The functional group most appropriately describe the type of acyl group in vitamin C is ether.
Thus, the correct answer is C.
Vitаmin C, аlso known аs аscorbic аcid, is а very essentiаl vitаmin which is to be required by our body dаily in the diet. Vitаmin C is soluble in wаter аnd is therefore known аs the wаter-soluble vitаmins. Wаter soluble vitаmins аre those vitаmins which must be supplied in the diet regulаrly becаuse they аre reаdily excreted in urine аnd cаnnot be stored in our body.
The structure of Vitаmin C in the functionаl groups present аre:
-OH group (i.e. hydroxyl group),-C=O (cаrbonyl group), аnd -O- group (i.e. ether group)Hence, the functionаl group in vitаmin C аre hydroxyl, cаrbonyl аnd ether respectively.
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which statement indicates to the nurse that the client understands how to calculate her fertile period using the calendar method of birth control?
Based on this information, I know that I am most likely to ovulate on the 14th day before my next period, and I will avoid having sex during that time to prevent pregnancy."
explain fertile period ?
The fertile period, also known as the "fertile window," refers to the period of time during a woman's menstrual cycle when she is most likely to become pregnant if she has unprotected sexual intercourse. This period typically lasts for several days leading up to and including the day of ovulation, which is when an egg is released from the ovary and can be fertilized by sperm.
The length of the fertile period can vary depending on the length of a woman's menstrual cycle, which is the number of days from the first day of her period to the first day of her next period.
A statement that indicates to the nurse that the client understands how to calculate her fertile period using the calendar method of birth control could be:
"I have been tracking my menstrual cycles and have identified the length of my shortest cycle and longest cycle. Based on this information, I know that I am most likely to ovulate on the 14th day before my next period, and I will avoid having sex during that time to prevent pregnancy."
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In human testing controlled experiments can be tricky and can have ethical considerations. In a controlled experiment investigators apply treatments and then observe the effect of the treatment compared to a control group that does not receive the treatment. When this is not possible investigators may rely on observational studies where investigators simply observe effects without applying any treatment, in observational studies there is no human intervention. Consider the following example In one study subjects were randomly given either a placebo or 1000 milligrams of vitamin C daily, and the number of colds they came down with during a winter season was noted. In a second study people responded to a questionnaire asking about the average number of hours they sleep per night and the number of colds they came down with during a winter season. The first study was a controlled experiment, while the second group was an observational study The first study was and observational study while the second group was an experiment. Both studies were observational studies Both studies were controlled experiments
The correct option for this question option (A) The first study was a controlled experiment, while the second group was an observational study.
In an observational research, participants are measured or surveyed without any attempt to influence them. In a controlled experiment, participants or objects are divided into groups, and one group is given a treatment while the other is not.
Experimental study, allocate treatments to groups at random so that the researchers can determine the causal (cause-and-effect) relationship. What sets apart this research is the randomization of the treatments (observational and experimental). Here, we conduct an experiment and change the subject's surroundings to assess the response (dependent) variable. The experimental study's evidence is seen as being more reliable than the observational studies.
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The complete question is:
In human testing controlled experiments can be tricky and can have ethical considerations. In a controlled experiment investigators apply treatments and then observe the effect of the treatment compared to a control group that does not receive the treatment. When this is not possible investigators may rely on observational studies where investigators simply observe effects without applying any treatment, in observational studies there is no human intervention. Consider the following example In one study subjects were randomly given either a placebo or 1000 milligrams of vitamin C daily, and the number of colds they came down with during a winter season was noted. In a second study people responded to a questionnaire asking about the average number of hours they sleep per night and the number of colds they came down with during a winter season.
A) The first study was a controlled experiment, while the second group was an observational study
B) The first study was and observational study while the second group was an experiment.
C) Both studies were observational studies
D) Both studies were controlled experiments
differentiate between transpiration, exaporation and evapotranspiration
Transpiration refers to the process of water loss through the stomata of plants, evaporation is the process of a liquid turning into a gas, while evapotranspiration is the combination of both transpiration and evaporation and refers to the total water loss from a surface.
What is Transpiration?Transpiration is the process by which water is lost from a plant through small pores called stomata. This water loss can occur through evaporation from the surface of the leaves or stems and serves to regulate the temperature of the plant and maintain water balance.
