To paint interior​ walls, a person charges 50¢ per square foot plus the cost of the paint. For a recent​ job, the paint cost ​$100 and the total bill was ​$475.
The person must have painted ____ ft^2.

Answer:

m = 6

n = 2√3

Step-by-step explanation:

Reference angle = 30°

Hypotenuse = 4√3

Opposite = n

Adjacent = m

✔️To find m, apply CAH:

Cos θ = Adj/Hypo

Substitute

Cos 30° = m/4√3

4√3 × Cos 30° = m

4√3 × √3/2 = m (cos 30 = √3/2)

(4*3)/2 = m

6 = m

m = 6

✔️To find n, apply SOH:

Sin θ = Opp/Hypo

Substitute

Sin 30° = n/4√3

4√3 × Sin 30° = n

4√3 × ½ = n (Sin 30 = ½)

2√3 = n

n = 2√3

Answer:

4.2025 [tex]\pi m^{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

10x/3

Step-by-step explanation:

30% is to x as 100% is to y

We are looking for y in terms of x.

30/x = 100/y

30y = 100x

y = 100x/30

y = 10x/3

Answer: whichever graph that goes up 4 and over 5

Step-by-step explanation:

rise over run, 4 up, 5 right

to find it just look at two points on the line and count how many up and how many horizontal units there are between them :)

Answer:

a) P(X > 10) = 0.6473

b) P(X > 20) = 0.4190

c) P(X < 30) = 0.7288

d) x = 68.87

Step-by-step explanation:

Exponential distribution:

The exponential probability distribution, with mean m, is described by the following equation:

[tex]f(x) = \mu e^{-\mu x}[/tex]

In which [tex]\mu = \frac{1}{m}[/tex] is the decay parameter.

The probability that x is lower or equal to a is given by:

[tex]P(X \leq x) = \int\limits^a_0 {f(x)} \, dx[/tex]

Which has the following solution:

[tex]P(X \leq x) = 1 - e^{-\mu x}[/tex]

The probability of finding a value higher than x is:

[tex]P(X > x) = 1 - P(X \leq x) = 1 - (1 - e^{-\mu x}) = e^{-\mu x}[/tex]

Mean equal to 23.

This means that [tex]m = 23, \mu = \frac{1}{23} = 0.0435[/tex]

(a) P(X >10)

[tex]P(X > 10) = e^{-0.0435*10} = 0.6473[/tex]

So

P(X > 10) = 0.6473

(b) P(X >20)

[tex]P(X > 20) = e^{-0.0435*20} = 0.4190[/tex]

So

P(X > 20) = 0.4190

(c) P(X <30)

[tex]P(X \leq 30) = 1 - e^{-0.0435*30} = 0.7288[/tex]

So

P(X < 30) = 0.7288

(d) Find the value of x such that P(X > x) = 0.05

So

[tex]P(X > x) = e^{-\mu x}[/tex]

[tex]0.05 = e^{-0.0435x}[/tex]

[tex]\ln{e^{-0.0435x}} = \ln{0.05}[/tex]

[tex]-0.0435x = \ln{0.05}[/tex]

[tex]x = -\frac{\ln{0.05}}{0.0435}[/tex]

[tex]x = 68.87[/tex]

Answer:

1060

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

34%+29%=63% 63%x60=37.8

Step-by-step explanation:

because math

Answer:

[tex] { \tt({34\% + 29\%) \times 60}} \\ = 63\% \times 60 \\ = \frac{63}{100} \times 60 \\ = 37.8[/tex]

Given:

The given statements are:

[tex]p:2x=16[/tex]

[tex]q:3x-4=20[/tex]

To find:

The converse of [tex]p\to q[/tex].

Solution:

The statement [tex]p\to q[/tex] means if p, then q and the converse of this statement is [tex]q\to p[/tex].

[tex]q\to p[/tex] means if q , then p.

We have, [tex]p:2x=16[/tex] and [tex]q:3x-4=20[/tex].

So, the converse of given statement is:

[tex]q\to p:[/tex] If [tex]3x-4=20[/tex], then [tex]2x=16[/tex].

