What is the mean? If the answer is a decimal, round it to the nearest tenth. 46026594

Answer:

49

Step-by-step explanation:

In division, send the term with the negative exponent to the other side and make the exponent positive. For example, send 7^-2 to the numerator and make it 7^2. 7^2 = 49

Step-by-step explanation:

if you are making double the number of batches, then yout would want to double the # of cups of beans to keep the same recipe.

Since you are doubling the ingredients, all the measurements would change. So yes, the amount of beans that occured most often would change by twice

Answer:

You are squaring x and -5 on the first equation, and on the second equation you are just squaring x and subtracting 5.

Step-by-step explanation:

And since on the first equation x and -5 are in parenthesis that means that the square goes to both of them.

And the second one there is no parenthesis so the square only goes to the x.

I hope this helps you.

[tex] \frac{6}{3} = \frac{y}{9} [/tex]

[tex]3y = 6 \times 9[/tex]

[tex]3y = 54[/tex]

[tex]y = \frac{54}{3} = 18[/tex]

Answer:

1, 4, 5, 8 equals to 135 ( you can get these answers by simply calculating: 180 - 45 = 135 ( which are angles in a straight line[8 & 5].) 4 = 135 (corresponding angle to 8) and you get 1 = 135 ( opposite angle of 4)

2, 3, 6 equals to 45 ( you can get these answers from observing. 6 is opposite 45 therefore it is = 45°. 2 = 45( corresponding angle). 3 = 45 (opposite angles of 2 and is also alternate to 6)

[MA]:

1. 265 r 37

2. 190 r 34

3. 3,830 r 17

4. 875 r 11

The explanation:

1.

42 x 2 = 84

84 - 11167 = 276 (or "?")

276 - 252 = 247 - 210 = 37

2.

72 x 1 = 72

13714 - 72 = 651 - 648 = 34

3.

24 x 3 = 72

91937 - 72 = 199 - 192 = 73 - 72 = 17

4.

70 x 8 = 560

61261 - 560 - 526 - 490 - 361 - 350 = 11

Writer's note: I hope this helps you.

[xArtsy]

After divide, solution of the expression are,

42 divided by 11167 = 0.0037

72 divided by 13714 = 0.0052

24 divided by 91937 = 0.00026

70 divided by 61261 = 0.0011

Division method is used to distributing a group of things into equal parts. Division is just opposite of multiplications.

For example, dividing 20 by 2 means splitting 20 into 2 equal groups of 10.

Given that;

42 divided by 11167

72 divided by 13714

24 divided by 91937

70 divided by 61261

Now, We can simplify as;

⇒ 42 ÷ 11167

⇒ 42 / 11167

⇒ 0.0037

⇒ 72 ÷ 13714

⇒ 72 / 13714

⇒ 0.0052

⇒ 24 ÷ 91937

⇒ 24 / 91937

⇒ 0.00026

⇒ 70 ÷ 61261

⇒ 70 / 61261

⇒ 0.0011

Learn more about the divide visit:

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Answer: 10

Step-by-step explanation:

9 1/6 x 1 1/11

55/6 x 12/11

cross reduce

5/1 x 2/1

10

Answer:

48

Step-by-step explanation:

3 feet is 36 inches. 3/4 of an inch is .75 inches. So you have a very simple equation of 36/.75=48

Answer:

x < 6

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]x+2 < 8\quad :\quad \begin{bmatrix}\mathrm{Solution:}\:&\:x < 6\:\\ \:\mathrm{Interval\:Notation:}&\:\left(-\infty \:,\:6\right)\end{bmatrix}[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{Subtract\:}2\mathrm{\:from\:both\:sides}[/tex]

[tex]x+2-2 < 8-2[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{Simplify}[/tex]

[tex]x < 6[/tex]

~Learn with Lenvy~

Answer:

z < 6

Step-by-step explanation:

this is the correct answer

Answer:

2/3 divided by 1 4/9 will be:

0.46153846153

or

6/13

Step-by-step explanation:

a dies not add/subtract correctly and b and c do

After Assuming a tax percentage of 3.5%, the tax amount gotten is $0.7

and the  total cost of a double room, including tax is $20.7

Given Data

Amount of Tax paid = 3.5/100 * 20

= 0.035* 20

= $0.7

The total cost of a double room, including tax

= Cost of double + Amount of Tax

= 20+0.7

= $20.7

Learn more about Tax Calculation here:

https://brainly.com/question/25783927

You can check that both series converge for all real x (say, using the ratio test).

