Answer:
Should be Advil 200 mg tablets and ibuprofen 200 mg tablets
good luck on your test!
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Ibuprofen is the generic name of Advil. They are the same medication.
Simon received an organ transplant. The donated organ came from another living person.
Answer:
Affirmative
Explanation:
The organ could not work well if it was from a dead person. Because its literally a dead organ.
Which of the following is a degenerative joint disease?
O Pancreatitising
O Osteoarthritis
O Epilepsy
O Bloat
Answer:
Osteoarthritis
Explanation:
Degenerative joint disease, or joint degeneration, is another name for osteoarthritis. It is known as “wear-and-tear” arthritis because it develops as joints wear down, allowing bones to rub against each other. People with degenerative joint disease often have joint stiffness, pain and swollen joints.
true or false
loose connective tissue contains all three protein fiber types
Answer:
true
Explanation:
A set dollar amount that the patient pays for reimbursement of certain services is called a
Answer:
copay
Explanation:
What is the best method for preventing the spread of infection?
Answer:
Proper hand washing is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infections
Explanation:
Task2. A team of ambulance doctors arrived on call to a patient who developed supraventricular tachycardia against the background of a hypertensive crisis.
Q 1. What should be chosen from the following drugs as a the first-aid kit of this patient? enalapril tablets, captopril tablets, diazoxide in ampoules, clonidine tablets, propranolol in ampoules, metoprolol in ampoules? Explain your answer.
What should be chosen among the drugs as this patient's first aid kit is propranolol in the absence of Adenosine.
How to reverse a supraventricular tachycardia?Adenosine infusion (12 to 18 mg bolus) reverses tachycardia in 85% of patients. Other options are diltiazem (0.25 mg/kg IV) or amiodarone (150 to 300 mg IV). Whenever possible, consider definitive treatment through radiofrequency ablation.
What is supraventricular tachycardia?Are arrhythmias that suddenly accelerate the heartbeat and originate in the upper chambers of the heart (atria). They may be secondary to foci of abnormal electrical activity or to reentry circuits (accessory pathways, Wolff-Parkinson-White and nodal reentry).
With this information, we can conclude that what should be chosen among the drugs as a first aid kit for this patient is propranolol in the absence of Adenosine.
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A technician who is adding dye to a tissue specimen is most likely trying to determine whether the bacteria are what?
(A) gram positive or gram negative
(B) round or rod shaped
(C) aerobic or anaerobic
(D) harmful or harmless
When we discuss the health record, we refer to data and information. What is the difference between data and information?
Answer:
5 short paragraphs in drought on Ethiopea
Answer:
Data is an individual unit that contains raw materials which do not carry any specific meaning. Information is a group of data that collectively carries a logical meaning
Which of the following vitamins can be eliminated through the urine?
Vitamin B
vitamin D
vitamin A
vitamin E
I need an expansion of knowledge on "Schizophrenia"
Answer:
Here's my report.
Explanation:
My research project was based on schizophrenia. Check it out.
Schizophrenia
Introduction
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder which exhibits moments of psychosis in a person. To recognize if a person is under the influence of the disorder, one must carefully study the behaviour of the concerned person, and see if they show any symptoms associated with this disorder. Schizophrenia occurs due to various causes, so one single cause cannot be pinpointed, so it needs to be traced back to the problems the person may be facing or struggling with. In their lifetime, around 0.3-0.7% globally are affected by it. The data collected shows more cases are being reported worldwide due to an increasing number of causes, with one being the coronavirus pandemic, which has forced more people into solitude, restricting their daily-life interaction with others. The treatment results are varied with many seeing improvement in their conditions, some who are fully cured, but the majority of people with this disorder tend to be impaired for a lifetime. Let’s explore this topic further.
Symptoms
Schizophrenia has different symptoms which can be classified into positive and negative symptoms. Positive symptoms include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thoughts and speech, etc. These symptoms are termed as “positive” because people who only display these symptoms have a higher chance of being cured. Negative symptoms include showing negligible emotion, little to no speech, inability to feel pleasure, insociality, and apathy. Out of these 5 core symptoms, apathy is the central one. Apathy refers to the state where a person has no feelings towards anything, and is very introverted, staying in a state of solitude. People with negative symptoms are found to be more difficult to treat, as they are less responsive to medicine.
Risk Factors
As mentioned in the introduction, schizophrenia is a complex neural disorder with no cause in particular, as it is hypothesised that it may be due to variations in gene-environment interactions. But, to break it down into simpler terms, there are three ways it can be diagnosed: genetically, environmentally, or by substance use. Studies have shown there is a 70-80% chance the disorder is obtained genetically, with the highest risks being related directly to someone with the disease (6.5%), through one of your parents (13%), or by both (50%). Environment diagnosis is more rare, as experiences such as respiratory problems, infection, or in women during pregnancy. Other factors to be considered involve childhood trauma, infections, or even age gap between children and their parents (overage/underage). Now, substance use and its harmful effects have been well-documented to most of us by now. Around 50% of people affected by schizophrenia have admitted to drug use, mainly for recreational purposes, and examples of these drugs include cannabis, tobacco, amphetamine, and even alcohol can be stated as a reason.
