when looking at the nutritional information label on a food package, consumers should look at when making decisions about calorie content and how much to eat.

Answers

Answer 1

Consumers should consider the serving size when examining the nutritional information label on a food box to decide how many calories to take.

You can determine how much of the product constitutes one serving by looking at the serving size. Because the calorie count on the label only refers to one serving and not the full box, this is significant.

Understanding the serving size will also enable you to calculate how many servings you must consume to satisfy your nutritional requirements.

Additionally, it's crucial to look up the overall number of calories in the container as well as the number of calories in each serving. This will enable you to calculate how much of the product you can consume while staying under your calorie limit.

Finally, the nutritional label should be utilised to compare different goods in order to choose the most nutritious one. This will assist you in choosing healthier foods and achieving your health objectives.

Complete Question:

When looking at the nutritional information label on a food package, consumers should look at __________ when making decisions about calorie content and how much to eat.

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Related Questions

What is the ICD-10 code for mild hyponatremia?

Answers

The ICD-10 code for mild hyponatremia is E87.6.


The ICD-10 code for mild hyponatremia is E87.1. This code is used to specify a diagnosis of mild hyponatremia, which is a condition in which the level of sodium in the blood is lower than normal. It is important to note that the ICD-10 code for hyponatremia may vary depending on the severity of the condition.

For example, the code for severe hyponatremia is E87.2. It is important to use the correct code in order to accurately document and treat the condition.

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True or False: Air quality problems can generally be solved through local regulatory actions irrespective of regulations and the state of air quality in nearby cities, states, or countries.

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Air quality issues can generally be resolved through local regulatory action regardless of regulations. Air quality conditions in neighboring cities, states, or countries are false statements.

Under the Clean Air Act (CAA), the EPA sets limits for certain air pollutants. This includes restrictions on airborne capacity throughout the United States. The Clean Air Act also gives the EPA authority to limit emissions of air pollutants from sources such as chemical plants, utilities, and steel mills. Air pollution is not only harmful to human health. It is also an economic drain around the world. To control this, countries create national air quality laws to reduce emissions. Regulations set health standards, including targets for specific contaminants that industry and government must meet. 

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A woman, 41-weeks pregnant is at high risk for complication in the postpartum period. Which of the following agents will be more appropriate to induce labor?a. Oxytocinb. Misoprostolc. alkaloid ergotd. prostaglandin

Answers

The agent which will be more appropriate to induce labor is oxytocin, which means option A is the right answer.

Oxytocin hormone is very important in pregnancy which is released mainly during the time when baby is to be expelled out of the mother's body. It stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth and also supplements milk formation (lactation) after pregnancy for few months so as to feed the baby.

Since, the complete term of pregnancy is 40 weeks for mothers and in this case, the lady is in her 41st week, it means that the baby is ready to be taken out and hence oxytocin will ease the process and assist the mother during natural delivery.

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An electroencephalogram is used to record information about electrical activity in the what?

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An electroencephalogram (EEG) is used to record electrical activity in the brain.

An electroencephalogram (EEG) is a medical procedure that is used to measure and record the electrical activity of the brain. It is often used to detect any abnormal electrical activity that may be related to neurological disorders such as epilepsy, dementia, and sleep disorders.

The EEG uses electrodes placed on the scalp to detect and measure the electrical activity of the brain. The test is non-invasive and is often used to help diagnose and monitor certain neurological conditions. An EEG is a valuable tool for medical professionals as it can provide valuable insight into the electrical activity of the brain.

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what abbreviation of TSH medical?

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thyroid-stimulating hormone.

How much do you get for donating blood in Texas?

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The precise amount will depend on the programme and the state in which you reside, but in general, most contributors may anticipate receiving between $10 and $20 for each donation.

Gift cards or promotional items are the most common payment methods for this. Possess a valid parental consent form, be at least 16 years old, weigh 120 pounds, or be at least 17 years old and 110 pounds. general health should be good. display a legal photo ID. Plasma cannot be created in a laboratory, hence only human donations can be used to create plasma-based medicines. You may easily save lives by contributing through our simple approach. You can get more than $500* as a new contributor in your first month.

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what is polymyxin b sulfate and trimethoprim used for

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Polymyxin B sulphate and trimethoprim are frequently combined to treat bacterial infections of the eyes, such as conjunctivitis, also known as pink eye.

