What is the ratio of the effective dose (in rems) from the neutrons to that from the alpha source? 2:1 1:4 4:1 1:2

Answers

Answer 1

The ratio of the effective dose from the neutrons to that from the alpha source is 4:1.

Neutrons and alpha particles have different levels of ionizing radiation and their ability to cause biological damage varies. The effective dose takes into account the radiation's energy and its impact on different tissues and organs. In this case, the effective dose from neutrons is four times greater than that from the alpha source. This suggests that neutrons pose a higher risk and have a greater potential for causing biological damage compared to alpha particles in the given scenario. The correct ratio of the effective dose from the neutrons to that from the alpha source is 1:4. This means that the effective dose from the alpha source is four times greater than the effective dose from the neutrons. This ratio indicates that the alpha source poses a higher risk and has a greater potential for causing biological damage compared to the neutrons in the given scenario, as the effective dose is significantly higher for the alpha particles.

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a resistor dissipates 2.25 ww when the rms voltage of the emf is 10.5 vv . part a at what rms voltage will the resistor dissipate 10.0 ww ?

Answers

We can use the formula for power dissipation in a resistor:

P = V^2 / R

where P is the power in watts, V is the voltage in volts, and R is the resistance in ohms.

We can rearrange the formula to solve for the resistance:

R = V^2 / P

Using the values given in the problem, we can find the resistance of the resistor:

R = (10.5 V)^2 / 2.25 W = 49.0 Ω

To find the voltage that will cause the resistor to dissipate 10.0 W of power, we can rearrange the formula and solve for V:

V = sqrt(P*R) = sqrt(10.0 W * 49.0 Ω) = 22.1 V (rms)

Therefore, the rms voltage required to dissipate 10.0 W of power in the resistor is 22.1 V.

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Two charges of +25 x 10 ^−9 coulomb and −25 x 10 ^−9 coulomb are placed 6 m apart. Find the electric field intensity ratio at points 4 m from the centre of the electric dipole
(i) on axial line (ii) on equatorial linea. 1000/49b/ 49/1000c. 500/49d. 49/500

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The electric field intensity ratio of two charges of +25 x 10 ^−9 coulomb and −25 x 10 ^−9 coulomb which are placed 6 m apart at points 4 m from the centre of the electric dipole is 500/49. The correct option is c.

To find the electric field intensity ratio at points 4 m from the centre of the electric dipole, we can use the formula:

E = kq/r^2

where E is the electric field intensity, k is Coulomb's constant (9 x 10^9 Nm^2/C^2), q is the charge, and r is the distance from the charge.

(i) On the axial line:


On the axial line, the point is equidistant from both charges, so the net electric field intensity at that point is:

E = kq/((6/2)^2 + 4^2) - kq/((6/2)^2 + 4^2)

E = 4kq/52^2

Substituting q = +25 x 10^-9 C, we get:

E+ = 4k(+25 x 10^-9)/52^2

E+ = 4.08 x 10^6 N/C

Substituting q = -25 x 10^-9 C, we get:

E- = 4k(-25 x 10^-9)/52^2

E- = -4.08 x 10^6 N/C

The electric field intensity ratio is:

E+/E- = -1

(ii) On the equatorial line:


On the equatorial line, the point is equidistant from the charges but on opposite sides, so the net electric field intensity at that point is:

E = kq/((6/2)^2 + 4^2) + kq/((6/2)^2 + 4^2)

E = 8kq/52^2

Substituting q = +25 x 10^-9 C, we get:

E+ = 8k(+25 x 10^-9)/52^2

E+ = 8.16 x 10^6 N/C

Substituting q = -25 x 10^-9 C, we get:

E- = 8k(-25 x 10^-9)/52^2

E- = -8.16 x 10^6 N/C

The electric field intensity ratio is:

E+/E- = -1

Therefore, the answer is (c) 500/49.

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The machine has a mass m and is uniformly supported by four springs, each having a stiffness k.
Determine the natural period of vertical vibration(Figure 1)
Express your answer in terms of some or all of the variables m, k, and constant πpi.

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Hi! To determine the natural period of vertical vibration for the machine supported by four springs, we can use the formula for the natural frequency (ωn) and then convert it to the natural period (T). The formula for the natural frequency of a mass-spring system is:

ωn = √(k_eq/m)

where k_eq is the equivalent stiffness of the four springs combined. Since the springs are arranged in parallel, the equivalent stiffness is the sum of their individual stiffness values:

k_eq = 4k

Now, substitute the equivalent stiffness back into the natural frequency formula:

ωn = √((4k)/m)

To find the natural period (T), we can use the relationship:

T = 2π/ωn

Substituting the value of ωn:

T = 2π / √((4k)/m)

So, the natural period of vertical vibration in terms of the variables m, k, and the constant π is:

T = 2π√(m/(4k))

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A series RLC circuit has R = 20 kΩ, L = 0.2 mH, and C = 5 μF. What type of damping is exhibited by the circuit?

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In order to determine the type of damping exhibited by the series RLC circuit, we need to look at the values of R, L, and C and calculate the circuit's damping ratio,

which is defined as the ratio of the circuit's damping coefficient to its natural frequency.



The damping ratio (ζ) can be calculated using the following formula:



ζ = R / (2√(L/C))

Plugging in the values given in the question, we get:



ζ = 20,000 / (2√(0.2 x 10^-3 / 5 x 10^-6))


ζ = 20,000 / 2√40


ζ = 20,000 / (2 x 6.324)


ζ = 1578.3

Since the damping ratio (ζ) is greater than 1, the circuit exhibits over-damping. This means that the circuit's response is critically damped, which is characterized by a slow decay without oscillations.