Management and Treatment Procedures
Primary treatment of schizophrenia involves the use of antipsychotic medications, while involving psychosocial interventions to provide support such that people with mental illness will be properly cared for and not discriminated against as in general hospitals. First-generation antipsychotic medications are those which affect the neural transmission of dopamine, other termed as dopamine antagonists, and the second-generation antipsychotic medicine takes effect on another neurotransmitter called serotonin. For those who suffer from a critical level of schizophrenia, other support groups take them away from the hospital atmosphere and provide them with more positive surroundings to improve their conditions, and studies have shown that it is a very effective approach in treating schizophrenia. In conclusion, to reduce the risk of schizophrenia, just be your normal self, do things that will give you courage, and talk to people if you’re facing difficulties that can be solved. The more problems you keep to yourself, the more stressed you will feel, and that can affect what you do and feel in your everyday life.
Answer:
Epidemiology Perspective The disease epidemiology covered in the report provides historical as well as forecasted epidemiology segmented by Prevalent Cases of schizophrenia, Diagnosed Prevalent cases of schizophrenia
Explanation:
Jenny Williams is a 47 year old woman who was recently diagnosed with hypertension. She was previously diagnosed with diabetic neuropathy 5 years ago. Her doctor is wanting to start her on a first-line treatment option for hypertension. Which of the following medications is he likely to start Jenny on?
A first-line treatment option for hypertension that is likely to start Jenny would be perindopril erbumine combined with indapamide.
What is the most modern medication for hypertension?It is perindopril erbumine combined with indapamide, from the pharmaceutical company EMS. Access to yet another antihypertensive drug promises to help patients, especially considering the costs.
With this information, we can conclude that a first-line treatment option for hypertension that is likely to start Jenny would be perindopril erbumine combined with indapamide.
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the condition in which the normal mechanisms that help leptin regulate body weight and energy balance are disrupted is referred to as
Answer:
Physiology of leptin
Explanation:
The condition in which the normal mechanisms that help leptin regulate body weight and energy balance are disrupted is referred to as - leptin resistance.
Leptin is a hormone that is produced by fat cells that is called the starvation hormone. If leptin level low concentration in the blood sends a starvation signal to the brain and optimal leptin level, indicates the body has enough energy.
Leptin resistance is a condition caused by a high leptin level, indicating that there is a lot of fat present in the body but the brain can't sense it.The mechanism put in place for the brain to realize that there is enough energy available in the body is disrupted and the brain is starved.In people with leptin resistance, the urge to eat remains the same no matter how much or how rewarding the food is previously eaten might be.Thus, The condition in which the normal mechanisms that help leptin regulate body weight and energy balance are disrupted is referred to as - leptin resistance.
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4. Mrs. Robins states that she should not have her blood pressure taken on her left arm
because she has had a mastectomy. She indicates that her lymph nodes were also removed on
that side and the doctor told her not to have her blood pressure taken on that side. Why would a
doctor say this? You may need to refer to the Internet for the reason why
Answer:
Its precautionary to prevent lymphedema.
Explanation:
Sometimes, removing lymph nodes can make it hard for your lymphatic system to drain properly. If this happens, lymphatic fluid can build up in the area where the lymph nodes were removed. This extra fluid causes swelling called lymphedema.
The surgical partial or total removal of one or both breasts is referred to medically as a mastectomy. Breast cancer is typically treated with a mastectomy. Women who are thought to have a high risk of developing breast cancer occasionally have the procedure done as a preventative step.
What is Lymphedema?Lymphedema is caused by a blockage in the lymphatic system. This is usually the result of a traumatic event, such as a sports injury or deep cuts and bruises, or as a side effect of surgery or cancer treatment. Lymphedema can occur as a birth defect or as a symptom of infection in rare cases. Precautions are required to prevent lymphedema. When lymph nodes are removed, your lymphatic system may struggle to discharge properly on occasion. If this occurs, lymphatic fluid may accumulate where the lymph nodes were removed. Lymphedema is a swelling caused by extra fluid. It is critical to understand that lymphedema can sometimes become severe and cause serious problems, and that it is frequently a long-term or chronic condition.To learn more about Mastectomy refer to:
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#SPJ2
Which of the following is important information to include on radioactive waste containers
Can a man with an O blood type be the father of an AB child? Show your work.
No,
A care plan is used for what purpose
Identify the correct statement below about the body's inflammatory response.
The accumulation of white blood cells and additional fluids causes an injured area to swell.
Swelling occurs during inflammation due to an accumulation of squamous cells.
An injured area often feels warm to touch because of broken veins underneath the skin
Inflammation is in response to viruses only.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
The correct answer is: The accumulation of white blood cells and additional fluids causes an injured area to swell.
Statement 2 is wrong because squamous cells don't intervene in swelling
Statement 3 is wrong due to the fact that an injured area feels warm because of vasodilation.
Statement 4 is wrong because it is not only in response to viruses
An Extra Strength Excedrin tablet contains aspirin, acetaminophen, caffeine and cellulose.
a. True
b. False
true
hope this helps!
