The correct statements about cash equivalents are:
A) cash equivalents are short-term investments which have a maturity date no longer than one month from the date of purchase.G) Examples of cash equivalents include money market finances, treasury payments, and business paper.D) cash equivalents are short-term investments that have a maturity date not than three months from the date of declaration of coins flows.Cash equivalents are exceptionally liquid investments that may be without problems converted into coins with none sizeable lack of price. they may be included within the coins and cash equivalents line object on the balance sheet and are an critical thing of a corporation's liquidity management method.
Examples of coins equivalents encompass money market budget, treasury payments, and commercial paper. they've a maturity date of no longer than 3 months from the date of declaration of coins flows. coins equivalents are typically low-chance investments, but they may provide a slightly better return compared to cash.
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Complete Question:-
Which of the following statements about cash equivalents are true? (select all that apply.) check all that apply
A)cash equivalents are short-term investments that have a maturity date no longer than one month from the date of purchase.
B)cash equivalents are short-term investments that have a maturity date no longer than one month from the date of purchase.
C) cash equivalents are short-term investments that have a maturity date no longer than three months from the date of statement of cash flows.
D) cash equivalents are short-term investments that have a maturity date no longer than three months from the date of statement of cash flows.
E) cash equivalents are short-term investments that have a maturity date no longer than three months from the date of purchase.
F) cash equivalents are short-term investments that have a maturity date no longer than three months from the date of purchase.
G) examples of cash equivalents include money market funds, treasury bills, and commercial paper.
An airline wants to test the null hypothesis that 60 percent of its passengers object to smoking inside a plane. They poll a random sample of 100 airline passengers, and find that 58 percent of those polled object to smoking inside a plane. Explain under what conditions they would be committing a type I error and under what conditions they would be committing a type II error. MacBook Air
In hypothesis testing, a type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected, even though it is true.
A type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is not rejected, even though it is false.
In the scenario of airline,
The null hypothesis is that 60 percent of airline passengers object to smoking inside a plane.
The alternative hypothesis would be that the proportion is different from 60 percent.
Conditions for committing a type I error,
If the airline rejects the null hypothesis based on the sample data
And concludes that the proportion of passengers objecting to smoking is not 60 percent .
When, in fact, it is 60 percent, they would commit a type I error.
This means they would falsely conclude that there is a significant difference in proportion of passengers objecting to smoking.
Conditions for committing a type II error,
If the airline fails to reject the null hypothesis based on the sample data.
And concludes that the proportion of passengers objecting to smoking is 60 percent.
When, in fact, it is different from 60 percent, they would commit a type II error.
This means they would fail to detect a significant difference in proportion of passengers objecting to smoking, even though there is one.
The probability of committing a type I error is denoted by the significance level α, which is set by the researchers before conducting the test.
The probability of committing a type II error is denoted by the power of the test 1 - β, where β is the probability of a type II error.
The power of the test is influenced by factors such as the sample size and the effect size of the difference being tested.
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In a Nash equilibrium, firms are clearly strategically interdependent and:
a) they cooperate with each other to determine market outcomes.
b)they determine price in a closed auction bid system.
c) they are dependent on differentiated goods.
d) they are non-cooperative in determining market outcomes.
In a Nash equilibrium, firms are strategically interdependent because each firm's decision affects the other firms' payoffs.
What does it entail?This means that a firm's best strategy depends on the strategies chosen by the other firms. However, the firms are non-cooperative in determining market outcomes, which means that they do not collude or cooperate with each other. Instead, each firm acts independently to maximize its own profits.
This can lead to a suboptimal outcome for the market as a whole, but each firm is incentivized to act in its own self-interest.
In a Nash equilibrium, no firm can unilaterally improve its own payoff by changing its strategy, given the strategies of the other firms.
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the purpose of a memo is to . a. quickly send information around the world b. inform company employees of important news c. send serious and important information to clients d. none of the above please select the best answer from the choices provided a b c d
Among the given choices, option (b) - inform company employees of important news - best represents the purpose of a memo. Memos are primarily intended for internal communication within a company and are not typically used to send information around the world or deliver serious and important information to clients, making options (a), (c), and (d) incorrect.
The purpose of a memo is to inform company employees of important news and updates. Memos are internal communication tools used within an organization to disseminate information efficiently and effectively. They are typically concise, formal documents that convey announcements, policies, procedures, or other significant information to employees.
