w2 – 2w
Complete square to make perfect square trinomial

According to the table the inverse of f(x) does not have an x-intercept

The y-intercept of the point where the x-values are zero. From the table of the function f(x), the function has a y-intercept at the point where x = 0

For the table of its inverse, there is no point where y is zero, hence the inverse of the function has no x-intercept

We can therefore conclude that according to the table the inverse of f(x) does not have an x-intercept

Learn more on intercept and domain https://brainly.com/question/24481985here:

Answer: So you will need to score 95% on the fifth test to have an average of 90%

Answer:

2/3 divided by 1 4/9 will be:

0.46153846153

or

6/13

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B.

Step-by-step explanation:

=3.3999

Answer:

Brainliest would be appreciated. This image has horizontal symmetry.

Step-by-step explanation:

If you put a horizontal line on the image, both sides will be symmetrical.

Answer:

Identity, reflection, inversion, proper rotation, and improper rotation

Answer:

10.5 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

He runs 7/50 of a mile in 1 minute

In 75 min, he runs (7/50) • 75 = 10.5

He runs 10.5 mi in 75 min

Answer:

48

Step-by-step explanation:

3 feet is 36 inches. 3/4 of an inch is .75 inches. So you have a very simple equation of 36/.75=48

Step-by-step explanation:

4(2x-3):reason - Distributive property

8x-12=:reason - addition property of equality

8x=40: reason - division property of equality

x=5: reason - given

hope this answer helps u.

please mark it as the brainliest

Answer:297

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1, 4, 5, 8 equals to 135 ( you can get these answers by simply calculating: 180 - 45 = 135 ( which are angles in a straight line[8 & 5].) 4 = 135 (corresponding angle to 8) and you get 1 = 135 ( opposite angle of 4)

2, 3, 6 equals to 45 ( you can get these answers from observing. 6 is opposite 45 therefore it is = 45°. 2 = 45( corresponding angle). 3 = 45 (opposite angles of 2 and is also alternate to 6)

Answer:

18480 ft

Step by step explanation:

Answer:

minute hand:

in 60 minutes, the minute hand travels 360 degrees

60mins : 360°

1    : 6

so in 1 minute, the minute hand travels 6°

hour hand:

in 12hours the hour hand moves 360 degrees

in one hour, it moves 30 degrees

60min  : 30°

6mins   : 3°

1min     : 3/6 = 0.5°

so in 1 minute, the hour hand travels 0.5°

hope this helps

brainliest please?

x

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The minute hand rotates full scale = 360° in 1 hour = 60 minutes

In one minute it travels:

The hour hand rotates full scale = 360° in 12 hours = 12*60 minutes

In one minute it travels:

Answer:

- 4x – 2 < -6 and - 4x – 2 > -42 is; 1 < x > 10

i hope this work for you

and sory if im wrang

[tex] \frac{6}{3} = \frac{y}{9} [/tex]

[tex]3y = 6 \times 9[/tex]

[tex]3y = 54[/tex]

[tex]y = \frac{54}{3} = 18[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

if you are making double the number of batches, then yout would want to double the # of cups of beans to keep the same recipe.

Since you are doubling the ingredients, all the measurements would change. So yes, the amount of beans that occured most often would change by twice

Answer:

49

Step-by-step explanation:

In division, send the term with the negative exponent to the other side and make the exponent positive. For example, send 7^-2 to the numerator and make it 7^2. 7^2 = 49

You can check that both series converge for all real x (say, using the ratio test).

Now,

[tex]\displaystyle e^x = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{x^n}{n!} \implies x e^{-x^2/2} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n x^{2n+1}}{2^n n!}[/tex]

and if you have some familiarity with differential equations, you might recognize that the second series represents a Bessel function, namely

[tex]\displaystyle I_0(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{x^{2n}}{2^{2n} (n!)^2}[/tex]

but we won't bother making use of this.

In the integral, we interchange the integral with the sum

[tex]\displaystyle \int_0^\infty x e^{-x^2/2} \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{x^{2n}}{2^{2n} (n!)^2} \, dx = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac1{2^{2n} (n!)^2} \int_0^\infty x^{2n+1} e^{-x^2/2} \, dx[/tex]

and consider the sequence of integrals,

[tex]J_n = \displaystyle \int_0^\infty x^{2n} x e^{-x^2/2} \, dx[/tex]

Integrating by parts with

[tex]u = x^{2n} \implies du = 2n x^{2n-1} \, dx[/tex]

[tex]dv = x e^{-x^2/2} \, dx \implies v = -e^{-x^2/2}[/tex]

Then the contribution of uv is 0, so

[tex]J_n = \displaystyle 2n \int_0^\infty x^{2(n-1)} x e^{-x^2/2} \, dx = 2n J_{n-1}[/tex]

We have

[tex]J_0 = \displaystyle \int_0^\infty x e^{-x^2/2} \, dx = 1[/tex]

so that

[tex]J_n = 2n J_{n-1} = 2n (2(n-1)) J_{n-2} = 2n (2(n-1)) (2(n-2)) J_{n-3}[/tex]

and so on; after k steps,

[tex]J_n = 2n (2(n-1)) (2(n-2)) \cdots (2(n-(k-1))) J_{n-k}[/tex]

so that when n = k,

[tex]J_n = 2n (2(n-1)) (2(n-2)) \cdots 2 J_0 = 2^n n![/tex]

Then the integral we want is

[tex]\displaystyle \int_0^\infty x e^{-x^2/2} \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{x^{2n}}{2^{2n} (n!)^2} \, dx = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{2^n n!}{2^{2n} (n!)^2} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac1{2^n n!}[/tex]

and knowing the series expansion for [tex]e^x[/tex], it follows that the integral has a value of [tex]e^{1/2} = \boxed{\sqrt{e}}[/tex]

Answer:

x < 6

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]x+2 < 8\quad :\quad \begin{bmatrix}\mathrm{Solution:}\:&\:x < 6\:\\ \:\mathrm{Interval\:Notation:}&\:\left(-\infty \:,\:6\right)\end{bmatrix}[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{Subtract\:}2\mathrm{\:from\:both\:sides}[/tex]

[tex]x+2-2 < 8-2[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{Simplify}[/tex]

[tex]x < 6[/tex]

~Learn with Lenvy~

Answer:

z < 6

Step-by-step explanation:

this is the correct answer

Answer:$3250

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

You are squaring x and -5 on the first equation, and on the second equation you are just squaring x and subtracting 5.