What is one problem caused by the tracking of students?
A. Gifted students are held back by having to work with struggling
students.
B. Students can too easily jump from one track to another.
C. Students do not learn how to work with people of differing
abilities.
O D. All of the above are correct. .
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Define the following combining form or suffix.
a. bilo
b. cyan/o
C. melan/o
d. cutanelo
e. -opsy
Answer:
A. Having two lobules
B. Blue or dark blue
C. Black or dark-colored
D. Skin
E. Examination or inspection
You are told to order 3 bottles of Septra suspension. Each bottle has 480 mL. What is the total liters you are
ordering?
The 3 vials of Septra suspension. Each bottle has 480ml. the total liters you are asking for is 1,440 liters.
What is septra?This medication is a combination of two antibiotics: sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim. It is used to treat a wide variety of bacterial infections (such as middle ear, urine, respiratory, and intestinal infections). It is also used to prevent and treat a certain type of pneumonia (pneumocystis-type).
With these informations, we can conclude that the 3 Septra suspension bottles. Each bottle has 480ml. the total liters you are asking for is 1,440 liters.
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Extrapyramidal symptoms:
Answer:
Restlessness, drooling of the mouth, uncontrolled movements, and stiff posture.
Explanation:
Common symptoms of Extrapyramidal:
moral framework highlighting universal moral truths & emphasizes doing one’s duty
Moral framework that highlights universal moral truths and emphasizes the fulfillment of duty is the framework of Kantian morality.
What is Kantian morality?(KANT, 2004, p. 21). Morality is the relationship of actions with autonomy of the will, what is required for autonomy is freedom - which is not acting without any rule, but being able to follow a rule freely imposed by reason itself.
With this information, we can conclude that the moral framework that highlights universal moral truths and emphasizes the fulfillment of duty is the framework of Kantian morality.
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Can I eat food that sit out for one hour and 15 minutes?
Answer:
It depends on what it is. If you are thawing out something that doesn't need to be cooked then yes, but certain foods that contain milk, dairy, or uncooked meat, then no.
Explanation:
Answer:
You can, but it really depends on what you eat and how much you eat.
Explanation:
You have just been hired in a dental practice where the restorative material of choice is amalgam. The
hiring dentist has commented on how he and the other dentists struggle when placing amalgams because each of the dentists in the practice has his or her own sequence and instrument choice and the dental
assistants can't keep each of their preferences straight. You have been assigned the task of preparing amalgam tray setups that will be placed in each of the operatories. These setups will be used by different dentists and dental assistants. It is important to have all of the trays set up in the same manner for convenience and efficiency. What specialized instruments are used to place an amalgam restoration? WhaT variations of each of the instruments are available? What accessory items should be included to complete an amalgam restoration tray setup?
The specialized instruments are used to place an amalgam restoration is Amalgam Carrier.
The variations are double ended, single ended with 15, 45 degrees.
The accessory items that should be included to complete an amalgam restoration tray setup are;
Spoon excavatorGingival margin trimmer. cavity preparation.What is Amalgam carriers?Amalgam carriers serves as instruments used to fill dental cavities with amalgam.
According to this question, we are asked about the restorative materials of choice to use such Amalgam as a dental expert.
As a result of this we can see that this Amalgam comes with different variations and some accessories such as Spoon excavator and Gingival margin trimmer can be used during the process.
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Trace a drop of CSF from a lateral ventricle to reabsorption at an arachnoid granulation.
Normal route of CSF from production to clearance is the following: From the choroid PLEXUS , the CSF flows to the lateral ventricle, then to the interventricular FORAMEN of Monro, the third ventricle, the cerebral aqueduct of SYLVIUS , the fourth ventricle, the two lateral foramina of Luschka and one MEDIAL foramen.
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Answer:
The choroid plexus of the ventricles (70 percent of the volume) produces the majority of CSF; the choroid plexus of the lateral ventricles produces the rest. The remaining CSF is produced by transependymal flow from the brain to the ventricles.
Name the top portion of this bone
A. sacrum
B.coccyx
C.manubrium
D.sternum
Which statements demonstrate a breach of patient confidentiality? Select all that apply.
A nursing assistant speaks with a patient about dietary requirements.
A nurse speaks with a friend about a patient's medical condition.
A physician tells her nurse husband about a patient's diagnosis over dinner.
Anursing assistant gives out patient information without the patient's consent.
A nursing assistant tells the nurse in charge about a complaint that a patient has about his medication,
Intro
Done
A nurse speaks with a friend about a patient's medical condition.
A physician tells her nurse husband about a patient's diagnosis over dinner.
Anursing assistant gives out patient information without the patient's consent.
Explanation:
true or false
Bundles of collagen fibers are arranged parallel to one another in dense irregular collagenous connective tissue
structures under flexor retinaculum
Answer:
The median nerve is one of the structures that passes deep into the flexor retinaculum of the hand. Bursa radialis. The bursa of the ulna. The flexor pollicis longus is located below the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the flexor digitorum superficialis. The flexor pollicis longus has its origin in the middle portion of the volar radius and its insertion in the base of the thumb's distal phalanx.