Though dark and light phenotypes existed among the moth populations, an albino moth was recently discovered. Complete the data below in order to better understand how this may DNA = ATCG happen. Complementary rules MRNA-UAGS Dark moth - Dominant allele: DNA: TACCGTCGCATACACTGGGGTCAGGACGAGTCGCATCCAGACGGGTCGTCGGACATGATC mRNA: AAS: Light moth Recessive allele: DNA: mRNA: AAS: Albino moth DNA: mRNA: AAS: - TACCGTCGCATACACTGGGGTTAGGACGAGTCGCATCCAGACGGGTCGTCGGACATGATC Unknown allele: TACCGTCGCATACACTGGGGTCAGGACGAGATCGCATCCAGACGGGTCGTCGGACATGATC When responding below, be sure to use the precise terms for the mutations when appropriate. Write a claim to answer this question: What you think occurred to produce the dark and light phenotypes? Provide specific evidence from the mRNA-amino acid sequences for this claim: Propose a hypothesis as to what occurred to produce an albino moth:​

Answers

Answer 1

By 1900, the peppered moth populations in areas around English cities were as much as 98% dark moths. Scientists became curious why this was happening.

What are dark moths?

Eggs from light moths developed into light moths and dark moth eggs turned to dark adults. The dark color was caused by a mutation in the DNA of a single moth, and the mutated gene had been passed to all its offspring.

Why did dark moths have an advantage?

As the trees darkened with soot, the light-colored moths were easier to see. They were eaten by birds more and more, while the rare dark colored moths blended in better on the darker trees. This made the dark colored moths have a higher survival rate.

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Related Questions

6.illustrate and explain how the level of dna sequence similarity between organisms reveals their relationship through evolution.

Answers

The level of DNA sequence similarity between organisms reveals their relationship through evolution because if two organisms are evolutionarily related then their genetic sequences are very similar or may be even identical.

DNA stands for Deoxyribonucleic Acid. It is the major form of genetic material present in majority of the organisms. The structure of DNA is composed of two anti-parallel strands joined together by hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous bases.

Evolution is the long-term phenomenon of changes in a population in order to adapt better in their changing surroundings and survive. The evolution takes generations over generations to occur and is a population phenomenon.

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How are electrochemical gradients significant in how the heart works?

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The electrochemical gradients are significant in the working of the heart by transportation of the sodium and potassium ions across the heart muscles.

What is electrochemical gradients?

The driving force that propels a molecule through a membrane is being measured using the electrochemical gradient, also known as the electrochemical potential difference.

They provide differences for the movement of sodium and calcium ions  ions across the cardiac muscles for the working of the heart. Therefore, it helps the heart muscles to beat.

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Which of the following statements does NOT correctly validate the three strands that compose modern cell biology?A. Cellular structure arises from the combined structures of the macromolecules that compose cells.B. Mutations in the cellular DNA can compromise cellular and macromolecular structure and function.C. Cellular DNA contains information about the structure and function of cellular proteins.D. All of the other available answer choices validate the relationships between the three strands that compose modern cell biology.

Answers

D. All of the other available answer choiceses validate the relationships between the three strands that compose modern cell biology

The three strands that compose modern cell biology are cellular structure, macromolecules, and genetic information. Option A is correct because cellular structures such as membranes, cytoskeleton, and organelles are composed of macromolecules such as lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.

Option B is also correct because mutations in cellular DNA can compromise the structure and function of macromolecules and cellular structures. For example, a mutation in a gene that codes for a structural protein may result in an abnormal protein that disrupts the cellular structure.

Option C is also correct because the genetic information encoded in DNA determines the sequence of amino acids that make up cellular proteins, which in turn determine their structure and function.

In summary, option D is the incorrect answer because it suggests that all available answer choices validate the relationships between the three strands, while one of them does not.

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which statement indicates to the nurse that the client understands how to calculate her fertile period using the calendar method of birth control?