Step-by-step explanation:

And since on the first equation x and -5 are in parenthesis that means that the square goes to both of them.

And the second one there is no parenthesis so the square only goes to the x.

I hope this helps you.

Answer:

3484 [tex]ft^{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

a = bh

a = 67 x 52

a = 3484

Answer:

=> B.) 3,484 ft2

Step-by-step explanation:

=> The area of parallogram = base × height square units..

=> 67ft × 52ft

=> 3,484 ft²

Given parameters:

Diameter of the malt balls  = 0.8in

Dimensions of the prism = 4in x 3in x 7.5in

Unknown:

Number of malt balls that will fit in the carton = ?

Solution:

To solve this problem, we need to find the volume of each of the malt balls, and then the volume of the rectangular prism.

Volume of the malt balls  = [tex]\frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}[/tex]

This is because we assume that the balls have a spherical shape.

    Where r is radius and π is a constant

Radius of the malt balls  = [tex]\frac{0.8}{2}[/tex]   = 0.4in

So, volume  = [tex]\frac{4}{3} x 3.142 x 0.4^{3}[/tex]   = 0.27in³

Volume of the rectangular prism = l x w x h

  where l is the length

            w is the width

            h is the height

So the volume is 4 x 3 x 7.5 = 90in³

The number of malt balls that can be packed here = [tex]\frac{90}{0.27}[/tex]   = 333 malt balls

a dies not add/subtract correctly and b and c do

Answer:

225 thousand.

Step-by-step explanation:

You are dividing the number in half every time.

Answer:

See Below

Step-by-step explanation:

3,600,000 => 1,800,000 => 900,000 => 450,000 => ?

First, find the pattern.

How would you get from 3,600,000 to 1,800,000?

Lets look at this in a simpler format.

36 => 18

We know that if we divide 36 by 2 we get 18, so divide 3,600,000 by 2.

We get 1,800,000

Now, this might be the pattern. However, before we can say that, we need to test it out with the other #'s. So lets do that.

1,800,000 / 2 = 900,000

900,000 / 2 = 450,000

Great, so we see that this is the pattern: divide by two. Now that we know the pattern, we can continue to find the next number.

450,000 / 2 = ?

450,000 / 2 = 225,000

The next number in the pattern is 225 thousand.

Hope this helps! =D

Answer:

graph has a minimum ( looks like V or faces upward )

vertex is (1, −6)

Step-by-step explanation:

*** got to put ^ when typing exponents!!!

y=(x−1)^2−6

y=x^2-2x+1−6

y=x^2-2x-5

basic form is

y = ax^2+bx+c

x vertex = -b/2a

x vertex = -(-2)/2(1)

x vertex = 2/2

x vertex = 1

y vertex = plug x back into the equation

y vertex = y=(1)^2-2(1)-5

y vertex = y=1-2-5

y vertex = y=-6

vertex is (1, −6)

basic form is

y = ax^2+bx+c

if a is positive curve has a minimum means it looks like V or faces upward

if a is negative curve has a maximum means it looks like ^ or faces down

here a is positive so

graph has a minimum

Brian McLogan

Answer:

A) The vertex is (1, -6)

D) The graph has a minimum

Step-by-step explanation:

Just took the test and these were the correct answers. Hope this helps!!!

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

[MA]:

1. 265 r 37

2. 190 r 34

3. 3,830 r 17

4. 875 r 11

The explanation:

1.

42 x 2 = 84

84 - 11167 = 276 (or "?")

276 - 252 = 247 - 210 = 37

2.

72 x 1 = 72

13714 - 72 = 651 - 648 = 34

3.

24 x 3 = 72

91937 - 72 = 199 - 192 = 73 - 72 = 17

4.

70 x 8 = 560

61261 - 560 - 526 - 490 - 361 - 350 = 11

Writer's note: I hope this helps you.

[xArtsy]

After divide, solution of the expression are,

42 divided by 11167 = 0.0037

72 divided by 13714 = 0.0052

24 divided by 91937 = 0.00026

70 divided by 61261 = 0.0011

Division method is used to distributing a group of things into equal parts. Division is just opposite of multiplications.

For example, dividing 20 by 2 means splitting 20 into 2 equal groups of 10.

Given that;

42 divided by 11167

72 divided by 13714

24 divided by 91937

70 divided by 61261

Now, We can simplify as;

⇒ 42 ÷ 11167

⇒ 42 / 11167

⇒ 0.0037

⇒ 72 ÷ 13714

⇒ 72 / 13714

⇒ 0.0052

⇒ 24 ÷ 91937

⇒ 24 / 91937

⇒ 0.00026

⇒ 70 ÷ 61261

⇒ 70 / 61261

⇒ 0.0011

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Answer: 10

Step-by-step explanation:

9 1/6 x 1 1/11

55/6 x 12/11

cross reduce

5/1 x 2/1

10