contains neither A antigen nor B antigen. Therefore , blood type O is referred to as universal donor.
So, when neither anti-a serum nor anti-b serum clot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type O.
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Nearly all the somatosensory input to the cerebrum passes by way of synapses in which region of the brain?.
The thalamus is the brain region from which all the somatosensory input passes by the synapses to the cerebrum.
The brain is a central nervous system of all humans, which controls all voluntary and involuntary actions. It has three major parts- Forebrain( Prosencephalon), Midbrain( Mesencephalon), and Hindbrain( rhombencephalon). The forebrain is the largest part of the brain having two parts cerebrum and the diencephalon.
The thalamus is the part of the diencephalon, which performs the somatosensory function by transmitting all the sensory information by the impulses from the various receptors present in the body to the cerebral cortex.
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Sally has attended birthing class at the local hospital, and has learned breathing and relaxation techniques to use during delivery. Sally is most likely preparing for a(n) Blank______ childbirth.
Answer:
at home childbirth
Explanation:
why would she be learning if they tell you what to do in a hospital
Activities lasting longer than twenty minutes will gradually start using less glucose and more ________.
What should be included in the discharge teaching plan for a client who has lymphedema post right mastectomy
Things that should be included in the discharge teaching plan for a client who has lymphedema post right mastectomy are:
1. Use a thimble when sewing.
2. Wear a heavy duty oven mitt for removing hot objects from the oven.
3. Long sleeves should be worn to prevent insect bites.
4. Shave underarms with an electric razor
What is lymphedema ?Lymphedema refers to tissue swelling caused by an accumulation of protein-rich fluid that's usually drained through the body's lymphatic system.Lymphedema can be caused by cancer treatments that remove or damage your lymph nodes. Severe cases of lymphedema can affect the ability to move the affected limb, increase the risks of skin infections and sepsis, and can lead to skin changes and breakdownTreatment may include compression bandages, massage, compression stockings, sequential pneumatic pumping, careful skin care and, rarely, surgery to remove swollen tissue or to create new drainage routes.To learn more about lymphedema,
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a nurse is caring for a laboring client who experienced a precipitous birth. which of the following actions should the nurse take
Postpartum hemorrhage actions should the nurse take to caring for a laboring client who experienced a precipitous birth.
What is postpartum hemorrhage?35 percent of maternal deaths are due to postpartum hemorrhage (PPH), the primary cause of maternal mortality worldwide. PPH is essentially caused by the placenta failing to fully separate from the uterine wall, most commonly due to uterine muscle contraction problems.Postpartum hemorrhage, or PPH, occurs when a woman experiences significant bleeding soon after delivering birth. It's a severe yet uncommon condition. It typically occurs within a day of giving birth, however it can sometimes occur up to 12 weeks later. PPH affects 1 to 5 out of every 100 new mothers (or 1 to 5 percent of them).Classically, there are four types of shock: distributive shock, cardiogenic shock, obstructive shock, and hypovolemic shock.Learn more about postpartum hemorrhage here:
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Disclaimer: The question given in the portal is incomplete. Here the complete question.
Question: A nurse is caring for a laboring client who experienced a precipitous birth. which of the following actions should the nurse take?
1. Retained placenta
2. Postpartum hemorrhage
3. Hemorrhoids
4. Uterine rupture
Flexibility, mobility, balance, and core training are all included in which category of training? Speed, agility, and quickness (SAQ) Foundational training Strength training Metabolic training
According to the research, the correct option is Speed, agility, and quickness (SAQ) category of training.
What is Speed, agility, and quickness (SAQ)?It refers to a training concept that seeks to improve the speed-agility of the foot movements of players in numerous sports.
Flexibility, mobility, balance, and core training are included in this training to meet the body's need for stability in all planes of motion, and other physically demanding activities.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the correct option is Speed, agility, and quickness (SAQ) category of training.
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Which finding(s) is a major criterion used to help the health care provider diagnose acute rheumatic fever in a child
Subcutaneous nodules and Pericarditis are considered major criteria used in the diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever.
Rheumatic fever is an untreated throat streptococcal infection-related consequence that causes inflammation of the joints, heart, skin, and neurological system. While rheumatic fever can occur at any age, it tends to affect children and teenagers between the ages of 5 and 15.