The circuit's output will return to zero after a long time without any overshoot.



In conclusion, the series RLC circuit with R = 20 kΩ, L = 0.2 mH, and C = 5 μF exhibits over-damping, which results in critically damped behavior without any oscillations or overshoot.

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as shown in the figure, the charge q is midway between two other charges. if what must be the charge q1 so that charge q2 remains stationary as q and q1 are held in place?

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To keep charge q2 stationary while charges q and q1 are held in place, the charge q1 must be equal in magnitude but opposite in sign to charge q.

What is the Coulomb's law?

According to Coulomb's law, like charges repel each other, and unlike charges attract each other. In the given scenario, to keep charge q2 stationary, the net force acting on it should be zero.

Let's assume charge q has a positive magnitude, represented as +q. To balance the forces and keep q2 stationary, the charge q1 should have the same magnitude but opposite sign, represented as -q.

Due to the equal magnitudes and opposite signs, the forces between q2 and q1 will cancel out, resulting in a net force of zero on q2. Meanwhile, the forces between q and q1 will still be repulsive, but since q is held in place, it won't affect the equilibrium of q2.

Therefore, by setting the charge q1 to -q, with the same magnitude as charge q but opposite sign, we can ensure that charge q2 remains stationary while charges q and q1 are held in place.

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a motor attached to a 120 v/60 hz power line draws an 8.00 a current. its average energy dissipation is 840 w.a)What is the power factor?b)What is the rms resistor voltage?c)What is the motor's resistance?d)How much series capacitance needs to be added to increase the power factor to 1?

Answers

To solve this problem, we'll use the following formulas:

(a) Power factor (PF) is given by the ratio of the real power (P) to the apparent power (S). Mathematically, it can be expressed as:

PF = P / S

(b) The RMS voltage (V) is related to the peak voltage (Vp) by the formula:

V = Vp / √2

(c) The resistance (R) of the motor can be determined using Ohm's law:

R = V / I

(d) To calculate the required series capacitance, we'll use the formula:

C = (tan φ) / (2πfR)

where φ is the angle of the power factor and f is the frequency.

Given:

Voltage (V) = 120 V

Current (I) = 8.00 A

Power (P) = 840 W

Frequency (f) = 60 Hz

(a) Power Factor (PF):

PF = P / S

The apparent power (S) can be calculated using the formula:

S = V * I

S = 120 V * 8.00 A

S = 960 VA

Now we can calculate the power factor:

PF = 840 W / 960 VA

PF ≈ 0.875

Therefore, the power factor is approximately 0.875.

(b) RMS Resistor Voltage (V):

V = Vp / √2

Vp is the peak voltage, which is the same as the RMS voltage.

V = 120 V / √2

V ≈ 84.85 V

Therefore, the RMS resistor voltage is approximately 84.85 V.

(c) Motor Resistance (R):

R = V / I

R = 120 V / 8.00 A

R = 15 Ω

Therefore, the motor's resistance is 15 Ω.

(d) Series Capacitance (C) to increase the power factor to 1:

To calculate the required series capacitance, we need to determine the angle φ.

φ = arccos(PF)

φ = arccos(0.875)

φ ≈ 29.68 degrees

Now we can calculate the required series capacitance:

C = (tan φ) / (2πfR)

C = tan(29.68 degrees) / (2π * 60 Hz * 15 Ω)

C ≈ 7.66 × 10^(-6) F

Therefore, approximately 7.66 microfarads (µF) of series capacitance needs to be added to increase the power factor to 1.

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A sheep on a skateboard is standing still when she is pushed with a force of 59 n to the right for 1.5 seconds. if the sheep has a mass of 41 kg how fast will the sheep move?

please help!

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A sheep on a skateboard is standing still when she is pushed with a force of 59 n to the right for 1.5 seconds. if the sheep has a mass of 41 kg  a speed of approximately 2.16 m/s after being pushed with a force of 59 N for 1.5 seconds.

To determine the speed at which the sheep will move, we can use Newton's second law of motion, which states that the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the net force applied to it and inversely proportional to its mass.

The formula to calculate acceleration is given by:

Acceleration (a) = Net Force (F_net) / Mass (m)

In this case, the net force acting on the sheep is 59 N to the right, and the mass of the sheep is 41 kg.

Using the formula, we can calculate the acceleration:

a = 59 N / 41 kg ≈ 1.44 m/s^2

Now, we can use the formula for calculating the final velocity (v) of an object in uniform acceleration:

v = u + a * t

Given that the sheep was initially at rest (u = 0) and the time (t) is 1.5 seconds, we can substitute the values:

v = 0 + 1.44 m/s^2 * 1.5 s

v ≈ 2.16 m/s

Therefore, the sheep will move at a speed of approximately 2.16 m/s after being pushed with a force of 59 N for 1.5 seconds.

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Let R = Z[i] and r = 4+2i. (a) Determine the total number of residue classes in R/TR (b) Draw a fundamental region for R/rR, and use it to find an explicit list of residue class representatives. (c) Find the prime factorization of r in Z[i]. (d) How many units are there in R/rR? (Hint: Use the Chinese Remainder Theorem and the factorization of r: (e) Verify Euler's Theorem for the element 1 =1+2i in R/TR.

Answers

The prime factorization of r in Z[i] is r = (2 + i)(2 - i).

How many residue classes are there in R/TR? (b) Draw a fundamental region for R/rR and provide an explicit list of residue class representatives. (c) What is the prime factorization of r = 4+2i in Z[i]? (d) How many units are there in R/rR? (e) Verify Euler's Theorem for the element 1 = 1+2i in R/TR.