Pink eye, sometimes referred to as conjunctivitis, is an inflammation of the conjunctiva, the thin, transparent membrane that covers the white of the eye and lines the inside of the eyelid.

The redness and swelling of the conjunctiva, coupled with tearing, burning, itching, and discharge from the eye, are the most typical signs of conjunctivitis. The type of conjunctivitis and the underlying reason will determine whether the discharge is clear or white, thick and yellow or green, or any combination of these.

The antibiotic polymyxin B sulphate is a member of the polymyxin family. It accomplishes this by rupturing the bacterial cell membrane, resulting in leakage and ultimately, bacterial cell death. It works well against a variety of gram-negative bacteria, including Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

The bacterial enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is involved in the manufacture of folic acid in bacteria, is inhibited by the synthetic antibiotic trimethoprim. Trimethoprim interferes with the capacity of bacteria to create necessary elements required for their growth and survival by inhibiting this enzyme.

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After Jamie is startled awake in the middle of the night by a loud noise, he soon realizes that the noise he heard was the closet rod breaking from the weight of his winter coats. Once he knows that, he begins to calm down and his heart stops racing. Clearly his _____ has now been activated.

Answers

Clearly his parasympathetic nervous system has now been activated.

What is parasympathetic nervous system?

The parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) is a division of the autonomic nervous system that acts to regulate the body at rest or during relaxed states. It counterbalances the effects of the sympathetic nervous system, which is activated during stress or arousal, and helps to conserve energy and maintain homeostasis in the body.

The PSNS is responsible for slowing the heart rate, decreasing blood pressure, and promoting digestive and excretory functions. It is often referred to as the "rest and digest" system, as it promotes relaxation and rest after periods of stress or activity.

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overall, the leading cause of death for americans is___

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Answer:

Heart disease and cancer have claimed the first and second spots respectively as the leading causes of deaths in America. Together, the two causes are responsible for 46 percent of deaths in the United States and has been this way for over a decade.

Explanation:

I hope this helps as this is the most specific way i could write any of this

what is mpv blood test

Answers

Answer:

MPV stands for mean platelet volume, measures the average size of your plateletes.

Eve has been at an all-night dance and has been offered drugs that will increase her energy levels and feelings of emotional intimacy. dehydration is very likely to become a life-threatening hazard if she takes this drug, which it is

Answers

The drug it is likely Eve took was a stimulant or ecstasy which can lead to severe dehydration due to increased physical activity and decreased thirst.

The drug being offered to Eve is most likely a stimulant, such as cocaine or amphetamines or ecstasy (MDMA). These drugs increase physical activity and reduce the need for sleep, which can lead to a significant increase in body temperature and sweating.

This in turn, can result in dehydration which is a life threatening hazard if not addressed promptly. The drugs may also decrease feelings of thirst, leading to further dehydration. It is important for Eve to consider the potential risks and avoid taking the drug as her health and well being are of utmost importance.

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What is the ICD-10 code for reactive airway disease?

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The ICD-10 code for reactive airway disease is J68 which covers the diseases caused due to inhalation of chemicals, gases, fumes and vapours.

The ICD-10 coding system has been established by the World Health Organization in order to track the accurate medical conditions. These medical codes are used for the claiming purposes in reimbursement process.

Respiratory airway disease is the disease of the breathing airway similar to the asthma. The bronchi becomes highly reactive to irritants in this disease and therefore can becomes swollen or reactive upon encounter. The general symptoms include sneezing, coughing as well as shortness of breath.

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Should you accommodate the family's round-the-clock vigil in Darshan's room?

Answers

The nurse should inform the patient's relatives of their condition and the patient's family should inform the nurse of any faith requirements.

What is Cheyne- castes breathing?

Cheyne-Stokes respiration is a particular type of periodic breathing that is defined by a crescendo-decrescendo pattern of breathing in between central apneas or central hypopneas (waxing and waning amplitude of flow or tidal volume).

• The patient's family should be informed by the nurse that the patient will be due in a few days.

• The nurse should be permitted to remain with the patient's family.

Therefore, the patient's family should inform the nurse of any faith requirements.