Transpiration also plays a crucial role in the movement of water and nutrients from the roots to the leaves. It is an important aspect of the water cycle and helps to redistribute water and minerals throughout the plant.
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why was dry bread included in the experiment ?
Answer:
The purpose of the experiment is to find out how the amount of moisture affects the growth of mould on bread.
Explanation:
I'm guessing your experiment was about mold
Consider two solutions separated by a semi-permeable membrane. Solution A contains 1.0M NaCl, while solution B contains 1.0M KCl. The membrane is permeable to water and Na+ only. If you wished to keep Na+ from diffusing from solution A to solution B, which of the following strategies would likely be most effective?
a. Making the membrane permeable to K+.
b. Making the membrane permeable to Cl-.
c. Making the membrane impermeable to water.
d. Adding additional KCl to solution B.
e. Creating a positive charge on the B side of the membrane.
The appropriate approach is e. Adding a positive charge to the membrane's B side.
What is a simple definition of membrane?In biology, a membrane is the term used to describe the thin layer that outlines it outside a human cell or an internal cell compartment. The plasma membrane serves as the exterior boundary of the organelles, which are areas enclosed by internal membranes.
What does membrane do?Cell membranes act as boundaries and checkpoints. Because of their semi-permeability, some chemicals can diffuse out across lipid bilayer but not others. Gases such oxygen and carbon dioxide, as well as small hydrophobic compounds, quickly traverse membranes.
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In a particular plant species, two alleles control flower color, which can be yellow, blue, or white. Crosses of these plants produce the following offspring: OffspringParental phenotypes phenotypes (ration)Yellow x Yellow All yellowBlue x Yellow Blue or Yellow (1:1)Blue x white Blue or White (1:1)White x white All whiteWhat will be the phenotype, and ratio, of the offspring of a cross of blue × blue?
Phenotype of offspring resulting from the cross of blue × blue would be blue. As both the parents have the same genotype, all of their offspring would also have the same genotype - BB.
We can deduce that allele for blue color is dominant over allele for yellow color. Cross between blue x blue would involve two plants with same genotype BB, resulting in all offspring having a blue flower color phenotype.
Hence, ratio of offspring would be 1:0, meaning all of the offspring would have a blue flower color phenotype. This ratio indicates that there is no variation in the offspring's genotypes, all of them would have a blue flower color due to the dominance of the blue allele.
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Which of the following does NOT come from a seed plant? a. wooden cabins c. natural sponges b. notebook paper d. linen napkins
Answer:
Explanation:
All-natural sponges come from the sea, right? Not true. An entirely natural sponge plant grows on terra firma. The luffa (Luffa aegyptiaca) sometimes spelled loofah and nicknamed dishcloth gourd may be started from seeds and grown similarly to cucumbers and squash.
wood cabins come from trees that start off as seeds.
Notebook paper also!
Image result for do linen napkins come from seed plants
the flax plant
Technically, linen is a vegetable. Linen fabric is made from the cellulose fibers that grow inside of the stalks of the flax plant, or Linum usitatissimum, one of the oldest cultivated plants in human history.
Does herbivore eats it’s consumer
Answer:No
Explanation:
It consumes plants, so therefore their consumer would not fall in that quantity.
a bond for which the bonholder has the right to sell in the bond beforfe maturity at a specific date is a
A callable bond is one that allows the bondholder to sell the bond before it matures on a specified date.
A callable bond generally has a lower coupon rate than a non-callable bond with comparable terms, because the issuer assumes additional risk by agreeing to enable the bondholder to sell the bond before maturity.
When interest rates fall, issuers benefit from callable bonds because they can refinance at a reduced rate, lowering their interest expense.
Callable bonds, on the other hand, are less appealing to investors seeking stability and predictability in their income streams because they risk having their bonds called away early.
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In the Phenotypes, Genes, and the Environment lecture, we evaluated phenotypic variation in 4 hypothetical bug populations. This question pertains to those 4 hypothetical populations and you will need to view them to answer this question successfully. Please find the appropriate slide before attempting this question. The full slide set as of 5.19.2020 has been posted in the modules section.
We determined that all four population had Vp > 0. We also know that population 2 has Vg = 0 and population 4 has Ve = 0. Select the answers that correctly describe the relationship between Vp, Ve, and Vg
A. Vp can be greater than 0 even if both Ve and Vg in a population are 0.
B. Vp describes total phenotypic variation in a population irrespective of whether that variation has environmental or genetic causes.