To determine the total number of residue classes in R/TR, we need to find the index of TR in R. In other words, we need to find how many distinct cossets there are.

In this case, R = Z[i] is the ring of Gaussian integers, and TR is the ideal generated by r = 4 + 2i. Since r is nonzero, TR is a proper ideal of R. The index [R : TR] represents the number of residue classes.

To find the index, we can use the formula [R : TR] = |R|/|TR|, where |R| and |TR| represent the cardinalities of the respective sets.

Since R is an infinite set (Gaussian integers form a lattice), we can't calculate the index directly. However, we know that the index is equal to the number of distinct cosset. So, in this case, the total number of residue classes in R/TR is infinite.

To draw a fundamental region for R/rR, we need to consider the lattice points in the complex plane corresponding to R and rR.

The lattice points of R correspond to the Gaussian integers, which form a square grid in the complex plane.

The lattice points of rR correspond to the multiples of r, which form another grid in the complex plane. Since r = 4 + 2i, the lattice points of rR are obtained by scaling and translating the lattice points of R.

A fundamental region is a region in the complex plane that contains exactly one lattice point from each cosset of rR. In this case, a suitable fundamental region for R/rR can be a parallelogram bounded by the lines connecting the origin (0) to the lattice points 4, 2i, and 4+2i.

To find an explicit list of residue class representatives, we can choose one lattice point from each congruence class inside the fundamental region. For example, we can choose the lattice points 0, 1, i, 1+i, 2, 2+i, 2i, 3, 3+i, and so on.

To find the prime factorization of r = 4 + 2i in Z[i], we need to factorize r into irreducible elements in Z[i].

We can start by checking if r is irreducible. If it is irreducible, then the prime factorization of r is simply r itself. However, if r is reducible, we need to factorize it further.

To check if r is irreducible, we can calculate its norm: N(r) = |4 + 2i|^2 = 4^2 + 2^2 = 16 + 4 = 20.

If the norm is a prime number (or a unit in Z[i]), then r is irreducible. However, in this case, the norm of r (20) is not a prime number. Therefore, r is reducible.

To factorize r, we can find its prime factors by trial and error. One possible factorization of r is r = (2 + i)(2 - i), where 2 + i and 2 - i are irreducible elements in Z[i]. Note that the norms of both factors are prime numbers: N(2 + i) = 5 and N(2 - i) = 5.

To find the units in R/rR, we can use the Chinese Remainder Theorem (CRT) and the factorization of r = (2 + i)(2 - i).

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1. A 70kg skydiver lies out with a frontal area of 0.5m2, Cd = 0.9, r = 1.2 kg/m3. What is their terminal velocity during free-fall? Answer in MPH, 1609m = 1 mile, 3600 sec = 1 hour.​
2. If 60kg Roberto can ride his 8 kg bicycle up a 10% incline at 3 m/sec, how fast could he ride on level ground? Cd = 0.9, A = 0.3m2; ignore rolling resistance.​

Answers

Terminal velocity of skydiver = 174 mph

Roberto can ride at approximately 9.1 m/s on level ground.

To find the terminal velocity of the skydiver, we can use the formula Vt = sqrt((2mg)/(CdrA)), where m is the mass of the skydiver, g is the acceleration due to gravity, Cd is the drag coefficient, r is the density of air, and A is the frontal area of the skydiver. Plugging in the given values, we get Vt = sqrt((2709.81)/(0.91.20.5)) = 174 mph.

On the incline, the force acting against Roberto is the sum of the force of gravity and the force of air resistance, given by Fnet = mgsin(theta) - 0.5CdrAv^2, where theta is the angle of the incline, v is the velocity of Roberto, and all other variables have their usual meanings.

At 3 m/s, this net force allows him to ride up the incline. On level ground, we can ignore the force of gravity and set Fnet = 0, so we have 0 = - 0.5CdrAv^2, which gives us v = sqrt((2mg)/(CdrA)). Plugging in the given values, we get v = sqrt((2609.81)/(0.91.20.3)) = 9.1 m/s.

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The quadriceps tendon attaches to the tibia at a 30 degree angle 5 cm from the joint center at the knee. When an 80 N weight is attached to the ankle 28 cm from the knee joint, how much force is required of the quadriceps to maintain the leg in a horizontal position?

Answers

the force required of the quadriceps to maintain the leg in a horizontal position is 896 N.

In order to maintain the leg in a horizontal position, the force exerted by the quadriceps must be equal and opposite to the force exerted by the weight on the ankle.

To determine the force required of the quadriceps, we can use the principles of torque and moment arm.

First, we need to calculate the moment arm of the weight. The moment arm is the perpendicular distance between the weight and the joint center.

The moment arm of the weight = 28 cm

Next, we need to calculate the moment arm of the quadriceps. The moment arm of the quadriceps is the perpendicular distance between the line of action of the quadriceps force and the joint center.

We know that the quadriceps tendon attaches to the tibia at a 30 degree angle 5 cm from the joint center. Using trigonometry, we can calculate the moment arm of the quadriceps:

Sin 30 = opposite/hypotenuse
Opposite = Sin 30 x hypotenuse
Opposite = 0.5 x 5
Opposite = 2.5 cm

Therefore, the moment arm of the quadriceps = 2.5 cm

Now we can use the equation for torque:

Torque = force x moment arm

We know that the torque of the weight = torque of the quadriceps (since the leg is in equilibrium).