Memos serve as a means of communication within a company, allowing management to quickly and directly communicate important messages to their staff. They are commonly used to announce changes in company policies, provide updates on projects, share important reminders, or distribute information relevant to all employees. Memos help ensure that employees are well-informed about important matters, promoting transparency and efficient internal communication within an organization.
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a qualitative assessment of the business, its customers and suppliers, and management’s character and capability is known as ____
A qualitative assessment of the business, its customers and suppliers, and management’s character and capability is known as business analysis.
A business analysis is a comprehensive assessment of a business’s operations, customers, suppliers, and management. It seeks to identify strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. It is essentially an in-depth evaluation of the company’s performance, customer satisfaction, and operations.
The analysis begins with an examination of the company’s performance over the past year or two. This includes reviewing financial statements, customer feedback, and other data to gain an understanding of how the business is doing in terms of revenue, profits, and market share. The analysis then moves on to look at the customer base, what types of customers the business serves, and what kind of relationships it has with its customers.
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Nature of depreciation Obj. 2 Tri-City Ironworks Co. reported $65,500,000 for equipment and $33,415,000 for accumulated depreciation-equipment on its balance sheet. Does this mean (a) that the replacement cost of the equipment is $65,500,000 and (b) that $33,415,000 is set aside in a special fund for the replacement of the equipment? Explain.
The nature of depreciation is the process of allocating the cost of an asset over its useful life. In the case of Tri-City Ironworks Co., the $33,415,000 reported for accumulated depreciation-equipment indicates the total amount of the equipment's cost that has been allocated as an expense over time. This means that the equipment's original cost was likely higher than the $65,500,000 reported on the balance sheet.
It is not necessarily true that the replacement cost of the equipment is $65,500,000. The original cost of the equipment could have been higher than $65,500,000, and the current value of the equipment may have depreciated over time. The $65,500,000 reported on the balance sheet likely represents the historical cost of the equipment, and it may not reflect its current replacement value.
Furthermore, the $33,415,000 reported for accumulated depreciation-equipment does not mean that a special fund has been set aside for the replacement of the equipment. Accumulated depreciation is a contra asset account that reduces the value of the equipment on the balance sheet. It is an accounting estimate of the amount of the equipment's cost that has been used up or allocated as an expense over its useful life.
In summary, the $65,500,000 reported on the balance sheet represents the historical cost of the equipment, and the $33,415,000 reported for accumulated depreciation-equipment indicates the total amount of the equipment's cost that has been allocated as an expense over time. It does not mean that a special fund has been set aside for the replacement of the equipment, nor does it necessarily reflect the equipment's current replacement value.
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No, the balance sheet figures of $65,500,000 for equipment and $33,415,000 for accumulated depreciation-equipment do not mean that the replacement cost of the equipment is $65,500,000 or that $33,415,000 is set aside in a special fund for the replacement of the equipment.
Equipment is a long-term asset that provides future economic benefits to a company, and its value decreases over time due to wear and tear, obsolescence, or other factors. Accumulated depreciation is the total amount of depreciation that has been charged to the equipment over its useful life.
Therefore, the net book value of the equipment can be calculated as the difference between its original cost and accumulated depreciation. In this case, the net book value of the equipment is $32,085,000 ($65,500,000 - $33,415,000).
The balance sheet figures of equipment and accumulated depreciation only reflect the historical cost and the total amount of depreciation charged to the equipment, respectively. They do not necessarily reflect the current market value or replacement cost of the equipment, nor do they indicate that a special fund has been set aside for its replacement.
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in ________ a neutral person investigates a complaint and develops findings that may be the basis for resolving an employee complaint.a. fact findingb. arbitrationc. poor employee performance
In fact-finding, a neutral person investigates a complaint and develops findings that may be the basis for resolving an employee complaint.