C. As long as Ve OR Vg are greater than 0, Vp will also be greater than 0.
It is referred to as the total of inherited (Vg), environment (Ve), and Vg and Ve interaction variation. Vp will be more than 0 as far as Ve And Vg are both greater than 0.
What does genetic variation mean?The variance in morphologies that occurs in a population is termed as phenotypic variation. People exist in varied shapes and sizes for instance; different phenotypes include differences in size, weight, and body form. The capacity to roll your tongues is a changeable trait, as are height, eye color, and skin tone.
What are genotypic variability and phenotypic variance?A person's genotype is made up of all the variants they have for a certain gene. The sum of a person's traits or observable features is their phenotype.
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in the trimester view of prenatal development, both the germinal and embryonic periods of development occur during the ____
In the trimester view of prenatal development, both the germinal and embryonic periods of development occur during the third through the eighth week.
The prenatal development process is really divided into three phases. The first two weeks following conception are referred to as the germinal stage, the third through eighth weeks as the embryonic phase, and the ninth week until delivery as the fetal period. The germinal stage of pregnancy begins with conception, when sperm and egg join to create a zygote. The zygote begins to split during the germinal stage in order to implant into the uterine wall.
The embryonic stage begins once implantation is accomplished. When a blastocyst implants in the uterus at the end of the first week following conception, its interior cell mass, formerly known as the embryoblast, is renamed the embryo. The embryonic stage lasts until the eighth week after conception, when the embryo is referred to as a fetus. The embryonic stage is brief, lasting just around seven weeks, yet the alterations that occur during this time cause huge changes in the embryo. During the embryonic period, the embryo not only grows in size but also in complexity.
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6.illustrate and explain how the level of dna sequence similarity between organisms reveals their relationship through evolution.
The level of DNA sequence similarity between organisms reveals their relationship through evolution because if two organisms are evolutionarily related then their genetic sequences are very similar or may be even identical.
DNA stands for Deoxyribonucleic Acid. It is the major form of genetic material present in majority of the organisms. The structure of DNA is composed of two anti-parallel strands joined together by hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous bases.
Evolution is the long-term phenomenon of changes in a population in order to adapt better in their changing surroundings and survive. The evolution takes generations over generations to occur and is a population phenomenon.
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a. Imagine generating two random sequences, each 100 nucleotides in length. If you align them pairwise, at how many positions are they expected to match just by chance? (hint: think about the chance a single randomly chosen nucleotide will match another randomly chosen nucleotide)
b. Now imagine generating two random sequences, each 100 amino acids in length. In a pairwise alignment, at how many positions are they expected to match by chance?
We can expect that the number of matches by chance would be either 0 or 1. However, it's worth noting that this assumes that all amino acids have an equal probability of occurring at each position, which is not necessarily true in reality.
What is Nucleotide?
A nucleotide is a small organic molecule that serves as the basic building block of nucleic acids, which are the genetic material of all living organisms. Nucleotides consist of three parts: a nitrogenous base, a five-carbon sugar molecule, and a phosphate group.
a. For two random sequences each 100 nucleotides in length, the chance of a single nucleotide in one sequence matching a specific nucleotide in the other sequence is 1/4, since there are four possible nucleotides (A, C, G, T) at each position. Therefore, the chance of two nucleotides in the two sequences matching by chance is (1/4) x (1/4) = 1/16.
Since there are 100 positions in each sequence, we can expect that the number of matches by chance would be:
100 x (1/16) = 6.25
However, since we cannot have a fraction of a match, we can expect that the number of matches by chance would be either 6 or 7.
b. For two random sequences each 100 amino acids in length, the chance of a single amino acid in one sequence matching a specific amino acid in the other sequence depends on the number of possible amino acids that can occur at each position. There are 20 possible amino acids, so the chance of two amino acids in the two sequences matching by chance is (1/20) x (1/20) = 1/400.
Since there are 100 positions in each sequence, we can expect that the number of matches by chance would be:
100 x (1/400) = 0.25
Therefore, we can expect that the number of matches by chance would be either 0 or 1. However, it's worth noting that this assumes that all amino acids have an equal probability of occurring at each position, which is not necessarily true in reality. The actual number of matches observed in a pairwise alignment of two protein sequences will depend on the specific sequences being compared and their degree of similarity.