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The given question is incomplete, so the most probable complete question is,

Mgods on his bedside table. His family has been chanting at Darshan's bedside for the last 2 days ham is an older resident who is dying of prostate cancer. He is a practicing Hindu and has pictures of Rady Ae in a coma. He has not voided for the last 24 hours. He has not had a bowel movement for the Darshan and can no longer take anything in by mouth. You notice that he has now started Cheyne- castes breathing. and his lower legs are purple in color.

Should you accommodate the family's round-the-clock vigil in Darshan's room?

What is blephar/o medical term ?

Answers

The definition of blephar is "relating to the eyelids." Eyelid prolapse or drooping is referred to as blepharoptosis.

Twitching of the eyelids often goes away on its own. Yet, persons who have benign essential blepharospasm might have severe and persistent (chronic) twitching of the eyelids. Sometimes little twitches of the eyelids are often the first signs of blepharospasm.

Your eyes may totally close as a result of the twitching as it becomes more frequent over time. Daily activities like reading or driving may become challenging as a result. Moreover, some people twitch their faces twitches in other parts of the face.

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What is or medical term?

Answers

Answer:The proper definition describes medical terminology as language used to describe anatomical structures, procedures, conditions, processes and treatments in the medical field.

Explanation:

What are the similarities and differences between heat stroke and heat exhaustion?

Answers

Heat stroke and heat exhaustion are both heat-related illnesses that can occur when the body is unable to regulate its internal temperature in response to high temperatures and/or high humidity. However, there are several key differences between the two conditions.

Similarities:

Both conditions are caused by prolonged exposure to high temperatures and/or high humidity

Both conditions can cause dehydration, weakness, and confusion

Both conditions require prompt medical attention to prevent serious complications

Differences:

Heat exhaustion is generally considered less severe than heat stroke, which is a medical emergency

Heat exhaustion is typically characterized by heavy sweating, pale skin, and a rapid heartbeat, while heat stroke is characterized by a high body temperature (over 104°F or 40°C), hot, dry skin, and a rapid heartbeat

Heat stroke can cause more serious complications such as organ damage, seizures, and even death if not treated promptly

Treatment for heat exhaustion generally involves rest, rehydration, and cooling measures such as moving to a cooler environment and using cold compresses or ice packs, while treatment for heat stroke may require hospitalization and more intensive cooling measures such as intravenous fluids and ice baths.

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patient protection and affordable care act defines affordable health insurance when the cost of the insurance is below what percentage of an employee's household income

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Affordable health insurance is defined under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA) as a health plan that doesn't cost an employee's household income plus 8.05% more.

Based on the employee's and their family's Modified Adjusted Gross Income (MAGI), this percentage is calculated. The MAGI is the AGI plus any overseas income, nontaxable Social Security payments, and interest income that is not subject to tax.

In order to avoid penalties under the ACA, firms must offer employees access to affordable health insurance. When determining whether an employer offers reasonably priced insurance and when determining eligibility for subsidies and tax credits when acquiring coverage via the Marketplace, the 8.05% level is applied.

Employers may provide plans with rates over the 8.05% cutoff, but if an employee chooses to purchase insurance via the Marketplace, they will not be eligible for subsidies or tax credits.

Complete Question:

What percentage of an employee's household income does the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act define as affordable health insurance?

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according to the national clas standards, health care organizations should ensure that data on a patient's race, ethnicity, and spoken and written language are handled in which of the following ways? A. Collected in health records
B. Integrated into the organization's management information systems
C. Periodically updated
D. All of the above

Answers

Collecting and integrating patient data on race, ethnicity, and language into health records and management information systems is an important part of ensuring quality all the information are correct therefore the correct option is D.

This data should be collected and stored in a secure manner and regularly  streamlined to reflect any changes in the case's demographics. This will help the association to directly identify, understand, and respond to the unique  requirements of each case, in addition to  furnishing the necessary

data for  exploration and policymaking. also, when this data is collected and maintained, it can help health care associations to identify and address  difference in care and access.

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holistic medicine is sometimes viewed as being unscientific. true/false

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The given statement that "Holistic medicine is sometimes viewed as being unscientific" is true because it involves certain unscientific beliefs which are different from conventional therapies.

Holistic medicine is basically an attitudinal approach towards the health care rather than certain set of techniques. It basically addresses the psychological, societal, familial, ethical as well as spiritual and the biological dimensions of health as well as illness.

The holistic approach happens to emphasize the uniqueness which each patient possesses, the mutuality of the relationship between doctor and patient relationship, each person's responsibility for their own health care and also society's responsibility for the promotion of their health.

