which constitutional principle did the supreme court decision in marbury v. madison strengthen?

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Answer 1

The Supreme Court's decision in the case of Marbury v. Madison (1803) strengthened the constitutional principle of judicial review.

In this landmark case of Marbury v. Madison (1803) , Chief Justice John Marshall and the Supreme Court held that the Court has the power to declare acts of Congress as unconstitutional. This decision established the principle of judicial review in this case , which is the power of the federal courts to determine the constitutionality of laws and executive actions.

By establishing the principle of judicial review, the Supreme Court upheld  its authority as an equal branch of government and established an important control and check on the power of the other branches. This decision also helped to establish the role of the Supreme Court as the final arbiter of constitutional questions in the United States.

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________ refers to the bargained-for legal value that one party agrees to pay or provide to secure the promise of another.A) ConsiderationB) AgreementC) ReformationD) Restitution

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Consideration refers to the bargained-for legal value that one party agrees to pay or provide to secure the promise of another. The correct answers is option a.

What is consideration?

Consideration is a necessary element of a contract. It is the value given in return for the promise or performance of another. In simpler terms, consideration is the "price" that is paid for the promise of the other party. Consideration must have legal value and be bargained for. In the absence of consideration, the contract would be considered a gift. A contract is not enforceable without consideration. Consideration can take various forms, including money, goods, services, or a promise to do something. In short, it is the mutual exchange of something of value that distinguishes a contract from a gift.

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questionwhich group describes the elements of the supreme court decision in the dred scott case? box with group a and group b. group a lists slaves were not citizens, slaves could not bring lawsuits, slaves were property, government could not restrict slavery. group b lists slaves could bring court cases, states could determine whether slavery was permitted, slaves would continue to be counted as three-fifths of a free person, government could require a balance between slave states and free states responsesgroup agroup agroup b

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Group A describes the elements of the Supreme Court decision in the Dred Scott case.

Group A lists: slaves were not citizens, slaves could not bring lawsuits, slaves were property, and government could not restrict slavery.

Group B lists: slaves could bring court cases, states could determine whether slavery was permitted, slaves would continue to be counted as three-fifths of a free person, and government could require a balance between slave states and free states.

The Supreme Court decision in the Dred Scott case was a major ruling in 1857 that had long-reaching effects on the United States. The decision stated that slaves were not citizens, so they could not bring a lawsuit, and slaves were treated as property.

The ruling also stated that the government could not restrict slavery, as it was considered a form of private property. Additionally, it stated that states could determine whether slavery was permitted, and slaves would be counted as three-fifths of a free person.

Finally, it was determined that the government could require a balance between slave states and free states.

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a ____ is an order requiring that an official bring a specified prisoner into court and show the judge why the prisoner is being kept in jail.

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An "order to show cause" is an order issued by a court or judge requiring an official (such as a jailer) to bring a specified prisoner into court and show the judge why the prisoner is being kept in jail.

This order can be used when a prisoner requests to be released on bail, when a prisoner seeks a writ of habeas corpus, or when a prisoner claims to be wrongly imprisoned. An order to show cause must provide the judge with sufficient evidence that there is a legal basis to continue to hold the prisoner in jail. If the official fails to show cause, the court may order the prisoner's release.

In order for an order to show cause to be issued, the court must have a legal basis for requiring the official to bring the prisoner in for a hearing. This can include evidence that the prisoner poses a danger to the public, that the prisoner may be a flight risk, or that the official has failed to follow proper procedure in the case. When the court reviews the order to show cause, it will determine if the evidence provided by the official is sufficient to continue the prisoner's detention. If the court finds that the evidence is not sufficient, the prisoner must be released.

The order to show cause is an important tool in ensuring that prisoners are not held unlawfully and that they are treated fairly. It can also be used to ensure that officials are properly carrying out their duties, and that they are adhering to the law when it comes to detaining prisoners. By issuing an order to show cause, the court can ensure that the official has the necessary evidence to detain the prisoner and that the prisoner has the right to a fair hearing.