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Name the best quality coal?
Answer:
Anthracite
Explanation:
Answer: Anthracite
Explanation:
purification of crystalline organic compounds how are insoluble impurities removed during recrystalization
To remove the insoluble impurities, the organic compound is mixed with a solvent and the resultant solution is filtered. This removes the insoluble impurities. The solution is then heated to obtain the crystals of pure organic compound by crystallization.
Crystallization is the method applied to remove the soluble impurities from the organic substances. The compound is mixed in such a solvent that the impurities dissolve with the solvent and after crystallization, the crystals obtained are of the pure organic compound.
Organic compounds are the chemical compounds that consist of one or more carbon carbon or carbon hydrogen bonds in it. These bonds are the covalent bonds which are highly strong bonds in nature.
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rj feels nervous when they hear a police car's siren and see its lights in the rearview mirror. as rj's sympathetic nervous system becomes active, their produces .
Answer:
liver produces glucose
Explanation:
The sympathetic nervous system initiates the 'fight or flight' response when RJ feels nervous at the sight and sound of a police car. In this state, RJ's body will produce stress hormones like adrenaline that prepare the body for action.
Explanation:When RJ hears a police car's siren and sees its lights in the rearview mirror, their sympathetic nervous system becomes active. The sympathetic nervous system is part of the autonomic nervous system, and it's responsible for the fight or flight response, which prepares an individual for action. As such, when it becomes active, RJ's body produces various stress hormones like adrenaline (also known as epinephrine) which result in faster heart rate, increased blood pressure, dilating air passages allowing greater oxygen flow to muscles, and slowing digestion among other effects. This bodily response is natural when faced with perceived danger or stress.
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Developed countries tend to have _____ numbers of people with a _____ ecological footprint than developing countries.
fewer; smaller
greater; larger
fewer; larger
greater; smaller
Developed countries tend to have fewer numbers of people with a larger ecological footprint than developing countries. Therefore, option C is correct.
What is an ecological footprint?A person's ecological footprint is the area of the planet's surface required to create all the energy and resources they need to survive, as well as to absorb all the wastes (both indirect and direct) they generate.
Developed countries tend to have fewer numbers of people with a larger ecological footprint than developing countries. Therefore, option C is correct.
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Which of the following is/are among the functions of the eukaryotic cytoskeleton? (Select all that apply.) Helps in cell division Aggregates to form the nuclear envelope Transports organelles within cells Binds cells together Gives cells shape and structure
Functions of the eukaryotic cytoskeleton include:
Helps in cell division.
Transports organelles within cells.
Gives cells shape and structure.
What is a eukaryotic cytoskeleton?The intricate network of protein filaments and tubules that supports the structure and aids in maintaining the shape of cells is known as the eukaryotic cytoskeleton. Microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules are the three main types of filamentous proteins that make up this structure. Actin-based microfilaments, which are the smallest and play a role in both cell movement and muscle contraction, are the thinnest. The thicker intermediate filaments give cells, particularly those under mechanical stress, like skin cells, mechanical strength. The biggest microtubules act as the "tracks" for cell division and organelle migration. Additionally, cellular signaling, motility, and intracellular transport are all significantly influenced by the cytoskeleton.
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Carbon has 4 electrons and hydrogen has 1 electron in its outermost electron shell. A carbon atom can form covalent bonds with how many hydrogen atoms?
A) 0.
B) 4.
C) 2.
D) 3.
E) 1.
Carbon forms four covalent bonds by sharing its four valence electrons with four univalent atoms, e.g. hydrogen.
What is Covalent bond ?A chemical link known as a covalent bond includes the exchanging of electrons between atoms to create electron pairs. These electron couples are referred to as bonding pairs or sharing pairs. Covalent bonding is the stable equilibrium of the forces that attract and repel atoms when they share electrons.
Ionic bonds are formed between atoms of metals and non-metals when the metal loses an electron to complete its octet and the non-metal gains that electron to complete its octet, as opposed to covalent bonds, which are formed by the sharing of electrons between two atoms in order to complete their octet.
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In peas, Round seeds are dominant over Wrinkled, and Yellow is dominant over Green. A wrinkled, yellow (aaBb) plant is crossed with a round, yellow(AaBb) plant and a large number of offspring are produced. Given the results below, calculate the overall Chi-Squared (observed) value for these data. Hint: You will first need to determine the
expected Phenotypic ratio for this cross.