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Based on this information, I know that I am most likely to ovulate on the 14th day before my next period, and I will avoid having sex during that time to prevent pregnancy."

explain fertile period ?

The fertile period, also known as the "fertile window," refers to the period of time during a woman's menstrual cycle when she is most likely to become pregnant if she has unprotected sexual intercourse. This period typically lasts for several days leading up to and including the day of ovulation, which is when an egg is released from the ovary and can be fertilized by sperm.

The length of the fertile period can vary depending on the length of a woman's menstrual cycle, which is the number of days from the first day of her period to the first day of her next period.

A statement that indicates to the nurse that the client understands how to calculate her fertile period using the calendar method of birth control could be:

"I have been tracking my menstrual cycles and have identified the length of my shortest cycle and longest cycle. Based on this information, I know that I am most likely to ovulate on the 14th day before my next period, and I will avoid having sex during that time to prevent pregnancy."

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categorize the description to their corresponding leukocyte type by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location.

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hey!! the answer is in the photo! hope you do well on your exam!!

Which of the following structure(s) is/are associated with the sympathetic nervous system? Check all that apply Check All That Apply - The adrenal cortex - The adrenal medulla - The thoracolumbar spinal cord - The pineal gland - The vagus nerve

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The adrenal medulla and the thoracolumbar spinal cord are basically associated with sympathetic nervous system.

The sympathetic nervous system is basically the part of the autonomic nervous system. It can also be called our automatic nervous system because it is responsible for a lot of functions for which we don’t have to think about in order to control. This includes the control of your heart rate, digestion, urination, blood pressure, and sweating, among a lot of other functions.

The sympathetic nervous system is basically known for its role in producing response to dangerous or to stressful situations. The adrenal medulla and the thoracolumbar spinal cord are basically associated with sympathetic nervous system.

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a. Imagine generating two random sequences, each 100 nucleotides in length. If you align them pairwise, at how many positions are they expected to match just by chance? (hint: think about the chance a single randomly chosen nucleotide will match another randomly chosen nucleotide)
b. Now imagine generating two random sequences, each 100 amino acids in length. In a pairwise alignment, at how many positions are they expected to match by chance?

Answers

We can expect that the number of matches by chance would be either 0 or 1. However, it's worth noting that this assumes that all amino acids have an equal probability of occurring at each position, which is not necessarily true in reality.

What is Nucleotide?

A nucleotide is a small organic molecule that serves as the basic building block of nucleic acids, which are the genetic material of all living organisms. Nucleotides consist of three parts: a nitrogenous base, a five-carbon sugar molecule, and a phosphate group.

a. For two random sequences each 100 nucleotides in length, the chance of a single nucleotide in one sequence matching a specific nucleotide in the other sequence is 1/4, since there are four possible nucleotides (A, C, G, T) at each position. Therefore, the chance of two nucleotides in the two sequences matching by chance is (1/4) x (1/4) = 1/16.

Since there are 100 positions in each sequence, we can expect that the number of matches by chance would be:

100 x (1/16) = 6.25

However, since we cannot have a fraction of a match, we can expect that the number of matches by chance would be either 6 or 7.

b. For two random sequences each 100 amino acids in length, the chance of a single amino acid in one sequence matching a specific amino acid in the other sequence depends on the number of possible amino acids that can occur at each position. There are 20 possible amino acids, so the chance of two amino acids in the two sequences matching by chance is (1/20) x (1/20) = 1/400.

Since there are 100 positions in each sequence, we can expect that the number of matches by chance would be:

100 x (1/400) = 0.25

Therefore, we can expect that the number of matches by chance would be either 0 or 1. However, it's worth noting that this assumes that all amino acids have an equal probability of occurring at each position, which is not necessarily true in reality. The actual number of matches observed in a pairwise alignment of two protein sequences will depend on the specific sequences being compared and their degree of similarity.

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Why is it important for DNA to remain in the nucleus?

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Explanation:

DNA contains the genetic information necessary for the growth, development, and function of all living organisms. It is responsible for the production of proteins, which carry out essential functions within cells. Therefore, it is important for DNA to remain in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells, where it is protected and tightly regulated.