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charitable organizations are not included in the do not call list prohibitions established by the federal trade commission (ftc).

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It is false that the charitable organizations are not included in the do not call list prohibitions established by the federal trade commission (ftc).

The Do Not Call List prohibitions established by the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) are designed to protect consumers from unwanted telemarketing calls. These rules prohibit most telemarketing calls to consumers who have registered their numbers on the Do Not Call List. While the Charitable organizations are one of the organizations that are exempt from the Do Not Call List prohibitions. The FTC also states that charitable organizations must provide a toll-free number that consumers can call to request that the organization not make any more calls to them.

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Discuss in 100 words or more, the purpose of AFIS and why it is so important in crime scene investigation.

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An Automated Fingerprint Identification System (AFIS) is effectively a storage, search and retrieval system for finger and palm print electronic images and demographic data. AFIS is a high speed, high capacity image processing system that enhances the ability of the latent fingerprint examiners to search and identify crime scene evidence and then print technicians to search arrest prints against ever increasing pool of fingerprint records. This device is of high importance due to it being able to figure out the identification of a person or suspected person of committing a crime or linking a possible suspect to other unsolved crimes, as well as give a high speed match of fingerprints (48 hours) unlike other manual matching devices which could take up to 40 days for an accurate match.


I’m not sure if this was 100 words but I hope it helped :)

Identify the consumer protection law that applies to each of the situations below.
1. Keisha applied for a credit card. She has a good credit record and earns a good income. Before Keisha was divorced, she had no problem getting a credit card. Recently she has been turned down by a major credit card company.
Which credit protection law has been violated?
Under this law, what can Keisha do?
2. v
Under this law, what can Neil do?
3. Jenny received her credit card bill and found a $250. charge for a media player she never purchased. She called the credit card company to report the mistake.
Which law was written to protect people from billing mistakes?
Under this law, how must Jennifer handle this situation?

4. Randy was denied a credit card from his favorite store. He wants to see his credit file to find out what information is keeping him from getting the credit card.
Which law was written to allow people access to their credit file?
What can Randy do if he sees mistakes?
5. What is "bait and switch" and how can you protect yourself?

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Answers & Explanations:

1. The credit protection law that applies to this situation is the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (ECOA). The law prohibits discrimination in any aspect of a credit transaction on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, or age. Keisha may file a complaint with the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB) or the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) if she suspects discrimination.

2. The consumer protection law that applies to Neil's situation is the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA). The law requires credit bureaus to provide consumers with free credit reports once every 12 months upon request. Neil can request his credit report from the credit bureau to find out what information is affecting his credit score. He can then dispute any inaccurate information and request that it be corrected.

3. The law that was written to protect people from billing mistakes is the Fair Credit Billing Act (FCBA). Under this law, Jennifer must dispute the charge in writing to the credit card company within 60 days of the billing statement. The company must acknowledge the dispute within 30 days and must resolve the dispute within two billing cycles or 90 days.

4. The law that was written to allow people access to their credit file is the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA). Randy may request a free copy of his credit report once a year from each of the three major credit reporting agencies. If he finds mistakes, he can dispute them with the credit reporting agency and the information provider.

5. "Bait and switch" is a deceptive marketing practice where a seller advertises a product or service at a low price to attract customers but then tries to sell them a higher-priced alternative. To protect yourself, always read the fine print and compare prices and product specifications before making a purchase. Additionally, you can report any bait and switch practices to the FTC or your state's attorney general's office.

A proactive police anticrime strategy is practiced when police
a. look for the crime.
b. receive information about the crime.
c. initiate the strategy.
d. profile criminals.

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Proactive police anticrime strategy is practiced when police initiate the strategy. police anticrime strategy is a method of policing that aims to prevent crime before it occurs.