Fact-finding is a process used to gather information and make informed decisions in a neutral and objective manner. It is a process of gathering and analyzing information to establish the facts surrounding a particular situation or issue. It is often used in legal proceedings, investigations, and decision-making processes where accurate and reliable information is necessary to make informed decisions
The process of fact-finding typically involves the following steps:
Identify the problem or issue: The first step in fact-finding is to clearly identify the problem or issue that needs to be investigated.Determine the scope of the investigation: The next step is to determine the scope of the investigation, including the relevant parties, documents, and other sources of information.Collect information: The fact-finding process involves collecting information from various sources, such as witnesses, documents, and physical evidence.Analyze the information: Once the information has been collected, it needs to be analyzed to identify patterns, trends, and other relevant information.Draw conclusions: Based on the analysis, conclusions can be drawn about the facts surrounding the issue or situation.Learn more about fact-finding here: https://brainly.com/question/13071871
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Economic theory leads to the conclusion that, under certain circumstances, the free- market outcome is efficient. Specifically, an outcome is said to be efficient if: a. the living standards of each member of society are maximized. b. the marginal benefit of the last unit produced in each market equals c. the marginal cost. the marginal benefit of the last unit produced in each market is maximized. d. consumer surplus is equal to producer surplus
Overall, economic theory provides important insights into the workings of society, including the ways in which markets can be harnessed to improve outcomes for everyone involved.
The concept of efficiency is a central tenet in economic theory, which aims to understand how societies allocate resources to meet their needs. In certain circumstances, free-market outcomes are considered efficient, which means that they maximize the living standards of each member of society. Efficiency is achieved when the marginal benefit of the last unit produced in each market is equal to the marginal cost. This balance between costs and benefits ensures that resources are allocated in the most effective way possible, leading to a society that is better off overall. Additionally, efficient markets result in both consumer surplus and producer surplus, which represent the gains made by individuals and firms through their participation in the market.
An outcome is said to be efficient if the marginal benefit of the last unit produced in each market equals the marginal cost (option b). This condition ensures that resources are allocated optimally, maximizing the overall welfare of society.
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Which one of the following should earn the lowest risk premium based on CAPM?
U.S. Treasury Bill
portfolio with a beta of .75
stock with a beta of 1.35
diversified portfolio with returns similar to the overall market
The U.S. Treasury bill should earn the lowest risk premium based on CAPM.
The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) calculates the expected return on an investment by considering the risk-free rate and the investment's beta. The risk premium is the additional return investors expect for taking on additional risk. According to CAPM, the risk premium is directly proportional to the beta of an investment. A beta of less than 1 indicates lower volatility than the market, while a beta greater than 1 indicates higher volatility.
In this scenario, the U.S. Treasury Bill is considered a risk-free investment because it is backed by the government and is generally considered to have no default risk. Therefore, it has a beta of 0, indicating no correlation with the overall market. As a result, the U.S. Treasury Bill should earn the lowest risk premium based on CAPM since its beta is the lowest among the given options.
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Amy and Mark Rogers are negotiating with their local bank to secure a mortgage loan in order to buy their first home. With only a limited down payment available to them, Amy and Mark must borrow $325,000. Moreover, the bank has assessed them 1.5 point on the loan. How much home mortgage credit will they actually have available for their use? Answer: $__________ (two decimal points)
After paying the points, Amy and Mark will have $320,125 of home mortgage credit available for their use.
To calculate the amount of home mortgage credit Amy and Mark will have available after paying the points, follow these steps:
1. Determine the total amount of points in dollars. Since the bank assessed 1.5 points on the loan, multiply the loan amount by the percentage of points.
$325,000 x 0.015 (1.5%) = $4,875
2. Subtract the points in dollars from the loan amount to find the mortgage credit available.
$325,000 - $4,875 = $320,125
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Cindy's apartment complex is offering renters insurance through their insurance company. The insurance company charges an annual premium of $565. 00 which can be paid in equal payments throughout the year with her monthly rent. Cindy's monthly rent is currently $789. 0. What will Cindy's new rent be if she includes the renters insurance?
Cindy's new rent will be $833.83 if she includes renters insurance.
The question is asking what will Cindy's new rent be if she includes the renters insurance, given that her monthly rent is currently $789.0, and the annual premium is $565.0. Cindy's monthly rent will be $833.83 with renters insurance, which is a slight increase from her current rent.What is renters insurance?Renters insurance is a policy that offers coverage for renters' personal property, liability, and living expenses in the event of a covered loss or accident. It safeguards renters against financial losses caused by damage to their possessions or accidental injuries to others while in their rental apartment. How to calculate Cindy's new rent?Cindy's annual renters insurance premium is $565.00. To calculate how much it will cost each month, divide the annual premium by 12. $565.00/12 = $47.08 Thus, Cindy will pay an additional $47.08 per month for renters insurance when she pays her monthly rent. Her new monthly rent will be the sum of her current rent and the renters insurance premium: $789.00 + $47.08 = $836.08, which is rounded to $833.83.