If DNA were to leave the nucleus, it could potentially be damaged by various external factors, such as radiation or chemical exposure, leading to genetic mutations and abnormalities. Additionally, the complex processes of DNA replication, transcription, and translation require the tightly regulated environment of the nucleus, which contains specialized proteins and enzymes that facilitate these processes.

Moreover, DNA in the nucleus is organized and packaged into a highly structured form called chromatin, which helps to compact the long strands of DNA and maintain its stability. The nuclear envelope also serves as a physical barrier that separates the DNA from the rest of the cell, helping to prevent interactions with other cellular components that could interfere with its function.

In summary, the nuclear localization of DNA is critical for its protection, regulation, and efficient function within eukaryotic cells.


Extinction is a naturally occurring process where organisms that can no longer compete die off. An extinction can have different impacts depending on the organism and the health of that ecosystem
Which of the following explains how extinction and biodiversity are related?

Answers

Extinction and biodiversity are related in that extinction reduce biodiversity.

How are extinction and biodiversity related?

Biodiversity refers to the variety of living organisms within an ecosystem or on Earth as a whole.

When a species goes extinct, its unique genetic information and ecological role are lost. This loss of genetic and ecological diversity can have ripple effects throughout the ecosystem, as other species may depend on the extinct species for food or other resources, or may compete with it for resources. Over time, repeated extinctions can lead to a decline in overall biodiversity and a less resilient ecosystem. Therefore, preserving biodiversity is important in order to maintain healthy and sustainable ecosystems.

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In a particular plant species, two alleles control flower color, which can be yellow, blue, or white. Crosses of these plants produce the following offspring: OffspringParental phenotypes phenotypes (ration)Yellow x Yellow All yellowBlue x Yellow Blue or Yellow (1:1)Blue x white Blue or White (1:1)White x white All whiteWhat will be the phenotype, and ratio, of the offspring of a cross of blue × blue?

Answers

Phenotype of offspring resulting from the cross of blue × blue would be blue. As both the parents have the same genotype, all of their offspring would also have the same genotype - BB.

We can deduce that allele for blue color is dominant over allele for yellow color. Cross between blue x blue would involve two plants with same genotype BB, resulting in all offspring having a blue flower color phenotype.

Hence, ratio of  offspring would be 1:0, meaning all of the offspring would have a blue flower color phenotype. This ratio indicates that there is no variation in the offspring's genotypes, all of them would have a blue flower color  due to the dominance of the blue allele.

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Can you help me solve these python questions: ( Thank you so much)
1. Assume that isIsosceles is a boolean variable, and that the variables isoCount,triangleCount, and polygonCount have all been initialized. Write a statement that adds 1 to each of these count variables (isoCount,triangleCount, and polygonCount)if isIsosceles is true.
2. Write an if/else statement that compares sold_yesterday and sold_today, and based upon that comparison assigns sales_trend the value -1 (the case where sold_yesterday is greater than sold_today) or 1.

Answers

This can be accomplished using an if statement to check whether isIsosceles is true, and if so, increment the count variables by 1 using the += operator.

This will only increment the count variables if isIsosceles is true, and leave them unchanged if it is false. This can be accomplished using a simple if/else statement that compares sold_yesterday and sold_today using the greater than (>) operator. If sold_yesterday is greater than sold_today, sales_trend should be assigned variables the value -1, otherwise it should be assigned the value 1:

if isIsosceles:

   isoCount += 1

   triangleCount += 1

   polygonCount += 1

if sold_yesterday > sold_today:

   sales_trend = -1

else:

   sales_trend = 1

This will assign the appropriate value to sales_trend based on the comparison of sold_yesterday and sold_today.

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when phospholipids are placed in water, they spontaneously form a bilayer with which of the following?