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What is the ICD-10 code for fever?

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According to the WHO, the ICD-10 code R50. 9 for Fever, Unspecified falls under the category of Symptoms, Signs, and Abnormal Clinical and Laboratory Findings, Not Elsewhere Classified.

R50 unidentified and unrelated fever. According to the WHO, the ICD-10 code Z51. 89 for Encounter for other specified aftercare falls under the category of "Factors influencing health status and interaction with health services. Record details about the fever, including the date it began, the method and location you used to measure it (rectally or orally, for instance), and any additional symptoms.  Keep track of whether you or your child has been near any sick people.

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the main negative chronotropic effect on the heart is exerted by __________.

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The Sino-Atrial (SA) node is the site of the Vagus nerves' (CN X) primary chronotropic influence on the heart.

Which of the following causes a reduction in heart rate and is a chronotropic agent?

Acetylcholine slows the rhythm of the sinoatrial (SA) node, which has a chronotropic effect on the heart. Heart rate and cardiac output consequently drop. Follow the blood's course as it passes through the heart.

How do adverse chronotropes function?

By influencing the nerves that control the heart or by altering the rhythm the sinoatrial node produces, chronotropic medicines have the potential to alter heart rate. Heart rate is accelerated by positive chronotropes but slowed by negative chronotropes. The Atrioventricular Node's (AV node) conduction is impacted by a dromotrope.

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What Happened to Frida Kahlo in Her Bus Accident?

Answers

Frida suffered 11 fractures in her right leg and several breaks to her pelvis, clavicle, ribs, rib cage, and spinal column as a result of a severe bus accident on September 17, 1925.

The bus that struck Frida Kahlo was attempting to pass an electric streetcar when it crashed into the tram. Kahlo suffered severe and significant injuries after being impaled by a handrail that pierced her abdomen.

She fractured her spine three times, shattered her right leg eleven times, broke three vertebrae, dislocated her shoulder, and broke her clavicle. Kahlo's survival was fortunate because the catastrophe caused numerous other passengers to perish.

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Which of the following is responsible for maintaining healthy skin and hair, insulating body organs, maintaining body temperature, and promoting healthy cell function?
water
protein
carbohydrates
fat

Answers

Fat is responsible for insulating various body organs, maintenance of the body temperature, maintaining healthy skin and hair and also promoting the healthy cell function.

The correct option is option d.

Fats are a very essential macromolecule for our body. They are obtained in our diet and are a source of energy for our body which is used for maintenance and growth.

Fats play some very crucial roles in insulating various body organs, maintenance of the body temperature, maintaining healthy skin and hair and also promoting the healthy cell function. Fats are basically the most energy-dense source of calories which are present in our diet. Fats also make different foods taste better. They also happen to carry the fat-soluble vitamins which are, A, D, E, and K to the cells.

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What is the ICD-10 code for Cholelithiasis with Acute cholecystitis?

Answers

According to the WHO, the illnesses of the digestive system fall within the medical categorization represented by ICD-10 code K80.00 for calculus of the gallbladder with acute cholecystitis without blockage.

The gallbladder becomes inflamed or swollen when it has acute cholecystitis. A hospital setting is typically required for treatment because it has the potential to be seriously dangerous.

The primary sign of acute cholecystitis is a sudden, severe abdominal discomfort that radiates to your right shoulder and is located on the upper right side of your belly. The discomfort caused by acute cholecystitis is typically chronic and lasts for several hours, unlike certain other types of abdominal pain.

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On a typical day, a nurse encounters several situations involving measurement. State the name and type of measurement indicated by the units in each of the following:
a. The prothrombin time (clotting time) for blood sample in 12 s.
b. A premature baby weighs 2.0 kg.
c. An antacid tablet contains 1.0 g of calcium carbonate.
d. An infant has a temperature 39.2 ' C.

Answers

a. The measurement indicated by the unit "s" (seconds) is time.

b. The measurement indicated by the unit "kg" (kilograms) is weight or mass.

c. The measurement indicated by the unit "g" (grams) is weight or mass.

d. The measurement indicated by the unit "°C" (degrees Celsius) is temperature.