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in the long run, if the firm decides to keep output at its initial level, what will it likely do? shift to operate on atc3 shift to operate on atc2 stay on atc1 but decrease to the point touching lrac shut down
If the firm decides to keep output at its initial level in the long run, it will likely **stay on ATC1** but decrease production to the point where it touches the long-run average cost (LRAC) curve.
In the long run, firms aim to operate at the lowest possible average total cost (ATC) to maximize efficiency and profitability. Initially, the firm may be operating at a higher level of output than the optimal point on the LRAC curve. To achieve cost minimization, the firm will need to reduce its production level to the point where it touches the LRAC curve. This is because the LRAC curve represents the lowest attainable cost per unit of output given the firm's technology and scale of operations.
Shifting to ATC2 or ATC3 would not be the optimal choice since these curves represent higher average costs. Completely shutting down would not be necessary if the firm can continue operating profitably by decreasing output to the point where it intersects the LRAC curve.
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Cody Wyatt is considering whether to invest in a dump truck. Mr. Wyatt would hire a driver and use the truck to haul trash for customers. He wants to use present value techniques to evaluate the investment opportunity. List sources of potential cash inflows and cash outflows Mr. Wyatt could expect if he invests in the truck.
Cash inflows could include revenue generated from hauling trash, as well as any fees or charges for disposing of the trash.Cash outflows include the initial cost of purchasing dump truck, ongoing maintenance costs etc.
To evaluate the investment opportunity of investing in a dump truck, Cody Wyatt needs to consider both potential cash inflows and cash outflows. Additionally, Mr. Wyatt may be able to generate additional revenue by offering services such as rental of the truck or hauling materials other than trash.
It is important for Mr. Wyatt to estimate both the potential cash inflows and outflows associated with investing in a dump truck to determine whether the investment is financially viable. By using present value techniques, he can evaluate the potential returns and compare them to the costs associated with the investment. Ultimately, Mr. Wyatt will need to weigh the potential benefits against the potential costs to make an informed decision.
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public relations specialists often work primarily with what department regarding employee communications?
Public relations specialists often work primarily with the human resources department regarding employee communications.
This is because HR is responsible for managing employee relations, including internal communication strategies such as employee newsletters, company-wide emails, and intranet updates. PR specialists may collaborate with HR to ensure that the company's messaging and branding are consistent across all employee communication channels.
Additionally, PR specialists may also work with other departments such as marketing and corporate communications to ensure that external messaging aligns with internal messaging.
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A Top-Down Approach To Budgeting Is One That Is: Select One:
A. Participative. B. Tight C. Imposed D. Motivational.
A Top-Down Approach to Budgeting is one that is imposed. This means that the budget is set by upper-level management and then handed down to lower-level employees to implement.
The approach is not participative, as lower-level employees do not have input in the budget-setting process. It can be tight, as upper-level management may set strict budget goals. However, it is not necessarily motivational, as employees may not feel invested in the budget and may not be motivated to meet its goals.
A top-down approach to budgeting is one that is:
C. Imposed
In a top-down budgeting approach, the budget is created by upper management and then passed down to lower-level managers for implementation. This is in contrast to a participative or bottom-up approach, where lower-level employees are more involved in the budgeting process.
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The financial institutions in our banking system are all in the business of transferring funds from savers to investors. This process is known as:A. Parachuting.B. Money Laundering.C. Lobbying.D. Financial Intermediation.
The financial institutions in our banking system play a crucial role in transferring funds from savers to investors. This process is known as D. Financial Intermediation. Financial intermediation involves banks and other financial institutions serving as intermediaries between those who have funds to lend, such as savers, and those who need funds, such as investors or borrowers. These intermediaries facilitate the flow of funds by accepting deposits from savers and providing loans to investors.
Financial intermediation is essential for the efficient allocation of resources and the smooth functioning of an economy. It helps in matching the needs of savers and investors by providing a range of financial products and services tailored to their specific requirements. Additionally, financial intermediaries assess the creditworthiness of borrowers and manage risks associated with lending, thereby promoting financial stability.