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In water, phospholipids precipitously structure a twofold layer called a lipid bilayer in which the hydrophobic tails of phospholipid particles are sandwiched between two layers of hydrophilic heads

Since their unsaturated fat tails are ineffectively dissolvable in water, phospholipids precipitously structure bilayers in fluid arrangements, with the hydrophobic tails covered in the inside of the layer and the polar head bunches uncovered on the two sides, in touch with water.

At the point when phospholipids are put into water, they put together themselves into a construction called a bilayer. The water-dreading tail districts cluster together within the bilayer, as distant from water as could really be expected. The head districts advance toward the beyond the bilayer where they contact the encompassing water particles.

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Mutations by analogy

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It is a point mutation, it causes changes in the structure and function of a protein.

What is mutation?

A mutation is a change that takes place in the sequence of our DNA as a result of errors made during DNA replication or environmental influences like UV light and cigarette smoke. Base substitutions, deletions, and insertions are the three different forms of DNA mutations.

Errors in DNA replication during cell division, exposure to mutagens, or viral infection can all cause mutations.

Mutations that are harmful can result in cancer or genetic diseases. A genetic disorder is a condition brought on by a change in one or more genes.

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when adh is released by the pituitary, absorption of water from the collecting ducts of nephrons , resulting in decreased blood osmolarity.

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when adh is released by the pituitary, absorption of water from the collecting ducts of nephrons , resulting in increased blood osmolarity.

The pituitary gland releases ADH (antidiuretic hormone), which raises the permeability of the collecting ducts and distal convoluted tubules in the kidneys and promotes higher water absorption back into the bloodstream. This causes a concentration of urine and a reduction in urine flow, which can aid in the body's ability to retain water. Blood osmolarity is thereby increased rather than decreased.

By adjusting the amount of sodium and water ejected, the kidneys, in coordination with neurological and endocrine input, control the volume and osmolality of the extracellular fluid. This is generally done through modifying salt and water reabsorption, the methods of which vary depending on the segment of the nephron.

When blood osmolality rises, the body secretes antidiuretic hormone (ADH). The kidneys reabsorb water due to this hormone. Urine becomes more concentrated as a result. The blood is thinned by the reabsorbed water.

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Consider two solutions separated by a semi-permeable membrane. Solution A contains 1.0M NaCl, while solution B contains 1.0M KCl. The membrane is permeable to water and Na+ only. If you wished to keep Na+ from diffusing from solution A to solution B, which of the following strategies would likely be most effective?
a. Making the membrane permeable to K+.
b. Making the membrane permeable to Cl-.
c. Making the membrane impermeable to water.
d. Adding additional KCl to solution B.
e. Creating a positive charge on the B side of the membrane.

Answers

The appropriate approach is e. Adding a positive charge to the membrane's B side.

What is a simple definition of membrane?

In biology, a membrane is the term used to describe the thin layer that outlines it outside a human cell or an internal cell compartment. The plasma membrane serves as the exterior boundary of the organelles, which are areas enclosed by internal membranes.

What does membrane do?

Cell membranes act as boundaries and checkpoints. Because of their semi-permeability, some chemicals can diffuse out across lipid bilayer but not others. Gases such oxygen and carbon dioxide, as well as small hydrophobic compounds, quickly traverse membranes.

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read each of the sentences that describe the results of the hershey-chase experiment. match each statement to the correct bacteriophage experiment.bacteriophages are shown marked with either phosphorus-32 or sulfur-35. put responses in the correct input to answer the question. select a response, navigate to the desired input and insert the response. responses can be selected and inserted using the space bar, enter key, left mouse button or touchpad. responses can also be moved by dragging with a mouse. contains radioactive isotope used to label dna contains radioactive isotope used to label proteins radioactivity found inside the infected bacterium radioactivity not found inside the infected bacterium results confirm that dna is the genetic material of the bacteriophage results confirm that protein is not the genetic material of the bacteriophage

Answers

The two basis for differences is phosphorus-32 and sulfur-35 which comprises a radioactive isotope that is used to mark the DNA and another to mark the protein respectively.