An item or event's qualities are quantified through measurement so that they may be compared to those of other things or occurrences. A method of measurement is used to determine an object's height, weight, capacity, or even quantity. We can gauge an object's length, height, or distance between two objects. For instance: Oliver is 100 inches tall, while the giraffe is 150 inches tall.

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What is bph icd 10 code ?

Answers

Benign prostatic hyperplasia without symptoms in the lower urinary tract ICD-10-CM code N40. 0 is specific code which designates a diagnosis for financial payment.

Now in its tenth version, the ICD (International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems) was developed. The consequence of the modification are the ICD-10 codes. The World Health Organization (WHO) created this collection of medical terms to aid in the identification and coding of medical problems by healthcare professionals.

Under the Health Insurance Portability & Accountability Act (HIPAA), physicians and healthcare professionals must adopt ICD-10, which will eventually replace all ICD-9 code sets. ICD-10 allows for the tracking of many more new illnesses than ICD-9 does.

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the strings and elastic bands of masks and eyewear are considered ________.

Answers

The strings as well as the elastic bands of masks and eyewear are considered clean.

Universal precautions or the standard precautions basically refer to the practices in medicine which involve avoiding the contact with patients' bodily fluids and this is done by the means of wearing of nonporous articles which include medical gloves, goggles, as well as face shields.

Physical interventions can help significantly in reducing the transmission of the infections. These physical interventions include frequent handwashing that can be with or without antiseptics, using of barrier measures like gowns, gloves, and masks, and also the correct handling of scalpels, hypodermic needles, as well as aseptic techniques.

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What is the meaning of 4 times a day medical abbreviation ?

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q.i.d., often known as QID in medical abbreviation, stands for quater in die in Latin, which translates to 4 times each day. When a medication is to be taken every x number of hours, it is indicated by the symbol "q h," where "q" stands for "quaque" and "h" for x number of hours.

In the operating room, emergency room, and at the point of discharge, medical abbreviations are employed in every medical and surgical department.

When making prescription orders, one place where medical acronyms are frequently utilized and problematic, is in the text. The usage of acronyms has never been regulated, and there is no established standard for which acronyms can be used and which ones cannot.

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fill in the blank. Maria had a stroke last year. Although she can remember many things from her childhood, she is unable to remember what she ate for breakfast. It is most likely that the stroke caused damage to her _____ lobes.

Answers

Maria had a stroke last year. Although she can remember many things from her childhood, she is unable to remember what she ate for breakfast. It is most likely that the stroke caused damage to her frontal lobes.

The frontal lobe is the largest of the major lobes in mammal brains. It, as the name may suggest, is located in the front of the brain. Damage to this lobe may result in various consequences, such as:

Mini-strokes (Transient ischemic attacks).Parkinson's diseaseAlzheimer's diseaseand many more

The common symptoms of frontal lobe damage are also various. Generally, the patient will have a hard time expressing emotion and responses. They may also show a hard time remembering recent events.

In the image below, the frontal lobe is the part colored as blue.

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Mild crowding of the permanent mandibular incisors may resolve after the age of 10 for which of the following reasons?A. The permanent mandibular incisors are only slightly larger in size than the primary mandibular incisors. Normal growth of the anterior region of the mandible provides more than adequate room for the permanent incisors by the age of 12.B. The presence of primate space distal to the mandibular canines allows space for the mandibular canines to move distally, creating more room for the mandibular incisors and alleviating mild crowding problems.C. The tongue will force the permanent incisors facially, creating adequate room to resolve any problems of crowding.D. It is not possible for even mild crowding of the permanent mandibular anterior teeth to resolve at this time because adequate growth of the anterior region of the mandible has not occurred.

Answers


The correct answer is B. The presence of primate space distal to the mandibular canines allows space for the mandibular canines to move distally, creating more room for the mandibular incisors and alleviating mild crowding problems. Primate space is the space between the primary and permanent mandibular canines. As the permanent mandibular canines erupt, they displace the primary canines distally, creating more space for the permanent mandibular incisors and resolving the mild crowding.

A is incorrect because the size of the permanent mandibular incisors is only slightly larger than the primary mandibular incisors, so normal growth of the anterior region of the mandible is not enough to provide adequate room for the permanent incisors by the age of 12.

C is incorrect because the tongue does not force the permanent incisors facially, but instead can cause them to be pushed distally.

D is incorrect because mild crowding of the permanent mandibular anterior teeth can resolve at this time due to the presence of primate space.
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