Now,

[tex]\displaystyle e^x = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{x^n}{n!} \implies x e^{-x^2/2} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n x^{2n+1}}{2^n n!}[/tex]

and if you have some familiarity with differential equations, you might recognize that the second series represents a Bessel function, namely

[tex]\displaystyle I_0(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{x^{2n}}{2^{2n} (n!)^2}[/tex]

but we won't bother making use of this.

In the integral, we interchange the integral with the sum

[tex]\displaystyle \int_0^\infty x e^{-x^2/2} \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{x^{2n}}{2^{2n} (n!)^2} \, dx = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac1{2^{2n} (n!)^2} \int_0^\infty x^{2n+1} e^{-x^2/2} \, dx[/tex]

and consider the sequence of integrals,

[tex]J_n = \displaystyle \int_0^\infty x^{2n} x e^{-x^2/2} \, dx[/tex]

Integrating by parts with

[tex]u = x^{2n} \implies du = 2n x^{2n-1} \, dx[/tex]

[tex]dv = x e^{-x^2/2} \, dx \implies v = -e^{-x^2/2}[/tex]

Then the contribution of uv is 0, so

[tex]J_n = \displaystyle 2n \int_0^\infty x^{2(n-1)} x e^{-x^2/2} \, dx = 2n J_{n-1}[/tex]

We have

[tex]J_0 = \displaystyle \int_0^\infty x e^{-x^2/2} \, dx = 1[/tex]

so that

[tex]J_n = 2n J_{n-1} = 2n (2(n-1)) J_{n-2} = 2n (2(n-1)) (2(n-2)) J_{n-3}[/tex]

and so on; after k steps,

[tex]J_n = 2n (2(n-1)) (2(n-2)) \cdots (2(n-(k-1))) J_{n-k}[/tex]

so that when n = k,

[tex]J_n = 2n (2(n-1)) (2(n-2)) \cdots 2 J_0 = 2^n n![/tex]

Then the integral we want is

[tex]\displaystyle \int_0^\infty x e^{-x^2/2} \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{x^{2n}}{2^{2n} (n!)^2} \, dx = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{2^n n!}{2^{2n} (n!)^2} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac1{2^n n!}[/tex]

and knowing the series expansion for [tex]e^x[/tex], it follows that the integral has a value of [tex]e^{1/2} = \boxed{\sqrt{e}}[/tex]

[tex] \dfrac{ \dfrac{ - 4}{9} }{ \dfrac{ - 1}{3} } = \dfrac{ 4}{9} \times \dfrac{3}{1 } [/tex]

[tex] = \dfrac{4}{3} [/tex]

Answer:

1  1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Flip -1/3 to be -3/1

Multiply -4/9 to -3/1

-4/9 x -3/1 = 12/9

(The two negatives equal a positive)

Simplify.

4/3

Simplify some more.

1  3/9

Simplify even more.

1  1/3

Hope I helped :)

Please consider Brainliest :)

Hi!

Your answer is "Multiplicative Inverse Property".

We can see that it's multiplying both sides by [tex]\cfrac{5}{4}[/tex] to get [tex]x[/tex] by itself.

This is known as the "multiplicative inverse" because the numerator and the denominator are swapped.

When a number is multiplied by its multiplicative inverse, it equals 1.

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For another example, see:

https://brainly.com/question/13715269

Given parameters:

Diameter of the malt balls  = 0.8in

Dimensions of the prism = 4in x 3in x 7.5in

Unknown:

Number of malt balls that will fit in the carton = ?

Solution:

To solve this problem, we need to find the volume of each of the malt balls, and then the volume of the rectangular prism.