This is accomplished by identifying potential crime targets and implementing prevention measures before the crime occurs. Proactive police work is critical for crime prevention in a neighborhood or town. This policing approach, also known as community policing, involves police officers collaborating with residents and community groups to develop solutions to problems that contribute to crime.

The proactive police approach involves police taking the initiative to reduce crime. It's characterized by officers working in partnership with the community to identify problems, risks, and other factors that contribute to crime. The community policing model, which is based on this approach, is founded on the premise that a strong partnership between the community and police can result in safer neighborhoods.

Community policing is a proactive policing approach that stresses the importance of partnering with the public to prevent crime, reduce disorder, and improve public safety. Community policing recognizes that the police cannot tackle crime alone and that the public has a role to play in creating and maintaining a safe and secure community.

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If a subsequent event occurs after the report date but prior to the release date of an audit report, resulting in management's revision of the financial statements of a non issuer, then the auditor may do any of the following, EXCEPT:
A) Maintain the original date of the report and state that the opinion is limited to the financial statements as they existed prior to the subsequent event.
B) Perform audit procedures necessary to obtain assurance about the revised financial statements.
C) Include an additional date in the audit report that is limited to the revision to the financial statements.
D) Revise the date of the audit report to reflect the necessity of additional audit procedures.

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The auditor may do any of the following, EXCEPT revise the date of the audit report to reflect the necessity of additional audit procedures (option D).

An auditor is a qualified professional who reviews and validates the financial records and accounting statements of businesses or organizations to ensure that they comply with accounting principles and regulations. Auditors are responsible for ensuring the accuracy and completeness of an entity's financial reports, which may include annual financial statements, tax returns, and other financial documents. They have the expertise and knowledge to evaluate and certify the reliability of an entity's financial records and disclosures, as well as to detect errors, omissions, or fraudulent activities.

Auditors play a crucial role in ensuring that businesses and organizations operate in a transparent and ethical manner and that the public can trust the financial information they provide.

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If an applicant submits false or misleading statements or submits a license, certificate, or diploma that was illegally or fraudulently obtained in his or her application for licensure, which of the following may occur?
The Board may refuse to issue the license, certificate or registration, or if it was already issued, there may be a disciplinary action up to and including suspension.

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If an applicant submits false or misleading statements or submits a license, certificate, or diploma that was illegally or fraudulently obtained in his or her application for licensure, the Board may refuse to issue the license, certificate or registration, or if it was already issued, there may be a disciplinary action up to and including suspension.

What is meant by the term misleading? A misleading statement is one that appears to be factual but is incorrect, intended to deceive or misguide. Misleading information is information that is presented in such a way as to make it seem factual or impartial when it is not. It can be through half-truths, distorted data, or outright falsehoods. An act is defined as fraudulent if it is carried out with the intention of deceiving another person or entity to gain a financial or personal benefit.

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Some laws exist that require administrative agencies to be open to the general public.
True or False?

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Answer: True

Explanation:

In 100 words or more, discuss what the different options are for sketch perspectives and what the forensic lab plays within crime scene investigation.

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The sketch can done while a witness is under hypnosis the sketch a molding of a face of and their bone structure can be sculpted with a sketch the sketch can be divided into many seesins the sketch can be checked against known offenders and a compute simulation can be used in place or beside a sketch they securely handle and process evidence and run lab test for presence of conduits intoxicants and poisons they run cpr genetic profiling they check for dna matches on collected dna samples of offenders they consult with crime scene investigation they can be called to testify as an expert witness in criminal prosecution and they can utilize the power of attorney privilege

The vice of the groupist theory is that it conceals the most significant aspects of the system. The flaw in the pluralist heaven is that the heavenly chorus sings with a strong upper-class accent. Probably about 90 percent of the people cannot get into the pressure system.
The notion that the pressure system is automatically representative of the whole community is a myth fostered by the universalizing tendency of modern group theories. Pressure politics is a selective process ill designed to serve diffuse interests. The system is skewed, loaded, and unbalanced in favor of a fraction of a minority.
Which of the following best captures the author's argument regarding the forms of democracy?