Hershey and Chase discovered that when non-radioactive bacteria were exposed to bacteriophages bearing the radioactive 32P, all the infected cells became radioactive and that a large portion of the radioactivity was transferred to the bacteriophages' offspring.

However, when the bacteria were infected with bacteriophages labelled with 35S and the virus coats were afterwards removed by spinning them in an electric blender, very little radioactivity was discovered in the infected cells.

Phosphorus-32:

DNA is marked by a radioactive isotope found in bacteria phages.

The bacterium that is infected contains radioactivity.

The genetic make-up of the bacteriophage is DNA, according to the findings.

Sulfur-35:

Radioactive isotope is present in bacteriophages and is utilized to label proteins.

The infected bacterium contains no detectable radioactivity.

Findings show that the bacteriophage's genetic makeup is not protein.

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How has cell technology most likely benefited the commercial flower industry?
Growers can quickly grow disease-resistant plants from tissue cultures.
Growers can study plant growth patterns under many different conditions.
Growers can grow seedlings without using expensive fertilizers.
Growers can create new flower colors without using cross-pollination.

Answers

From tissue cultures, growers may swiftly produce plants that are resistant to disease. (Position a)

What is technology based on human stem cells?

Stem cell treatment, commonly referred to as regenerative medicine, uses stem cells or their byproducts to encourage the body's natural ability to heal damaged, sick, or malfunctioning tissue. It is the next phase of organ transplantation and replaces donor organs, which are scarce, with cells.

How well does stem cell technology work?

The type of treatment, the illness or condition being treated, and indeed the stage of the illness can all affect the likelihood of success of stem cell therapy. Stem cell therapy is generally regarded as a secure and efficient treatment option for a variety of illnesses.

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Which of the following neurons or groups of neurons are NOT considered to be a part of the efferent pathway?
sensory

Answers

It is NOT believed that sensory neurons or clusters of neurons are a part of the efferent circuit. Dendrites, the cell body, sometimes known as the "soma," the axon, and the axon terminal are the four components of a neuron.

Extensions of the neuron's cell body called dendrites carry information back to the cell body. B) Glial is the structure that is not a component of a neuron. Axons and dendrites are the processes that arise from the soma, the cell body, to form the neuron.

Motor efferent neurons have short axons and lengthy dendrites. This assertion is untrue. Short dendrites and a long axon are characteristics of a motor (efferent) neuron.

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Correct Question:

What is neurons or groups of neurons are NOT considered to be a part of the efferent pathway?

which of the following is true about top predators? which of the following is true about top predators? they are often keystone species. they are likely to be producers. they are likely to be herbivores. they include bacteria and fungi. their removal increases biodiversity.

Answers

The following statement is true about top predators: They are often keystone species.

Top predators are those animals that are at the top of the food chain and have no natural predators of their own. As a result, their populations are often smaller than those of their prey, but they play a crucial role in regulating the populations of other species in the ecosystem. They are often considered keystone species, which means that their removal can have significant impacts on the structure and function of the entire ecosystem. For example, the removal of a top predator can lead to a population explosion of their prey, which can then have negative effects on other species and ultimately decrease biodiversity.

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the fact that the refractory period limits the firing rate of neurons is problematic for?

Answers

The refractory period is a brief period of time after a neuron fires an action potential during which the neuron cannot fire another action potential

This period is essential for proper neuronal signaling and prevents excessive firing of neurons. However, the fact that the refractory period limits the firing rate of neurons can be problematic for certain types of signaling.

For example, in situations where rapid signaling is required, such as during high-frequency stimulation or in certain brain circuits involved in perception or motor control, the refractory period can limit the information processing capacity of the neuron or circuit. In some cases, neurons have evolved to overcome this limitation by adjusting their properties, such as by decreasing the duration of the refractory period or by increasing the speed of their action potentials.

Overall, while the refractory period can limit the firing rate of neurons, it is essential for proper neuronal signaling and is an important mechanism for regulating the activity of neural circuits.