Depending on which body organs become damaged, rheumatic fever symptoms might vary substantially. Rheumatic fever symptoms include joint discomfort, fever, and swelling. Heart inflammation (carditis)-related chest discomfort or palpitations as well as tiny nodules under the skin.
Some children with heart inflammation do not even exhibit any symptoms, and the inflammation is only identified until there is cardiac damage years later. Other children experience chest pain brought on by heart sac inflammation ( pericarditis). Children may experience both chest pain and a high fever.
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A woman expresses to you a desire to attempt to birth without pain medications. She likes the idea of a labor coach, but she is apprehensive about having anyone other than her husband and the doctor in the room at the time of delivery. What method of childbirth education would best suit this woman
Bradley's method of childbirth best suits this woman.
The process of childbirth is done with very careful planning and methods. Normal delivery is the most common method of childbirth. Apart from this various childbirth methods are also recommended by doctors for safe delivery of the baby. These methods are- C-section, vaginal delivery( normal), water delivery, Bradley method, etc.
Bradley's method refers to the safe delivery of the baby in a natural way coached by the husband. This method is also known as Husband coached natural childbirth. This method focuses on the relaxation and the sense of safety of a woman at the time of delivery without any medication.
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which cue would the nurse expect to identify when assessing a patient whose health record indicates an acoustic neuroma
Loss of hearing, tinnitus, and vertigo
What is acoustic neuroma?The major nerve (vestibular) that connects your inner ear to your brain might develop a noncancerous growth called an acoustic neuroma, also known as a vestibular schwannoma. The pressure from an acoustic neuroma can cause hearing loss, ringing in the ears, and unsteadiness. Branches of this nerve directly affect your balance and hearing.
Schwann cells that cover this nerve give rise to acoustic neuromas, which often grow slowly or not at all. Rarely, it may develop quickly and enlarge to the point where it presses against the brain and causes vital functions to be disrupted.
Typical symptoms of an acoustic neuroma include hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo attacks, and stumbling gait. Loss of eyesight, increased salt retention, or tachycardia are not side effects of acoustic neuromas.
I understand the question you are looking for is this:
A nurse is assessing a patient with an acoustic neuroma who has been recently admitted to an oncology unit. What symptoms is the nurse likely to find during the initial assessment?
A) Loss of hearing, tinnitus, and vertigo
B) Loss of vision, change in mental status, and hyperthermia
C) Loss of hearing, increased sodium retention, and hypertension
D) Loss of vision, headache, and tachycardia
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What is management in public health?
Answer:
Explanation:La gestión de la salud pública es un conjunto de procesos que, bajo la dirección y liderazgo de la autoridad sanitaria, buscan que todos los actores del Sistema de Salud logren resultados en salud, mediante el desarrollo e implementación efectiva y eficiente de las políticas, planes, programas
Set of processes used to determine the appropriateness of medical services provided during specific episodes of care.
Utilization Management (UM)
composed of a set of processes used to determine the appropriateness of medical services provided during specific episodes of care. Whether the services are determined to be appropriate is based on the patient's diagnosis, the site of care, the length of stay (LOS), and other clinical factors.
What is Utilization Management (UM) ?Utilization management (UM) is the evaluation of the medical necessity, appropriateness, and efficiency of the use of health care services, procedures, and facilities
The goal is to ensure the delivery of efficient and effective health care, to reduce the misuse of inpatient services, and to promote high quality and safe patient care during the inpatient component of the care.Learn more about Utilization Management (UM) here:
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The nurse is suctioning a client's tracheostomy using an open system. For which action should the nurse use the gloved, dominant hand
The action that the nurse should use globed dominant hand is when manipulating the suction catheter.
What is tracheostomy?Tracheostomy is defined as the medical procedure that involves the incision of the anterior part of the trachea through with a pipe is being passed thereby allowing the patient to breath.
The patient's that are in need of a tracheostomy are those patients that:
Finds it difficult to breathe normally after an injury or accident, andPatients that are suffering from severe muscle weakness.Medical conditions that make it necessary to use a breathing machine (ventilator) for an extended period.Medical conditions that block or narrow your airway, such as vocal cord paralysis or throat cancer.The dominant hand is the hand that is not always being used while carrying out a procedure.
During tracheostomy, manipulating the suction catheter should be done with the both hands therefore the nurse should use the gloves dominant hand too.