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The author's argument regarding the forms of democracy is that the pressure system is skewed, loaded, and unbalanced in favor of a fraction of a minority.

The author's argument regarding the forms of democracy is that the pressure system is skewed, loaded, and unbalanced in favor of a fraction of a minority. In this text, it can be inferred that the author of the passage is critical of the pluralist and groupist theories. The author argues that the groupist theory conceals the most significant aspects of the system while the flaw in the pluralist heaven is that the heavenly chorus sings with a strong upper-class accent. According to the author, pressure politics is a selective process that is ill-designed to serve diffuse interests. Therefore, the notion that the pressure system is automatically representative of the whole community is a myth fostered by the universalizing tendency of modern group theories.The system is skewed, loaded, and unbalanced in favor of a fraction of a minority. The author argues that democracy is skewed, loaded, and unbalanced in favor of a fraction of a minority. Thus, the answer is that the pressure system is skewed, loaded, and unbalanced in favor of a fraction of a minority.

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Davis, a licensed Civil Engineer, employs five unlicensed subordinate individuals who design buildings. Which of the following statements is true? (a) This is illegal, as only licensed individuals may do design work. (b) This is legal, so long as Davis is in responsible charge of the work. (c) This is legal, only if these individuals contract with Davis to perform such work. (d) This is legal, only if the buildings are single-family dwellings.

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The true statement is B: "This is legal, so long as Davis is in responsible charge of the work".

In most states in the United States, it is legal for unlicensed individuals to work on engineering projects, so long as a licensed professional engineer is in responsible charge of the work. The licensed engineer is responsible for ensuring that the work is done in accordance with applicable laws and regulations, and for reviewing and approving the work of the unlicensed individuals.

However, it is important to note that the specifics of engineering licensure and regulation vary by state, and the rules and requirements may be different in different parts of the world. It is important for engineers to be familiar with the laws and regulations that apply in their jurisdiction, and to ensure that they are in compliance with all applicable rules and requirements.

The correct answer is (b).

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What is the effect of fines on companies who are found guilty of price fixing? They take a huge financial hit, deterring them from repeating the crime. The fine they pay is much less than the profit they made from their crime. They must refund all the money they made from their crime. The fine is a penalty that causes most of them to go out of business

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Option A: The effect of fines on companies who are found guilty of price fixing is that they suffer a severe financial loss, which discourages them from doing the offense again.

Companies that are found guilty of price fixing can face severe financial consequences as a result of fines, which can act as a strong deterrence to such offenses in the future.

Depending on the seriousness of the offense and the size of the organization implicated, these fines may reach millions or even billions of dollars. The notion is that the fine must be severe enough to deter the corporation from repeating the same anticompetitive behavior.

The objective is to deter the corporation from participating in unlawful acts that hurt customers and other businesses rather than forcing them out of business.

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The question is -

What is the effect of fines on companies who are found guilty of price fixing?

a. They take a huge financial hit, deterring them from repeating the crime.

b. The fine they pay is much less than the profit they made from their crime.

c. They must refund all the money they made from their crime.

d. The fine is a penalty that causes most of them to go out of business.

Why did the Supreme Court overturn Miranda's conviction?

Answers

The Supreme Court overturned Miranda's conviction in the landmark case Miranda v. Arizona (1966) because they found that his Fifth and Sixth Amendment rights had been violated during the interrogation process.

The Court ruled that Miranda's confession was not admissible as evidence because he had not been informed of his right to remain silent and his right to an attorney.

The Court held that the Fifth Amendment protection against self-incrimination requires that an individual in police custody be informed of their right to remain silent before being interrogated.

Additionally, the Court held that the Sixth Amendment right to counsel requires that an individual be informed of their right to an attorney before and during any questioning. The Court found that Miranda had not been informed of these rights before his confession and that therefore his confession was not voluntary or knowing.