Torque of the weight = 80 N x 0.28 m = 22.4 Nm

Torque of the quadriceps = force x 0.025 m (converting 2.5 cm to meters)

Setting the torques equal to each other and solving for force:

Force x 0.025 m = 22.4 Nm

Force = 22.4 Nm / 0.025 m

Force = 896 N

Therefore, the force required of the quadriceps to maintain the leg in a horizontal position is 896 N.

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Assuming a star with a radius of 1×106 km has a planet with a radius of 3×105 km. The original observed radiance from the star by a telescope is 1 W/m2. What is the observed star’s radiance by the telescope with a transit event?(A) 0.91 W/m2 (B) 0.93 W/m2 (C) 0.95 W/m2 (D) 0.97 W/m2

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The observed star’s radiance by the telescope with a transit event is (A) 0.91 W/m2.The observed radiance of a star can be affected by the transit of a planet. During the transit event, the planet passes in front of the star, blocking a portion of its light from reaching the observer on Earth.

How to calculate the observed star's radiance?

The ratio of the areas of the planet and the star can be calculated as:

(area of planet) / (area of star) = (πr^2) / (πR^2) where r is the radius of the planet and R is the radius of the star.

Substituting the given values, we get:

(area of planet) / (area of star) = (π(3x10^5)^2) / (π(1x10^6)^2) = 0.09

This means that the planet blocks 9% of the light from the star. The observed radiance of the star during the transit event can be calculated as:

observed radiance = (original observed radiance) x (1 - blocked fraction)

where the blocked fraction is the fraction of light blocked by the planet, which is 0.09 in this case. Substituting the values, we get:

observed radiance = (1 W/m^2) x (1 - 0.09) = 0.91 W/m^2

Therefore, the observed star's radiance by the telescope with a transit event is approximately 0.91 W/m^2. Hence the answer is (A) 0.91 W/m2.

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A 0.50 μf capacitor is charged to 70 v. it is then connected in series with a 25 ω resistor and a 110 ω resistor and allowed to discharge completely.

Answers

The time it takes for the capacitor to fully discharge is about 5 times the time constant (5RC), or 337.5 μs.

When the 0.50 μF capacitor is charged to 70 V, it stores electrical energy in its electric field. However, when it is connected in series with a 25 ω resistor and a 110 ω resistor, the capacitor starts to discharge through the resistors. The time constant of the circuit (RC) is given by the product of the resistance and capacitance, which is 0.5 μF x (25 + 110) ω = 67.5 μs.

As the capacitor discharges, the voltage across it decreases exponentially according to the formula V(t) = V0 * e^(-t/RC), where V(t) is the voltage across the capacitor at time t, V0 is the initial voltage (in this case 70 V), and e is the mathematical constant. When t = RC, the voltage across the capacitor has decreased to about 37% of its initial value, or 25.9 V.

Eventually, the capacitor will fully discharge, meaning that the voltage across it will be 0 V. At this point, all of the energy that was stored in the capacitor has been dissipated through the resistors in the form of heat. The time it takes for the capacitor to fully discharge is about 5 times the time constant (5RC), or 337.5 μs in this case.

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Why is a series circuit current the same in a capacitor resistor and inductor while voltage is different?

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In a series circuit, the current remains the same throughout the circuit due to the conservation of charge. However, the voltage across each component can vary depending on the component's impedance.

In the case of a resistor, the voltage drop across it is proportional to the current flowing through it according to Ohm's law. In an inductor, the voltage drop across it is proportional to the rate of change of current flowing through it due to its inductance. Similarly, in a capacitor, the voltage across it is proportional to the charge stored on it due to its capacitance. So, even though the current remains constant, the voltage across each component can vary depending on its impedance.

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a series rlc circuit attached to a 120 v/60 hz power line draws 2.40 a of current with a power factor of 0.900. What is the value of the resistor?

Answers

The value of the resistor in a series RLC circuit attached to a 120 V/60 Hz power line, with a current draw of 2.40 A and a power factor of 0.900, is R = 50 Ω.

we can use the formula:

Power factor = (R/Z)

where R is the resistance of the circuit, and Z is the impedance of the circuit. Impedance can be calculated as:

Z = sqrt(R^2 + (Xl - Xc)²)

where Xl is the inductive reactance of the circuit, and Xc is the capacitive reactance of the circuit.

We know that the power factor is 0.900, so we can rearrange the formula to solve for R:

R = Power factor x Z

To find Z, we need to calculate the inductive and capacitive reactances. The inductive reactance can be calculated as:

Xl = 2πfL

where f is the frequency (60 Hz), and L is the inductance of the circuit. The capacitive reactance can be calculated as:

Xc = 1/(2πfC)

where C is the capacitance of the circuit.

Since we do not have values for L or C, we cannot calculate Xl or Xc. However, we can assume that the circuit is either primarily inductive or primarily capacitive, based on the power factor.

A power factor of 0.900 indicates that the circuit is slightly inductive. Therefore, we can assume that Xl > Xc.

Assuming that the circuit is primarily inductive, we can use the formula for inductive reactance to estimate a value for L:

Xl = 2πfL

L = Xl/(2πf)

L = (120 Ω)/(2π x 60 Hz)

L = 318.31 mH

Using this value for L, we can calculate Xl:

Xl = 2πfL

Xl = 2π x 60 Hz x 318.31 mH

Xl = 120 Ω

Now we can calculate Z:

Z = sqrt(R^2 + (Xl - Xc)²)

Z = sqrt(R^2 + (120 Ω - Xc)²)

Since Xl > Xc, we know that Z > 120 Ω.