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In order to provide culturally sensitive health care, providers must understand and
take into consideration the cultural differences of their clients. Which of the
following would be the most unlikely practical first step for a health care provider to
take?
A healthcare provider should develop good communication with his or her parents.
What is health care?A healthcare provider is described as a doctor of medicine, dentist, nurse, or clinical psychologist who provide treatment to his or her patient so that they get relief from the pain or the disease they are suffering from. A healthcare provider performs various roles that are they improve health, eradicating diseases, and providing healthcare services.The healthcare system can be divided into four parts they are promoting health, preventing the disease, diagnosing, and then providing treatment after proper rehabilitation.To learn more about healthcare, refer to:
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Describe why it is necessary to understand the difference between inpatient and outpatient coding guidelines.
It is necessary to understand the difference between inpatient and outpatient coding guidelines because both patients have different needs and treatments.
What is the difference between inpatient and outpatient coding guidelines?Outpatient coding is the detailed diagnosis report in which the patient is treated in one visit, while on the other hand, an inpatient coding is a system that is used to report a patient's diagnosis during his duration of stay. So understand the difference between inpatient is very necessary for the nursing staff in order to give the right treatment.
So we can conclude that it is necessary to understand the difference between inpatient and outpatient coding guidelines because both patients have different needs and treatments.
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Individuals who are high users of pain relieving medications are _______ to benefit from pain management programs than less frequent users.
Individuals who are high users of pain-relieving medications are less likely to benefit from pain management programs than less frequent users.
Pain occurs when there is a disease condition, Analgesics are the painkillers drugs used to relieve the pain in the body. These medications are taken for all types of pain like- injury, internal pain of the body, headache, etc., Individuals who take a high dose of pain killers get addicted to them. In such individuals, there is no effect of the painkillers and the pain becomes severe. This is why they are less likely beneficial from Pain Management Program.
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The medical term ____________________ describes a chronic condition that produces redness, tiny pimples, and broken blood vessels.
The medical term Rosacea describes a chronic condition that produces redness, tiny pimples, and broken blood vessels.
Skin disorders:
When any pathogen like bacteria, viruses, fungi, etc. invades the body it causes infection or disease. The infection can be of any part of the body. The infections that occur on the dermal surface of the body like on the skin are known as skin disorders or skin diseases. These may be painful, painless, temporary, or lethal. Some of the skin disorders are Acne, blisters, etc.,
Rosacea is a chronic skin disorder, caused by the intestinal bacteria Helicobacter pyroli. Rosacea are of four types-
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A 4-year-old boy was seen two weeks ago by his pediatrician because his father was concerned about him being very clumsy lately. The boy also has a hard time running, climbing stairs and he walks on tiptoes. There is a strong family history of muscular dystrophy. They are here today to go over the results of a muscle biopsy and EMG results. A confirmed diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy was made. The pediatrician wrote a prescription for physical therapy, and leg braces.
The 2022 ICD-10-CM Diagnostic code for this type of disease involving the nervous system is G71.01.
What is ICD-10-CM code?This is known as morbidity classification which classifies diagnosis and reasons for visits to healthcare facilities.
The boy has muscular dystrophy as a result of defects in the nervous system with the diagnosis for such being G00-G99 thererby making G71.01 the most appropriate choice.
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A blood-borne pathogen training class might
include.
A bloodborne pathogen training class might include Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis B virus (HBV), and hepatitis C virus (HCV) they are the most common bloodborne pathogens from which health care workers are at risk
What drug or substance that might change the way things work in a synapse
Stimulants and depressants have an effect on the synapses among neurons in the frightened system:
stimulants purpose greater neurotransmitter molecules to diffuse throughout the synapse.depressants stop the next neurone sending nerve impulses.Psychotropic drugs exert their outcomes by changing a synaptic occasion. these alterations in the end change the pastime of a neurotransmitter. some psychotropic drugs facilitate the effects of a neurotransmitter, and are referred to as agonistic.
Tablets make their effects regarded via performing to beautify or intervene with the interest of neurotransmitters and receptors in the synapses of the mind. some neurotransmitters carry inhibitory messages across the synapses, at the same time as others bring excitatory messages.