Therefore, the correct option is D.

Answer: Therefore, the correct option is D.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

p: 2x = 16

q: 3x – 4 = 20

RE

Which is the converse of p - q?

ООО

If 2x + 16, then 3x - 47 20.

If 3x - 420, then 2x + 16.

If 2x = 16, then 3x – 4 = 20.

If 3x - 4 = 20, then 2x = 16

To find:

The converse of .

Solution:

The statement  means if p, then q and the converse of this statement is .

means if q , then p.

We have,  and .

So, the converse of given statement is:

If , then .

Therefore, the correct option is D.

Answer: x+y = 9, 2x+3y = 24

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

tubol mo mabaho kaya 1 too 5 so it means 5 days ka sa cr nag tutubol, ok i hope it helps its the grett answer do it in your solution paper or computers

Answer:

See below

Step-by-step explanation:

We want to prove that

[tex]\sin(x)\tan(x) = \dfrac{1}{\cos(x)} - \cos(x), \forall x \in\mathbb{R}[/tex]

Taking the RHS, note

[tex]\dfrac{1}{\cos(x)} - \cos(x) = \dfrac{1}{\cos(x)} - \dfrac{\cos(x) \cos(x)}{\cos(x)} = \dfrac{1-\cos^2(x)}{\cos(x)}[/tex]

Remember that

[tex]\sin^2(x) + \cos^2(x) =1 \implies 1- \cos^2(x) =\sin^2(x)[/tex]

Therefore,

[tex]\dfrac{1-\cos^2(x)}{\cos(x)} = \dfrac{\sin^2(x)}{\cos(x)} = \dfrac{\sin(x)\sin(x)}{\cos(x)}[/tex]

Once

[tex]\dfrac{\sin(x)}{\cos(x)} = \tan(x)[/tex]

Then,

[tex]\dfrac{\sin(x)\sin(x)}{\cos(x)} = \sin(x)\tan(x)[/tex]

Hence, it is proved

Answer:

( − 4 ) 2

Step-by-step explanation:

2 − 8 + 1 6

2 -4 − 4 + 1 6

x(x-4)-4(x-4)

(x-4)(x-4)

(x-4)2

which can be also written as x-4=0

                                                   x=4

Answer:

n = 975

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]a_1 = 5 = 5 \times 1\\a_2 = 10 = 5 \times 2\\\\Therefore, \ a_n = 5 \times n\\[/tex]

[tex]Given \ a_n = 4875\\\\So, a_n = 5 \times n \\\\=> 4875 = 5 \times n\\\\=>\frac{4875}{5} = n\\\\=> 975 = n[/tex]

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  4² = 16

Step-by-step explanation:

The applicable rule of exponents is ...

  1/a^-b = a^b

So, ...

 [tex]\dfrac{1}{4^{-2}}=\boxed{4^2 = 16}[/tex]

_____

Additional comment

If you were to evaluate this using the Order of Operations, you would evaluate the exponent first:

  1/4^-2 = 1/(1/16)

Then, you would do the division.

 1/(1/16) = 16

__

We sometimes find it convenient to manipulate exponential terms to the form with the smallest positive exponents before we begin the evaluation.

Answer:

The expected value for the person buying the insurance is of -$48.

Step-by-step explanation:

Expected value:

0.169% = 0.00169 probability of earning the death benefit of $100,000, subtracting 217, 100000 - 217 = $99,783.

100 - 0.169 = 99.831% = 0.99831 probability of losing $217.

What is the expected value for the person buying the insurance?

[tex]E = 0.00169*99783 - 0.99831*217 = -48[/tex]

The expected value for the person buying the insurance is of -$48.

x=17/2

don't forget to follow me

Answer:

0.375

Step-by-step explanation:

Check the picture below.

whenever we do division of decimals, we have to mind how many decimals are there on each amount, the dividend as well as the divisor, that way we pad with zeros the other amount accordingly whilst losing the dot, for example, to say divide 3 by 0.123, 3 has no decimals, whilst 0.123 has three decimals, so we can just divide 3000 by 0123, so dividing 3 by 0.123 is the same as dividing 3000 by 123.  Another example, if we were to divide say 23.761 by 555.89331, the dividend has 3 decimals, that means 3 zeros the other way, the divisor has 5 decimals, that means 5 zeros the other way while losing the dots, so we'd end up dividing 2376100000 by 55589331000, which we can simplify to just 2376100 by 5589331, as you can see in the picture in this case.

maybe 28 is the answer...