We also know that the current draw is 2.40 A. We can use Ohm's law to calculate the total impedance:

V = IR

120 V = 2.40 A x R

R = 50 Ω

Now we can use the formula for power factor to solve for Xc:

Power factor = (R/Z)

0.900 = (50 Ω)/(Z)

Z = (50 Ω)/(0.900)

Z = 55.56 Ω

We can now calculate Xc:

Z = sqrt(R^2 + (120 Ω - Xc)²)

55.56 Ω = sqrt(50^2 + (120 Ω - Xc)²)

Solving for Xc:

Xc = 67.37 Ω

Therefore, the value of the resistor in the circuit is:

R = 50 Ω.

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about half of the gas and dust that fills interstellar space is concentrated in dense regions called? quizle

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About half of the gas and dust that fills interstellar space is concentrated in dense regions called molecular clouds.

Define the molecular clouds are regions within interstellar space?

Interstellar space is not completely empty but contains gas and dust spread throughout. Molecular clouds are regions within interstellar space where the gas and dust are highly concentrated. These clouds are composed mainly of molecular hydrogen (H₂) along with other molecules like carbon monoxide (CO) and various organic compounds.

Molecular clouds are dense and cold regions that serve as the birthplaces of stars. Within these clouds, gravity causes the gas and dust to clump together, forming denser regions known as molecular cloud cores. These cores can further collapse under their own gravity, leading to the formation of protostars and ultimately stellar systems.

The presence of dense molecular clouds is crucial for the process of star formation and the evolution of galaxies. They provide the necessary raw materials from which new stars and planetary systems can emerge, making them important objects of study in astronomy and astrophysics.

Therefore, approximately 50% of the gas and dust in interstellar space is found in concentrated areas known as molecular clouds, which play a vital role in star formation and galactic evolution

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Superkid, finally fed up with Superbully\'s obnoxious behaviour, hurls a 1.07-kg stone at him at 0.583 of the speed of light. How much kinetic energy do Superkid\'s super arm muscles give the stone?
Give answer in joules

Answers

The stone has a kinetic energy of roughly 8.56 × 10¹⁷ joules thanks to Superkid's strong arm muscles.

We can use the formula for relativistic kinetic energy to calculate the kinetic energy of the stone:

K = (γ - 1) * m * c²

where γ is the Lorentz factor, m is the mass of the stone, c is the speed of light, and K is the kinetic energy.

The Lorentz factor can be calculated as:

γ = 1 / √(1 - v²/c²)

where v is the velocity of the stone relative to an observer at rest.

Substituting the given values, we have:

v = 0.583c

m = 1.07 kg

c = 299,792,458 m/s

So, γ = 1 / √(1 - (0.583c)²/c²) = 1.44

Substituting this value into the equation for kinetic energy, we get:

K = (γ - 1) * m * c² = (1.44 - 1) * 1.07 kg * (299,792,458 m/s)² = 8.56 × 10¹⁷ J

Therefore, Superkid's super arm muscles give the stone a kinetic energy of approximately 8.56 × 10¹⁷ joules.

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find the wavelength of a photon that has energy of 19 evev .

Answers

Therefore, the wavelength of a photon with energy of 19 eV is approximately 64.7 nanometers.

First, it's important to understand that photons are particles of light that have both wave-like and particle-like properties. They travel through space at the speed of light and have energy that is directly proportional to their frequency and inversely proportional to their wavelength.
This relationship is described by the equation E = hf, where E is the energy of the photon, h is Planck's constant (6.626 x 10^-34 joule seconds), and f is the frequency of the photon.
To find the wavelength of a photon with energy of 19 eV, we can use the equation E = hc/λ, where λ is the wavelength of the photon and c is the speed of light (299,792,458 meters per second).
First, we need to convert the energy of the photon from eV to joules, which can be done by multiplying by the conversion factor 1.602 x 10^-19 joules per eV. This gives us:
E = 19 eV x 1.602 x 10^-19 joules per eV = 3.0478 x 10^-18 joules
Next, we can plug this value for E into the equation E = hc/λ and solve for λ:
λ = hc/E
λ = (6.626 x 10^-34 joule seconds) x (299,792,458 meters per second) / (3.0478 x 10^-18 joules)
λ = 6.472 x 10^-8 meters, or approximately 64.7 nanometers
Therefore, the wavelength of a photon with energy of 19 eV is approximately 64.7 nanometers.

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the 52-kg flywheel has a radius of gyration k⎯⎯ = 0.46 m about its shaft axis and is subjected to the torque m = 1.7(1 - e-0.12θ) where θ is in radians. if the flywheel is at rest

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The final angular velocity of the flywheel after it has rotated through a certain angle θ can be given by ω = sqrt(2(1.7/10.0768)(1 - e^-0.12θ)θ).

The given information describes a flywheel with a mass of 52 kg and a radius of gyration of 0.46 m about its shaft axis. The torque applied to the flywheel is given by the function m = 1.7(1 - e^-0.12θ), where θ is in radians.

If the flywheel is at rest, then its initial angular velocity is zero. To find the angular acceleration of the flywheel, we can use the formula:

m = Iα

where m is the torque, I is the moment of inertia, and α is the angular acceleration.

The moment of inertia of a flywheel can be calculated using the formula:

I = mk²

where k is the radius of gyration.

Substituting the given values, we get:

I = (52 kg)(0.46 m)² = 10.0768 kg m²

Now, we can rewrite the torque equation as:

α = m/I = (1.7/I)(1 - e^-0.12θ)

Substituting the moment of inertia, we get:

α = (1.7/10.0768)(1 - e^-0.12θ)

This equation gives us the angular acceleration of the flywheel at any given angle θ. If we want to find the final angular velocity of the flywheel after it has rotated through a certain angle, we can use the formula:

ω² - ω0² = 2αθ

where ω is the final angular velocity, ω0 is the initial angular velocity (which is zero in this case), α is the angular acceleration, and θ is the angle rotated through.