Amphetamine, heroin, marijuana, nicotine, alcohol, and prescription painkillers, can regulate a person's conduct by way of interfering with neurotransmitters and the regular communique between brain cells.
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A 6-year-old patient is seen in the office for acute otitis media, coded as H66.90. This is an example of what ICD-10-CM convention
A 6-year-old patient with acute otitis media is examined in the office; the diagnosis is H66.90. This is an example of the ICD-10-CM Not Otherwise Specified (NOS) convention.
Not Otherwise Specified (NOS)Not Otherwise Specified (NOS) is a subtype of diseases and disorders in medical classification schemes such as the ICD-9, ICD-10, or DSM-IV. When a particular diagnosis was not determined but the symptoms were enough to generate a broad diagnostic, it is usually used to highlight the presence of an ailment.
According to the DSM-IV, for instance, "an illness or disturbance that does not fit the criteria for the specific disorders already addressed is referred to as not otherwise specified (NOS)". The phrase was created as a result of the fact that "it is sometimes difficult for the practitioner doing the diagnostic evaluation to group all of the symptoms that a client is experiencing into one diagnostic category."
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Emt training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the?
EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the: National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA).
EMT route is a scientific path in which college students might take information approximately patient care and plenty of extra through numerous applications consisting of certificates, degrees, UG, and PG.
Almost, there are 60 institutes that provide this course in an expansion of a minimum of 10 courses. it is a popular direction this is affiliated with the Healthcare sector skill Council (HSSC).
Emergency scientific Technicians-simple (EMT-B) reply to emergency calls to provide green and instant care to the significantly unwell and injured and to transport the patient to a clinical facility.
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The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has nasal packing in place following nasal surgery. Which discharge instructions would be most appropriate for the client
The discharge instructions that would be most appropriate for the client is to avoid sports activities for 6 weeks.
What is nasal packing?Nasal packing is a medical procedure that involves the insertion of an intranasal device that applies constant local pressure to the nasal septum.
This procedure is carried out through nasal surgery due to the following reasons:
it is used to drain excess fluid secretionsit is used to drain blood after surgery.This procedure is usually removed after few weeks of placement.
Therefore, part of the discharge instructions that would be most appropriate for the client is to avoid sports activities for 6 weeks.
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A nurse urges a pregnant client at the first prenatal office visit to begin taking iron supplements immediately. What is the rationale for this intervention
Anemia is the rationale for this intervention that nurse urges a pregnant client at the first prenatal office visit to begin taking iron supplements immediately.
What is anemia?Low levels of red blood cells are referred to as anemia. Anemia is diagnosed through a standard blood test by a low hematocrit or hemoglobin level.Blood loss, a lack of new red blood cells being produced, and a high rate of red blood cell apoptosis are the three basic causes of anemia. Heavy periods are one factor that may cause anemia.When your body doesn't have enough healthy red blood cells to deliver oxygen throughout it, you have anemia. Anemia may be persistent or transient (chronic). Anemia is frequently moderate, but it can occasionally be significant and even fatal.This kind of anemia is not specifically treated. The underlying illness is the main thing that doctors treat.Learn more about anemia here:
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A nurse is assessing a newborn with the parents present. The nurse explains that which aspect of newborn behavior is an important indication of neurologic development and function
The presence and strength of a reflex is an important indication of neurologic development and function.
What is meant by neurological development?
The word "neurodevelopment" describes how the brain develops neural networks that affect behaviour or functioning (e.g., intellectual functioning, reading ability, social skills, memory, attention, or focus skills).
The rapid rate of brain development beginning before birth and continuing throughout early childhood is one of the key causes. Although the brain continues to grow and develop throughout adulthood, the first eight years of life can lay the groundwork for future success in learning, health, and living. The differentiation of neural progenitor cells, which starts in the third gestational week (GW), is the first step in the lengthy process of human brain development.
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The average American adult needs ____ hours of sleep a night, and actually averages about ____ hours.
The average American adult needs 9 hours of sleep period per night, and actually averages about 8 hours.
Why we need sleep ?Sleep is crucial for survival.
During sleep the brain get enough time to sort, arrange and store information as well as replaces chemicals and solve the complex issues.
On an average the amount of sleep of a person depend on his age, for babies it is about 14 to 15 hours a day where as for people about 7 or 8 hours of sleep.
Five night sleep skipping leads to hallucination.
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