The Court's ruling in Miranda v. Arizona led to the development of the "Miranda warning," which is the advisement that law enforcement officers are required to give to individuals in custody before conducting custodial interrogations.

The Miranda warning informs individuals of their right to remain silent and their right to an attorney, and failure to provide this warning can result in any resulting statements or confessions being excluded as evidence in court.

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the supreme court determined that enslaved people were property and therefore had no legal rights in .

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The Supreme Court determined that enslaved people were property and therefore had no legal rights in Dred Scott v. Sandford case.

The Dred Scott v. Sandford case was heard by the United States Supreme Court on March 6, 1857, and ruled on March 6, 1857. This ruling was delivered by the United States Supreme Court’s Chief Justice Roger B. Taney. The case was between a slave named Dred Scott and his master’s widow, who was then residing in Missouri. Scott’s master had moved to Illinois and the Wisconsin territory, both of which were free territories. Dred Scott argued that he and his family should be freed since they had lived in free territory. Taney dismissed this argument and stated that enslaved people were property and therefore had no legal rights.

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contrast the roles that the house and senate play in the impeachment and conviction process by matching each chamber to its correct roles

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Senate: involves a vote that needs a two-thirds majority in order to convict or acquit the defendant. While the House: starts the impeachment process with a vote that needs a simple majority.

Speaker, majority and minority leaders, assistant leaders, whips, and a party caucus or conference make up the House leadership. The speaker serves as the head of the House and fulfills a number of institutional and executive responsibilities. On the House floor, the majority and minority leaders represent their respective parties. Two senators represent each state in the Senate, which has 100 members.

Senators were not elected by the general public; rather, state legislatures chose them until the 17th Amendment was ratified in 1913. Since then, the citizens of each state have chosen them to serve terms of six years. Each U.S. House of Representatives member represents a Congressional District, or area of their state, with an average population of 700,000. However, senators speak for the entire state.

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Assume that Iowa has passed a law requiring that motorcycle owners must ensure that anyone riding or operating their motorcycle wear a helmet. Marta enters an Iowa Harley-Davidson store and wants to take a test ride. She doesn't have a helmet with her and the dealership doesn't have one available in her size, so the proprietor lets her go without one. If she crashes and is injured, the proprietor has committed negligence per se.
True or False

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The statement "If she crashes and is injured, the proprietor has committed negligence per se" is True. Why is this True? Negligence per se is a legal term that refers to a party being automatically considered negligent because they violated a law or regulation that was established to protect the safety of the public.

When a party breaks a law or rule that was created to protect the safety of the public, it is assumed that they have been careless, and it is typically easier to prove that they were negligent in causing an accident. The given case fits the conditions of negligence per se as the Iowa state requires that anyone riding or operating their motorcycle must wear a helmet.

Since Marta did not wear a helmet while test-riding a motorcycle, which was owned by the proprietor who let her go without one, it could be assumed that the proprietor did not take reasonable care for Marta's safety. Therefore, the proprietor committed negligence per se.

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Name the agency whose primary mission is to reduce crashes, fatalities, and property loss involving large trucks and buses by regulating the workers involved
A.) Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration
B.) Surface Transportation Board
C.) Federal Marine Commission
D.) Federal Aviation Agency

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The agency whose primary mission is to reduce crashes, fatalities, and property loss involving large trucks and buses by regulating the workers involved is the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration. (A)

The FMCSA is a government agency that works to reduce commercial motor vehicle accidents and fatalities by enforcing regulations, providing educational resources, and conducting research.

The FMCSA operates under the Department of Transportation (DOT) and is responsible for the safety of commercial motor vehicles in the United States. The FMCSA's main goal is to reduce accidents, injuries, and fatalities involving large trucks and buses.

The FMCSA regulates drivers, vehicles, and carriers involved in transporting goods or passengers in interstate commerce, including:Commercial motor vehicle drivers (truck and bus drivers)

Motor carriers, including for-hire carriers, private carriers (e.g., businesses that use trucks to transport their own goods), and carriers engaged in interstate commerce.