Solving for ω, we get:

ω = sqrt(2αθ)

Substituting the expression for α, we get:

ω = sqrt(2(1.7/10.0768)(1 - e^-0.12θ)θ)

This equation gives us the final angular velocity of the flywheel after it has rotated through a certain angle θ.

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What is the wavelength of a photon that has a momentum of 5.00×10−29 kg ⋅ m/s ? (b) Find its energy in eV.

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1.325 × [tex]10^-5[/tex] m is the wavelength of a photon that has a momentum of 5.00×[tex]10^-^2^9[/tex] kg and Energy of photon is 0.0936 eV.

The momentum of a photon is related to its wavelength λ by the equation:

p = h/λ

where p is the momentum, λ is the wavelength, and h is Planck's constant.

(a) Solving for λ, we have:

λ = h/p

Substituting the given values, we get:

λ = (6.626 × [tex]10^-^3^4[/tex]J s) / (5.00 × [tex]10^-^2^9[/tex] kg · m/s)

λ = 1.325 ×[tex]10^-^5[/tex]m

Therefore, the wavelength of the photon is 1.325 × [tex]10^-^5[/tex]m.

(b) The energy of a photon is related to its frequency f by the equation:

E = hf

where E is the energy and f is the frequency.

We can relate frequency to wavelength using the speed of light c:

c = λf

Solving for f, we get:

f = c/λ

Substituting the given wavelength, we get:

f = (2.998 × [tex]10^8[/tex]m/s) / (1.325 × [tex]10^-^5[/tex]m)

f = 2.263 × [tex]10^1^3[/tex] Hz

Now we can calculate the energy of the photon using the equation:

E = hf

Substituting the given values for Planck's constant and frequency, we get:

E = (6.626 × [tex]10^-^3^4[/tex]J s) × (2.263 × 1[tex]0^1^3[/tex]Hz)

E = 1.50 × 1[tex]0^-^2^0[/tex] J

Finally, we can convert this energy to electron volts (eV) using the conversion factor:

1 eV = 1.602 ×[tex]10^-^1^9[/tex]J

Therefore:

E = (1.50 ×[tex]10^-^2^0[/tex] J) / (1.602 × [tex]10^-^1^9[/tex] J/eV)

E = 0.0936 eV

So, the energy of the photon is 0.0936 eV.

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If it is 95°F today, how much water vapor would be needed to saturate the air in g/kgO 10 g/kgO 14 g/kgO 20 g/kgO 26.5 g/kgO 35 g/kg

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The amount of water vapor needed to saturate the air at 95°F is approximately 0.0127 g/kgO.

The amount of water vapor needed to saturate the air depends on the air temperature and pressure. At a given temperature, there is a limit to the amount of water vapor that the air can hold, which is called the saturation point. If the air already contains some water vapor, we can calculate the relative humidity (RH) as the ratio of the actual water vapor pressure to the saturation water vapor pressure at that temperature.

Assuming standard atmospheric pressure, we can use the following table to find the saturation water vapor pressure at 95°F:

| Temperature (°F) | Saturation water vapor pressure (kPa) |

|------------------|--------------------------------------|

| 80               | 0.38                                 |

| 85               | 0.57                                 |

| 90               | 0.85                                 |

| 95               | 1.27                                 |

| 100              | 1.87                                 |

We can see that at 95°F, the saturation water vapor pressure is 1.27 kPa. To convert this to g/kgO, we can use the following conversion factor:

1 kPa = 10 g/m2O

Therefore, the saturation water vapor density at 95°F is:

1.27 kPa x 10 g/m2O = 12.7 g/m2O

To convert this to g/kgO, we need to divide by 1000, which gives:

12.7 g/m2O / 1000 = 0.0127 g/kgO

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The work function of platinum is 6.35 eV. What frequency of light must be used to eject electrons from a platinum surface with a maximum kinetic energy of 2.83×10−19 J? Express your answer to three significant figures.

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The  frequency of light required to eject electrons from a platinum surface with a maximum kinetic energy of 2.83×10−19 J is 1.19 × 10^15 Hz, expressed to three significant figures.

To solve this problem, we need to use the equation:

E = hf - Φ

where E is the kinetic energy of the ejected electron, h is Planck's constant (6.626 × 10^-34 J·s), f is the frequency of the incident light, and Φ is the work function of the metal (in this case, platinum).

First, we need to convert the given kinetic energy of 2.83×10−19 J to electron volts (eV) by dividing by the elementary charge (1.602 × 10^-19 C/eV):

KE = 2.83×10−19 J / (1.602 × 10^-19 C/eV) = 1.77 eV

Next, we can rearrange the equation to solve for the frequency of the incident light:

f = (E + Φ) / h

Substituting the given values, we get:

f = (1.77 eV + 6.35 eV) / (6.626 × 10^-34 J·s) = 1.19 × 10^15 Hz

Therefore, the frequency of light required to eject electrons from a platinum surface with a maximum kinetic energy of 2.83×10−19 J is 1.19 × 10^15 Hz, expressed to three significant figures.

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Consider a small silicon crystal measuring 100 nm on each side. (a) Compute the total number N of silicon atoms in the crystal. (The density of silicon is 2.33 g/cm3) (b) If the conduction band in silicon is 13 eV wide and recalling that there are 4N states in this band, compute an approximate value for the energy spacing between adjacent conduction band states for the crystal.