Volume of the malt balls  = [tex]\frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}[/tex]

This is because we assume that the balls have a spherical shape.

    Where r is radius and π is a constant

Radius of the malt balls  = [tex]\frac{0.8}{2}[/tex]   = 0.4in

So, volume  = [tex]\frac{4}{3} x 3.142 x 0.4^{3}[/tex]   = 0.27in³

Volume of the rectangular prism = l x w x h

  where l is the length

            w is the width

            h is the height

So the volume is 4 x 3 x 7.5 = 90in³

The number of malt balls that can be packed here = [tex]\frac{90}{0.27}[/tex]   = 333 malt balls

Step-by-step explanation:

4(2x-3):reason - Distributive property

8x-12=:reason - addition property of equality

8x=40: reason - division property of equality

x=5: reason - given

hope this answer helps u.

please mark it as the brainliest

Answer:

Brainliest would be appreciated. This image has horizontal symmetry.

Step-by-step explanation:

If you put a horizontal line on the image, both sides will be symmetrical.

Answer:

Identity, reflection, inversion, proper rotation, and improper rotation

Answer:

minute hand:

in 60 minutes, the minute hand travels 360 degrees

60mins : 360°

1    : 6

so in 1 minute, the minute hand travels 6°

hour hand:

in 12hours the hour hand moves 360 degrees

in one hour, it moves 30 degrees

60min  : 30°

6mins   : 3°

1min     : 3/6 = 0.5°

so in 1 minute, the hour hand travels 0.5°

hope this helps

brainliest please?

x

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The minute hand rotates full scale = 360° in 1 hour = 60 minutes

In one minute it travels:

The hour hand rotates full scale = 360° in 12 hours = 12*60 minutes

In one minute it travels:

According to the table the inverse of f(x) does not have an x-intercept

The y-intercept of the point where the x-values are zero. From the table of the function f(x), the function has a y-intercept at the point where x = 0

For the table of its inverse, there is no point where y is zero, hence the inverse of the function has no x-intercept

We can therefore conclude that according to the table the inverse of f(x) does not have an x-intercept

Learn more on intercept and domain https://brainly.com/question/24481985here:

Answer:

3484 [tex]ft^{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

a = bh

a = 67 x 52

a = 3484

Answer:

=> B.) 3,484 ft2

Step-by-step explanation:

=> The area of parallogram = base × height square units..

=> 67ft × 52ft

=> 3,484 ft²

Answer:

225 thousand.

Step-by-step explanation:

You are dividing the number in half every time.

Answer:

See Below

Step-by-step explanation:

3,600,000 => 1,800,000 => 900,000 => 450,000 => ?

First, find the pattern.

How would you get from 3,600,000 to 1,800,000?

Lets look at this in a simpler format.

36 => 18

We know that if we divide 36 by 2 we get 18, so divide 3,600,000 by 2.

We get 1,800,000

Now, this might be the pattern. However, before we can say that, we need to test it out with the other #'s. So lets do that.

1,800,000 / 2 = 900,000

900,000 / 2 = 450,000

Great, so we see that this is the pattern: divide by two. Now that we know the pattern, we can continue to find the next number.

450,000 / 2 = ?

450,000 / 2 = 225,000

The next number in the pattern is 225 thousand.

Hope this helps! =D

Answer:

Its answer B!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:$3250

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

180

Step-by-step explanation:

m(< 1) + m (< 2) + m (< 3) = 180

because sum of angles on same straight line = 180

Answer:

one quart is about 0.95 liters, so its about 2.84 liters after dividing because you want to see how many times that 3 quarts can go into liters

Step-by-step explanation:

mr clean

Answer:

The cooler holds 2.85 liters.

Step-by-step explanation:

Convertion: 1 quart = 0.95 liters

3 × 0.95

= 2.85 Liters

Answer:

10.5 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

He runs 7/50 of a mile in 1 minute

In 75 min, he runs (7/50) • 75 = 10.5

He runs 10.5 mi in 75 min

Answer:297

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

- 4x – 2 < -6 and - 4x – 2 > -42 is; 1 < x > 10

i hope this work for you

and sory if im wrang