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Conclusion for an onion cell lab report (hypotonic)

Answers

The results of the onion cell lab indicate that when placed in a hypotonic solution, the onion cells undergo changes in their physical appearance and characteristics.

What is conclusion?

After reading the paper, the conclusion should help the reader understand why your research is important to them.

A conclusion is a synthesis of key points, not just a summary of your points or a re-statement of your research problem.

In conclusion, the onion cell lab results show that when onion cells are placed in a hypotonic solution, their physical appearance and characteristics change.

Through osmosis, the cells absorb water and become turgid, causing the cell membrane to push against the cell wall. This can cause the cell wall to stretch and eventually burst, releasing the contents of the cell.

Thus, this can be the conclusion for an onion cell lab report (hypotonic).

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In the Phenotypes, Genes, and the Environment lecture, we evaluated phenotypic variation in 4 hypothetical bug populations. This question pertains to those 4 hypothetical populations and you will need to view them to answer this question successfully. Please find the appropriate slide before attempting this question. The full slide set as of 5.19.2020 has been posted in the modules section.
We determined that all four population had Vp > 0. We also know that population 2 has Vg = 0 and population 4 has Ve = 0. Select the answers that correctly describe the relationship between Vp, Ve, and Vg
A. Vp can be greater than 0 even if both Ve and Vg in a population are 0.
B. Vp describes total phenotypic variation in a population irrespective of whether that variation has environmental or genetic causes.
C. As long as Ve OR Vg are greater than 0, Vp will also be greater than 0.

Answers

It is referred to as the total of inherited (Vg), environment (Ve), and Vg and Ve interaction variation. Vp will be more than 0 as far as Ve And Vg are both greater than 0.

What does genetic variation mean?

The variance in morphologies that occurs in a population is termed as phenotypic variation. People exist in varied shapes and sizes for instance; different phenotypes include differences in size, weight, and body form. The capacity to roll your tongues is a changeable trait, as are height, eye color, and skin tone.

What are genotypic variability and phenotypic variance?

A person's genotype is made up of all the variants they have for a certain gene. The sum of a person's traits or observable features is their phenotype.

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true/false. after tissue repair is completed, factor xii catalyzes the formation of a plasma enzyme called kallikrein, that, in turn, converts an inactive plasminogen into , a fibrin-dissolving enzyme that breaks up the clot.

Answers

After tissue repair is completed, factor xii catalyzes the formation of a plasma enzyme called kallikrein, that, in turn, converts an inactive plasminogen into plasma , a fibrin-dissolving enzyme that breaks up the clot is true.

Plasma kallikrein was  set up to be a good activator ofpro-urokinase, the inactive zymogen form of urokinase. The complete activation ofpro-urokinase by tube kallikrein was  attained in 2 h with an enzyme/ substrate weight  rate of1/30. The rate of activation ofpro-urokinase by tube kallikrein was  similar to that catalyzed by plasmin and trypsin. The rate of activation ofpro-urokinase by factor XIIa was  roughly one- seventh of that by tube kallikrein. The activation of the zymogen was due to the  fractionalization of a single internal peptide bond, performing in the conversion of a single chainpro-urokinase( Mr = ,000) into two- chain urokinase( Mr = ,000 and,000), and these two chains were linked by a disulfide bond( s). These results indicate an important  part of tube kallikrein for the activation ofpro-urokinase in the factor XII-dependent  natural pathway of fibrinolysis.

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Does herbivore eats it’s consumer

Answers

Answer:No

Explanation:

It consumes plants, so therefore their consumer would not fall in that quantity.

no, herbivore are plant eaters. hence they only eat plants.

Which planes when passed through the body would result in two sections, with each section containing a piece of the heart and a piece of each lung?

Answers

The  planes when passed through the body would result in two sections, with each section containing a piece of the heart and a piece of each lung is The transverse plane.

One of the planes of the body that describes where the parts are in respect to one another is the transverse plane. The superior or head part and the inferior or tail section of the body are separated by the transverse plane, sometimes referred to as the axial plane or horizontal plane.