66.67
Wrinkled, Yellow 250
Wrinkled, Green 150
Round, Yellow 250
Round, Green 150
In peas, Round seeds are dominant over the Wrinkled and Yellow is dominant over the Green. Wrinkled, yellow (aaBb) plant is crossed with round, yellow(AaBb) plant and large number of offspring are produced. Overall Chi-Squared value is : 66.67.
What is meant by phenotype?In genetics, phenotype is the set of observable characteristics or traits of an organism. The term covers the morphology of organism, its developmental processes, biochemical and physiological properties, behavior and the products of behavior.
Genotype of a person is their unique sequence of DNA. This term is used to refer to two alleles a person has inherited for particular gene. Phenotype is the detectable expression of this genotype which is a patient's clinical presentation.
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which of the following is an example of biotic component of an ecosystem?
A. the climate
b. a cockroach
c. water
d. synthetic pesticides
An example of biotic component of an ecosystem is cockroach (b).
Ecosystem : Abiotic and Biotic
Ecosystem involves the interaction between biotic and abiotic factors. Abiotic are the non-living components that impact the biotic. The biotic factors are living things within in ecosystem. These factors influence each other.
According to Whittaker, living things are divided into five kingdoms: monera, protist, fungi, animal and plant. As a living thing, cockroach is an example of animal, while the climate, water and synthetic pesticides belong to abiotic factors.
Thus, from all options, cockroach is a part of biotic component.
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which of the following statements about genetic linkage is generally true? see section 5.1 (page 147
It is commonly accepted that the closer two genes are to one another on a chromosome, the more likely it is that they will be inherited together during meiosis in genetic linkage.
The likelihood that two genes will be inherited together during meiosis increases with the distance between them on a chromosome, which is a general rule of genetic linkage. This is true because genetic linkage describes the propensity for genes that are adjacent to one another on a chromosome to be passed down as a group rather than separately. Recombination, or the exchange of genetic material across homologous chromosomes, is a process that determines how closely two genes are linked. Therefore, genetic linkage is crucial for comprehending the patterns of trait inheritance and the location of genes on chromosomes.
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What is a generally true statement about genetic linkage?
Why is it important for DNA to remain in the nucleus?
Explanation:
DNA contains the genetic information necessary for the growth, development, and function of all living organisms. It is responsible for the production of proteins, which carry out essential functions within cells. Therefore, it is important for DNA to remain in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells, where it is protected and tightly regulated.
If DNA were to leave the nucleus, it could potentially be damaged by various external factors, such as radiation or chemical exposure, leading to genetic mutations and abnormalities. Additionally, the complex processes of DNA replication, transcription, and translation require the tightly regulated environment of the nucleus, which contains specialized proteins and enzymes that facilitate these processes.
Moreover, DNA in the nucleus is organized and packaged into a highly structured form called chromatin, which helps to compact the long strands of DNA and maintain its stability. The nuclear envelope also serves as a physical barrier that separates the DNA from the rest of the cell, helping to prevent interactions with other cellular components that could interfere with its function.
In summary, the nuclear localization of DNA is critical for its protection, regulation, and efficient function within eukaryotic cells.
draw the expected pattern of bands on a gel that shows the alleles for the seized tusk and the elephant you identified as a potential match for str loci fh60 and fh129. include a dna ladder that has dna fragments that are 125, 150, and 175 bp in size.
The STR loci FH60 and FH129 are short tandem repeat regions of DNA. When amplified by PCR, the number of repeats in these regions will determine the size of the DNA fragment produced.
If the seized tusk and the potential elephant match have the same number of repeats in these regions, they will produce the same size fragment and therefore show the same band pattern on a gel. The DNA ladder with fragments of known sizes will allow for accurate determination of the size of the DNA fragments produced by the PCR amplification. The expected band pattern will show bands at the sizes corresponding to the PCR products of FH60 and FH129 for both the seized tusk and the potential elephant match, with the same number and size of bands indicating a match. The STR loci FH60 and FH129 are short tandem repeat regions of DNA. When amplified by PCR, the number of repeats in these regions will determine the size of the DNA fragment produced.
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Phospholipids make a fluid liquid, meaning that molecules move within the membrane structure without the input of energy. Which of the following phospholipid movements require the input of energy?