Answer:

Add them:

Squares to squares, a to and number to number:

8a^2+3a+13

The simplified sum of the given expressions 7a² - 9a + 5 and 11a + a² + 8​ is 8a² + 2a + 13.

To find the sum of the expressions 7a² - 9a + 5 and 11a + a² + 8, we simply combine like terms.

The given expressions contain terms with different powers of "a."

Combining the terms with the same powers, we have:

7a² + a² = 8a² (the coefficient for the "a²" term is 7 + 1 = 8)

-9a + 11a = 2a (the coefficient for the "a" term is -9 + 11 = 2)

Finally, we combine the constant terms:

5 + 8 = 13

Putting it all together, the sum of the expressions 7a² - 9a + 5 and 11a + a² + 8 is:

8a² + 2a + 13

To learn more about polynomials click on,

https://brainly.com/question/12857688

#SPJ2

Answer: The smallest number by which 259875 should be divided to make it a perfect cube is 77.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's expand the number 259875 into prime factors:

259875 = 3³ ∙ 5³ ∙ 7 ∙ 11

Since in the factorization, 7 and 11 appears only one time, we must divide the number 259875 by 7 · 11 = 77, then the quotient is a perfect cube.

259875 ÷ 77 = 3375

[tex]\sqrt[3]{3375} =\sqrt[3]{3^{3} \cdot 5^{3} } =3 \cdot 5 = 15[/tex]

Answer:

Answer is 42

Step-by-step explanation:

2^5 + 10

2*2*2*2*2 + 10

32 + 10

42

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

r = 1/2 unit

[tex]Volume= \frac{4}{3}\pi r^{3}\\\\=\frac{4}{3}\pi *\frac{1}{2}*\frac{1}{2}*\frac{1}{2}\\\\=\frac{1}{3}*\pi *\frac{1}{2}\\\\=\frac{1}{6}\pi[/tex]

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  True

Step-by-step explanation:

In a geometric sequence, the terms a[n+1] and a[n] are related by the common ratio. If the sequence is otherwise unspecified, two sequential terms may have any a relation you like.* Either could be larger or smaller than the other.

__

* If one is zero, the other must be as well. Multiplying 0 by any finite common ratio will give zero as the next term.

Answer:

Tan A = 8/15

Sin A = 8/17

Cos A = 15/17

I start feeling tired now

D. 63

2a+5b+3c

2(12)+5(6)+3(3)

24+30+9=63

Hope this helps! :)

========================================================

Explanation:

The main group or cluster of values spans from 32 to 42 (inclusive).

Then off on its own is the value 76, which we consider an outlier. This value is fairly far from the group. As a rule, large outliers pull on the arithmetic mean to make it larger than it should be. Think of it like the outlier pulling on the mean as if it was done through a magnet or gravitational pull.

Similarly, small outliers pull the mean to the left to make it smaller than it should be. We don't have any small outliers in this case.

--------------

Let's consider the set

A = {32, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 38, 41, 42, 42, 46}

where I've sorted the values and I replaced 76 with 46.

Computing the mean of set A gets us

(32+34+35+36+37+38+38+41+42+42+46)/11 = 38.27 approximately

--------------

Now let's form this set

B = {32, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 38, 41, 42, 42, 76}

which is the original set your teacher gave you. It's nearly identical to set A, except that the 46 is now 76 again.

Compute the mean of set B

(32+34+35+36+37+38+38+41+42+42+76)/11 = 41

---------------

Set A has a mean of roughly 38.72 and set B has a mean of 41. We see that the mean has increased.

Answer:

no not correct it should be horizontally left 2 units and vertically down 5 units