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TRUE/FALSE. in the derivation of the michaelis-menten equation, the rate at which es is formed is given by which of the following?

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Systems do not follow Michaelis-Menten kinetics  are,An allosteric enzyme in the presence of the product of the reaction,the enzyme ATCase. Thus correct Option (b, d)

Michaelis-Menten kinetics is a broad theory that explains the velocity and overall mechanism of enzyme-catalyzed processes. It is based on the quick reversible creation of a complex between an enzyme and its substrate, which was first proposed in 1913. (the substance upon which it acts to form a product).

What can we learn from the Michaelis-Menten equation?

The equation states that at extremely low concentrations, the enzyme's rate is directly proportional to the concentration of substrate; conversely, at very high concentrations, the enzyme's rate approaches a maximum quantity known as maximum velocity.

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Full Question: Which of the following systems do not follow Michaelis-Menten kinetics?

(Select all that apply.)

a. A simple enzyme with [S] > KM.

b. An allosteric enzyme in the presence of the product of the reaction.

c. The enzyme chymotrypsin.

d. The enzyme ATCase.

jessica can make a well-thought-out, rational argument for why she is opposed to the death penalty. jessica is most likely in piaget's stage of cognitive development.

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Jessica is likely in Piaget's stage of formal operational thought, as she is able to make a well-thought-out, rational argument.

This stage occurs between ages 11 and 15, when people are able to think abstractly, make logical deductions, and consider hypothetical situations.

In this stage, people can form an opinion about something, such as the death penalty, based on their own logic and values. Jessica may oppose the death penalty on moral grounds, based on the potential for wrongful conviction or its potential lack of deterrence.

She may also have a utilitarian argument against it, as execution costs are often more expensive than life imprisonment. Whatever the argument, Jessica has the capacity to form an opinion and make a reasoned argument in Piaget's formal operational stage.

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with respect to dual agency, which of the following statements are true about the duties of full disclosure and undivided loyalty?

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When a real estate agent represents both the home buyer and seller, this is known as dual agency.

In most real estate transactions, it is much more typical to have separate agents represent each party, as this helps eliminate the conflict of interest that can emerge when an agent negotiates for both sides.

Dual agency occurs when a single real estate agent represents both the buyer and the seller in a real estate transaction. It can also occur in a purchase and sale or renting agreement when the same real estate company, agent, or landlord represents both the buyer and seller or landlord and renter.

A dual agent on your side will speed up the procedure. Dual agents frequently have more information than agents that operate entirely for one party. As the buyer, you might be in a stronger position to negotiate.

An agent who represents both the home buyer and the seller is said to practise "dual agency." Two agents can work for the same broker on the same transaction, generating a dual agency situation. A real estate agent or broker who represents just one party in a real estate transaction is known as a single agency.

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valley mart told its employees that they would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort. valley mart has committed an unfair labor practice T/F

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The statement "valley mart told its employees that they would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort, valley mart has committed an unfair labor practice" is true because it is considered an unfair labor practice under the National Labor Relations Act (NLRA).

The correct answer is true.

The NLRA is a federal law that protects employees' rights to organize and engage in concerted activity to improve their wages, benefits, and working conditions. This includes the right to form or join a union, bargain collectively with their employer, and engage in other concerted activities for mutual aid and protection.

Valley Mart's statement that employees would be fired if they actively supported a unionizing effort is considered an unfair labor practice under the NLRA because it is a form of interference, restraint, or coercion that can intimidate employees and chill the exercise of their protected rights.

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When talking to his investment clients, broker Adam often refers to tax shelters. This term typically means?