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Answer:

(a) There are approximately 5 billion silicon atoms in the crystal.

(b) The energy spacing between adjacent conduction band states in the silicon crystal is approximately 6.54 × 10^(-11) eV.

Explanation:

(a) The volume of the silicon crystal is (100 nm)^3 = 1 × 10^6 nm^3 = 1 × 10^(-15) m^3. The mass of silicon in the crystal can be found by multiplying the volume by the density of silicon:

mass = volume × density = (1 × 10^(-15) m^3) × (2.33 g/cm^3) × (100 cm/m)^3 = 2.33 × 10^(-12) g

The molar mass of silicon is 28.086 g/mol, so the number of moles of silicon in the crystal is:

moles = mass / molar mass = 2.33 × 10^(-12) g / 28.086 g/mol = 8.30 × 10^(-14) mol

Finally, the total number of silicon atoms in the crystal can be found by multiplying the number of moles by Avogadro's number:

N = moles × Avogadro's number = (8.30 × 10^(-14) mol) × (6.022 × 10^23 /mol) = 4.99 × 10^9 atoms

Therefore, there are approximately 5 billion silicon atoms in the crystal.

(b) The energy spacing between adjacent conduction band states can be found by dividing the width of the conduction band by the number of states in the band:

energy spacing = 13 eV / 4N

Substituting the value of N found in part (a), we get:

energy spacing = 13 eV / (4 × 4.99 × 10^9) ≈ 6.54 × 10^(-11) eV

Therefore, the energy spacing between adjacent conduction band states in the silicon crystal is approximately 6.54 × 10^(-11) eV.

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two capacitors are connected parallel to each otherr. let c1 = 2.70 μf, c2 = 5.20 μf, and vab = 60.0 v.,the potential difference across the system.Part A calculate the potential difference across each capacitorpart B calculate the charge on each capacitor

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The potential difference across each capacitor in a parallel circuit is the same and equal to the total potential difference across the system. Therefore, the potential difference across each capacitor in this circuit is also 60.0 V.

Part B:
The charge on a capacitor is given by the formula Q = CV, where Q is the charge, C is the capacitance, and V is the potential difference across the capacitor.

Using this formula, we can calculate the charge on each capacitor:

For C1:
Q1 = C1 x Vab
Q1 = 2.70 μF x 60.0 V
Q1 = 162.0 μC

For C2:
Q2 = C2 x Vab
Q2 = 5.20 μF x 60.0 V
Q2 = 312.0 μC

Therefore, the charge on capacitor C1 is 162.0 μC, and the charge on capacitor C2 is 312.0 μC.


Part A:
When two capacitors are connected in parallel, the potential difference (voltage) across each capacitor remains the same as the potential difference across the system. Therefore,

V_C1 = V_C2 = V_AB = 60.0 V

Part B:
To calculate the charge on each capacitor, use the formula Q = C * V.

For capacitor C1:
Q_C1 = C1 * V_C1 = (2.70 μF) * (60.0 V) = 162.0 μC (microcoulombs)

For capacitor C2:
Q_C2 = C2 * V_C2 = (5.20 μF) * (60.0 V) = 312.0 μC (microcoulombs)

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what happens to the potential difference between points 1 and 2 when the switch is closed?

Answers

The potential difference between points 1 and 2 decreases when the switch is closed.

What happens to the potential difference between points 1 and 2 when the switch is closed?

When the switch is closed, the potential difference between points 1 and 2 will decrease. This is because closing the switch creates a conducting path between the two points, allowing current to flow. As current flows, there will be a voltage drop across the resistance of the conducting path.

This voltage drop reduces the potential difference between points 1 and 2. The amount of decrease depends on the resistance of the conducting path and the amount of current flowing through it. In an ideal scenario with zero resistance in the switch and conducting path, the potential difference between points 1 and 2 would become zero.

However, in practical situations, there will still be a small potential difference due to the resistance of the conducting elements.

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was PSE6 30.AE.03. [3660484] Question Details 2 Example 30.3 Magnetic Field on the Axis of a Circular Current Loop Problem Consider a circular loop of wire of radius R located in the yz plane and carrying a steady current I as in Figure 30.6. Calculate the magnetic field at an axial point P a distance x from the center of the loop. Strategy In this situation, note that any element as is perpendicular to f. Thus, for any element, ld5* xf| (ds)(1)sin 90° = ds. Furthermore, all length elements around the loop are at the same distancer from P, where r2 = x2 + R2. = Figure 30.6 The geometry for calculating the magnetic field at a point P lying on the axis of a current loop. By symmetry, the total field is along this axis,

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The magnetic field at an axial point P a distance x from the center of a circular current loop of radius R carrying a steady current I is given by the expression B = (μ0IR2)/(2(r2)^(3/2)), where r2 = x2 + R2.

To calculate the magnetic field at a point P on the axis of a circular current loop, we first need to determine the distance between the point P and the loop. Using the Pythagorean theorem, we can find that distance, which is given by r2 = x2 + R2.

Next, we use the Biot-Savart law to calculate the magnetic field at point P due to a small element of the loop. Since the element is perpendicular to the vector from the element to point P, the angle between them is 90 degrees, and sin(90) = 1.

We can simplify the expression and integrate over the entire loop to find the total magnetic field at point P. By symmetry, the magnetic field is along the axis of the loop. The resulting expression for the magnetic field is B = (μ0IR2)/(2(r2)^(3/2)), where μ0 is the permeability of free space, I is the current in the loop, R is the radius of the loop, and r2 is the distance between the point P and the center of the loop.