A. phospholipid flipping (movement from one layer to another).
B. flexion rotation.
C. lateral diffusion
Option A is Correct. Since phospholipids produce a liquid, molecules can flow freely within the membrane structure without the need for external energy.
The following describes phospholipid flipping (transition from one layer to another). Movements of phospholipids require energy to be supplied. Since phospholipid molecules can't bunch up and form a solid due to the unsaturated hydrophobic tails, biological membranes stay fluid.
A number of pure phospholipids have been proven to change from a crystalline to a liquid crystalline state at a temperature based on the amount and type of unsaturation in the fatty acid residues using a variety of physical approaches. The interior of the cell membrane, on the other hand, is hydrophobic and does not interact with water. To effectively segregate fluid, phospholipids create a two-layer cell membrane.
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If you tore your Achilles tendon, you would be unable to perform all of the following muscle actions excepta. bending your foot downwardb. standing on your toesc. pulling your knees tp your chestd. walking
Option B, if you tore your Achilles tendon, you would be unable to perform standing on your toes.
The Achilles tendon is a strong, fibrous cord that connects the muscles in the back of your calf to your heel bone. It is the largest tendon in the body and is responsible for the action of plantar flexion, which involves pointing the toes downward. If the Achilles tendon is torn, the ability to perform plantar flexion is greatly diminished. Therefore, the ability to stand on one's toes is also compromised. However, the other actions listed - bending the foot downward, pulling the knees to the chest, and walking - do not rely heavily on the Achilles tendon and would still be possible to some extent.
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Describe one public health topic from the American Public Health Association website that you’d like to learn more about.
Complete each statement by dragging each label into the appropriate blank. Then place the statements in order to coincide 20 with the the vesicular transport process. Drag the text blocks below into their correct order. peroxisome phagosome A wandering macrophage encounters a bacterium. trancytosis Release of the digested bacterium indicates the excretion of waste products via vesicle pinocytosis Enzymes from the lysosome degrade and digest the bacterium. macrophage When completely surrounded, the bacterium is brought inside the cell membrane and forms a phagosome. exocytosis The now moves back to the cell membrane where it fuses endocytosis once again. lysosome
A bacterium is discovered by a wandering macrophage. When the bacterium is completely surrounded, it is brought inside the cell membrane and forms a phagosome. --> Via vesicle transport, the phagosome moves through the cell. -->> Lysosome enzymes degrade and digest the bacterium. —>>
What is the process ?To complete the process, the following statements can be included:
The peroxisome is also involved in the degradation of toxic substances produced during the phagocytosis process. Transcytosis is a process that, like endocytosis and exocytosis, involves the use of vesicles to transport substances across a cell or through a cell layer.
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How much of the land can be farmed?
one third
O two thirds
one half
O one fifth
The farmer has one-fifth (1/5) of the original land left for farming.
The correct option is B.
What fraction of the land is left that can be farmed?The fraction of the land left that can be farmed is calculated as follows:
Assuming that the farmer initially had 100 units of land.
So, 1/5 of the land is 100 * 1/5 = 20 units.
After the first sale, the farmer had 100 - 20 = 80 units of land left.
The second sale was 3/4 of what remained, so 3/4 of 80 units is 3/4 * 80 = 60 units.
So, the farmer can now farm 80 - 60 = 20 units of land.
Fraction left = 20/100 or 1/5
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Complete question:
A farmer sold 1/5 of his land and then sold again 3/4 of what remained. How much of the land can be farmed?
How has cell technology most likely benefited the commercial flower industry?
Growers can quickly grow disease-resistant plants from tissue cultures.
Growers can study plant growth patterns under many different conditions.
Growers can grow seedlings without using expensive fertilizers.
Growers can create new flower colors without using cross-pollination.
From tissue cultures, growers may swiftly produce plants that are resistant to disease. (Position a)
What is technology based on human stem cells?Stem cell treatment, commonly referred to as regenerative medicine, uses stem cells or their byproducts to encourage the body's natural ability to heal damaged, sick, or malfunctioning tissue. It is the next phase of organ transplantation and replaces donor organs, which are scarce, with cells.
How well does stem cell technology work?The type of treatment, the illness or condition being treated, and indeed the stage of the illness can all affect the likelihood of success of stem cell therapy. Stem cell therapy is generally regarded as a secure and efficient treatment option for a variety of illnesses.
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