It is referred to as a transverse plane if the body were divided into two halves, each holding the heart and both lungs.Your upper body and lower body are split in two by a horizontal plane in the transverse view of your body.

While the coronal view divides your front and back, the body is still cut down the middle in this view. Think of the "crown" of the corona when you think of the head being cut. Picture added to make understanding easier.

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Developed countries tend to have _____ numbers of people with a _____ ecological footprint than developing countries.

fewer; smaller

greater; larger

fewer; larger

greater; smaller

Answers

Developed countries tend to have fewer numbers of people with a larger ecological footprint than developing countries. Therefore, option C is correct.

What is an ecological footprint?

A person's ecological footprint is the area of the planet's surface required to create all the energy and resources they need to survive, as well as to absorb all the wastes (both indirect and direct) they generate.

Developed countries tend to have fewer numbers of people with a larger ecological footprint than developing countries. Therefore, option C is correct.

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what is a homogeneous mixture that is formed by dissolving a substance in solvent

Answers

A solution is a homogeneous mixture consisting of a solute dissolved into a solvent. The solute is the substance that is being dissolved, while the solvent is the dissolving medium.

Solutions can be formed with many different types and forms of solutes and solvents.

what are the types of homogenous mixture or solution?

Homogeneous mixtures can be solid, liquid, or gas. They have the same appearance and chemical composition throughout. Examples of Homogeneous Mixtures include Water, Air, Steel, Detergent, Saltwater mixture, etc. Alloys are formed when two or more metals are mixed together in some specific ratio.

Homogeneous mixtures are also called solutions.

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What is an allele?.......

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Answer:

An allele is a variant form of a gene. Alleles can be found on the same locus, or position, on a chromosome, and can determine different characteristics in organisms, such as eye color or hair color. Alleles are inherited from parents and are located on chromosomes.

An allele is an alternative form of a gene, and it affects the phenotype, or physical characteristics, of the organism. Alleles can be either dominant or recessive, and they are important in understanding genetic inheritance and variation. Dominant alleles are those that are expressed when present and can override any recessive alleles, while recessive alleles must be present in both copies of the gene in order for them to be expressed. Alleles can also interact with each other in unique ways, producing different effects. For example, two alleles for the same gene may produce a completely different phenotype, or even no phenotype at all in some cases.

Answer:A gene that causes a specific trait.

Explanation:

which of the following processes could result in the net movement of a substance into a cell, if the substance is more concentrated in the cell than in the surroundings?

Answers

Active transport could result in the net movement of a substance into a cell, if the substance is more concentrated in the cell than in the surroundings

What is active transport ?

By using cellular energy, active transport involves transporting molecules across a cell membrane.

Active transport is the movement of molecules through the cell membrane with the aid of an energy-storing substance called ATP (adenosine triphosphate). ATP is a chemical that stores energy.

High concentrations of substances the cell needs, like ions, glucose, and amino acids, are typically accumulated during active transport. Active transport examples include the uptake of glucose in human intestines and the uptake of mineral ions into plant root hair cells.

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1. partial union
II. complete union
III. nonunion with no epiphysis
IV. nonunion with separate epiphysis
Choose the correct order of epiphyses fusion during adolescence.
4x A
4x B
III, IV, I, II
III, IV, II
4x C IV, III, II,
1x D I, II, III, IV

Answers

The correct order of epiphyses fusion during adolescence 3,4,1,2. Therefore, the correct option is A.

What is epiphysis?

The epiphysis is the rounded end of a long bone, and its main job is to link together nearby bones to create joints.

Between the diaphysis and the epiphysis, there is another portion of the long bone that we refer to as metaphysics. The metaphysis contains the epiphyseal plate, also known as the epiphysis' growth plate.

The epiphysis is likewise protected by articular cartilage at the joint. Contrarily, the bone beneath articular cartilage and its development plate is known as the subchondral bone.Therefore, the correct option is A.

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