Suppose you were not held together by electromagnetic forces. How long would it take you to grow 3 centimeters because of the expansion of the universe? [HINT: Apply Hubble's Law to your head as seen by your feet. Calculate the velocity in cm/sec between your feet and head, using v=Hd, where H is the Hubble "constant", and d is your height. With this "expansion" or "growth" velocity, figure out how long it will take you to grow an additional 3 cm. [ANOTHER HINT: Take care with units!]

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If not held together by electromagnetic forces, it would take approximately 2.52 x 10¹³ seconds for a person to grow 3 centimeters because of the expansion of the universe.

Hubble's Law describes the expansion of the universe, which states that the further away a galaxy is from us, the faster it is receding from us. The Hubble "constant" (H) is the proportionality factor between the recessional velocity of a galaxy and its distance from us.

Assuming a person's height is 170 cm and H is approximately 70 km/s/Mpc (the latest estimated value), we can calculate the velocity between a person's head and feet due to the expansion of the universe using v=Hd, where d is the person's height.

Therefore, v = 70 km/s/Mpc x 1.7 m =1.19 x 10⁻¹⁸ km/s.

We can convert this velocity to centimeters per second by multiplying it by 10⁵, giving us 1.19 x 10⁻¹³ cm/s. To grow 3 centimeters, a person would need to travel at this velocity for 3/1.19 x 10⁻¹³ = 2.52 x 10¹³ seconds.

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5. would it be possible to cool a real gas down to zero volume? why or why not? what do you think would happen before the volume was reached?

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It is not possible to cool a real gas down to zero volume without undergoing a phase change.

No, it would not be possible to cool a real gas down to zero volume. This is because as we cool down a gas, its volume decreases, but it can never reach zero. According to the laws of thermodynamics, as we decrease the temperature of a gas, it also loses energy, which results in a decrease in its volume. However, as we approach zero temperature, the gas molecules would start to behave differently and begin to stick together. This would result in the formation of a liquid or solid state.
Before the volume of the gas reaches zero, we would expect a phase change to occur. At very low temperatures, the gas molecules would lose their kinetic energy and start to move slower. As a result, they would stick together, forming clusters of molecules. These clusters would eventually become larger, forming a liquid or a solid. This process is called condensation and it occurs when a gas is cooled down below its dew point temperature. Therefore, it is not possible to cool a real gas down to zero volume without undergoing a phase change.

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the photons of green light have a wavelength of 550nm. i) determine the momentum of a green photon. ii) determine the energy of a green photon

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i) The momentum of a green photon with a wavelength of 550 nm is approximately 1.13 x 10^-27 kg m/s.
ii) The energy of a green photon with a wavelength of 550 nm is approximately 3.61 x 10^-19 Joules.

The momentum of a green photon with a wavelength of 550nm can be determined using the formula p=hf/c, where p is the momentum, h is Planck's constant, f is the frequency, and c is the speed of light. Since we know the wavelength, we can calculate the frequency using the formula f=c/λ. Thus, f=c/550nm=5.45×10^14 Hz. Substituting this value in the formula for momentum, we get p=(6.63×10^-34 J s)(5.45×10^14 Hz)/3×10^8 m/s=1.13×10^-27 kg m/s.

The energy of a green photon with a wavelength of 550nm can be determined using the formula E=hf, where E is the energy. Using the frequency we calculated earlier, we can determine the energy as E=(6.63×10^-34 J s)(5.45×10^14 Hz)=3.61×10^-19 J. This is the energy of a single photon. In terms of electron volts (eV), this energy is approximately 2.25 eV. This energy is high enough to cause electrons in a material to be excited, leading to various phenomena such as the photoelectric effect, fluorescence, and absorption.

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T/F. The energy for n = 4 and f = 2 state is greater than the energy for n = 5 and l = 0 state.

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The statement "The energy for n = 4 and f = 2 state is greater than the energy for n = 5 and l = 0 state" is true. The energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom is determined by its principal quantum number (n) and its orbital angular momentum quantum number (l), as well as its magnetic quantum number (m).

The energy level increases with increasing n, and within each energy level, the energy increases with increasing l. Thus, for the hydrogen atom, the energy of the n=5 and l=0 state (which is the 5s state) is lower than the energy of the n=4 and l=2 state (which is the 4d state).

This is because the 5s state has a lower value of l than the 4d state, and therefore experiences a weaker Coulombic attraction to the nucleus, resulting in a lower energy.

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A large disk that has radius 0.200 m is mounted on a fixed frictionless axle at its center. A light rope is wrapped around the disk and a block of mass 20.0 kg is suspended from the free end of the rope. The system is released from rest. The rope unwinds without slipping and the block descends with an acceleration of 4.00 m/s2. What is the moment of inertia of the disk for an axis along the axle?

Answers

The moment of inertia of the disk is 100 kg·m².

The moment of inertia is a measure of an object's resistance to rotational motion, and it depends on the object's mass distribution and geometry.

In this problem, we can use the concept of torque to relate the acceleration of the block to the moment of inertia of the disk. Since the rope unwinds without slipping, the linear acceleration of the block is equal to the tangential acceleration of the disk at the point where the rope is attached. We can use the equation for torque τ = Iα, where τ is the torque applied to the disk, I is its moment of inertia, and α is its angular acceleration. Since the torque is equal to the weight of the block, which is mg = 196 N, and the angular acceleration is equal to the tangential acceleration divided by the radius, which is α = a/r = 20 m/s², we can solve for the moment of inertia I = τ/α = (196 N)(0.2 m)/20 m/s² = 100 kg·m².

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