Answers

Explanation:

The term "tax shelter" typically refers to a legal method of reducing taxable income and, therefore, the amount of tax owed. Tax shelters can take many different forms, including investment opportunities such as individual retirement accounts (IRAs), 401(k) plans, and annuities, as well as certain types of business expenses or deductions.

the supreme court heard arguments this week in cases challenging president biden’s plan to forgive student debt. which law did the administration rely on to create the program?

Answers

The Higher Education Relief Opportunities for Students Act of 2003, more commonly known as the HEROES Act, grants the secretary of education the authority to "waive or modify any statutory or regulatory provision" to protect borrowers affected by "war or other military operation," which is the law on which the administration relied.

The correct answer is Higher Education Relief Opportunities for Students Act of 2003.

The Higher Education Relief Opportunities for Students Act of 2003 provides several protections for student loan borrowers affected by a war or other military operation, a national emergency, or a natural disaster.

It gives the Secretary of Education the authority to waive or modify any statutory or regulatory provision to relieve borrowers facing financial hardship due to these circumstances.

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what cases established the policy of judicial review?

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The principle of judicial review was established by the landmark case Marbury v. Madison in 1803.

This case established the Supreme Court's power to review the laws of Congress and to invalidate those that conflicted with the U.S. Constitution. In the ruling, Chief Justice John Marshall argued that it was the Court's responsibility to determine the constitutionality of laws and to act as the ultimate arbiter between the government and its citizens. The Judicial review ensures that laws adhere to the constitutional framework and also acts as a check on the power of Congress. This process has become a cornerstone of the American system of government, providing a way for citizens to challenge laws passed by the legislature.

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What sources does the court consider when making a decision?

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When making a decision, the court considers facts and law as sources.

Judicial decisions constitute one of the most important sources of legal authority, along with legislative and regulatory enactments, in our common law system.

Terms best describe law?

Canon, ordinance, precept, rule, regulation, and statute. All of these terms say to "a principle guiding conduct or process," but the word "law" implies imposition by a sovereign power and the requirement of submission on the part of all those who are subject to that authority.

How are laws different from rules?

The government enacts laws that hold everyone to the same standards. In contrast to regulations, most laws have some things  that do not change depending on the situation.

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T/F. One correctional policy decision that may influence who becomes a correctional client is that street crimes warrant more attention from police.

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The decision that street offences require extra police attention is one correctional policy choice that may have an impact on who enrols as a correctional client. True.

The decision that street offences require extra police attention is one correctional policy choice that may have an impact on who enrols as a correctional client. Rather than being motivated, this is widely acknowledged to be a bodily incursion driven by a desire for violent compulsion.

Several patients can be taken out of institutions thanks to medications that prevent abnormal behaviour. The majority of those found guilty of violent crimes did so while under the influence of some kind of illicit substance. Only in particular situations are classification judgements susceptible to sociopolitical forces.

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For officers who routinely use racial profiling as a justification for making traffic stops (without any other factors involved), a ______ form that must be filled out for every stop might be the tool to make the officer re-think his or her conduct

Answers

For officers who routinely use racial profiling as a justification for making traffic stops , a stop search form that must be filled out for every stop might be the tool to make the officer re-think his or her conduct

If an officer frequently uses racial profiling as a rationale for conducting traffic stops without considering any other factors, a "stop and search" form that must be completed for each stop may be the instrument to force the officer to reconsider his or her actions. The officer must record the reason for the stop as well as any additional pertinent information, such as the demeanor of the driver or the vehicle's condition, on the stop and search form.

This documentation would produce a record of the stop that superiors may review and possibly utilise to spot racial profiling trends. Every stop must involve the completion of a form, which might serve as a disincentive to cops who might otherwise use racial profiling. The use of stop and search forms may help to lessen instances of racial profiling in law enforcement by boosting accountability and openness.

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"Why are minorities (Predominately Black & Latino) arrested/incarcerated at a higher rate than other races"

Answers

Answer: Racial and Ethnic Disparity in State Prisons

Explanation:

Black and Latinx Americans in each state, identifies three contributors to racial and ethnic disparities in imprisonment
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