In contrast, parachuting, money laundering, and lobbying are not related to the transfer of funds between savers and investors. Parachuting refers to an executive being brought in to help a struggling company, money laundering is the process of making illegally obtained funds appear legitimate, and lobbying is the act of influencing decision-makers in favor of a specific cause or policy.
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mnc's can capitalize their foreign subsidiaries in many manners, including.
Multinational corporations (MNCs) have various ways of capitalizing their foreign subsidiaries. The two primary methods are debt and equity. Debt involves borrowing money from banks or other financial institutions, which the MNCs use to finance their subsidiaries.
On the other hand, equity involves investing funds in the foreign subsidiary and acquiring shares of its stock. In addition to debt and equity financing, MNCs can also capitalize their foreign subsidiaries through retained earnings, which refer to the profits that the subsidiary generates but does not distribute as dividends. MNCs may also opt for hybrid financing structures, which combine elements of both debt and equity financing.
MNCs may choose the capitalization method based on various factors, such as their tax obligations, the regulatory environment of the host country, the subsidiary's financial performance, and the MNCs' strategic objectives. Debt financing, for example, may offer tax benefits, while equity financing may give the MNCs more control over the subsidiary's operations.
In conclusion, MNCs have various ways of capitalizing their foreign subsidiaries, including debt, equity, retained earnings, and hybrid financing structures. The method chosen will depend on a range of factors, including financial performance, strategic goals, and regulatory requirements.
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TRUE/FALSE. The treasurer of a corporation usually reports to the CFO of the firm.
True. In most corporations, the treasurer typically reports to the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) of the firm.
The treasurer's role is primarily focused on managing the company's financial activities, such as cash management, capital budgeting, financial risk management, and overseeing the company's investments and financing strategies.
The CFO, on the other hand, has a broader responsibility for the overall financial management of the organization, including financial planning, reporting, analysis, and decision-making. The treasurer and the CFO often work closely together to ensure effective financial management and strategic decision-making within the company.
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in a(n) ______________________________ billing system, invoices are prepared after the goods have been shipped and the sales order notification has been matched to the shipping billing notification.
Post-shipment billing system. A periodic billing system is a method in which invoices are created after a specified period, rather than immediately after a transaction.
A post-shipment billing system is one in which invoices are created after the goods have been shipped to the customer and the shipping notification has been matched to the sales order notification. This type of billing system is commonly used in businesses where products are manufactured or sourced from different locations before being shipped to the customer.
It ensures that the customer is only billed for the goods they have received, and that the invoice accurately reflects the quantity and value of the goods shipped. By using this billing system, businesses can also ensure that their inventory records are up-to-date, which helps with planning and forecasting future sales.
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What do the findings of Chetty et al. (Tennessee STAR paper) and Chetty, Friedman, and Rockoff (long-run effects paper) imply about the human capital vs. signaling models of the returns to schooling?
The findings of Chetty et al. (Tennessee STAR paper) and Chetty, Friedman, and Rockoff (long-run effects paper) have significant implications for the human capital vs. signaling models of the returns to schooling.
The Tennessee STAR paper found that students who were randomly assigned to smaller classes had higher test scores and better educational outcomes, including higher high school graduation rates and college attendance. This suggests that investments in human capital, such as improved education quality, can lead to positive economic returns.
The long-run effects paper found that teachers who added value to their students' test scores had long-term positive effects on their students' outcomes, including higher earnings and college attendance rates. This also supports the human capital model, as it shows that investments in high-quality teaching can lead to improved student outcomes and long-term economic benefits.
However, these findings do not necessarily disprove the signaling model of returns to schooling, which suggests that education acts as a signal of ability or other desirable traits that employers value. While the human capital model emphasizes the role of education in developing skills and knowledge, the signaling model emphasizes the importance of the information conveyed by education credentials.
Overall, the findings of Chetty et al. and Chetty, Friedman, and Rockoff provide strong evidence for the human capital model of returns to schooling. However, the role of signaling cannot be completely discounted, as employers may still use education credentials as a signal of desirable traits.
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An increase in transfer payments or a decrease in taxes would ____ disposable income of households and thus ____ in consumption purchases.
A Increase; increase.
B increase; decrease.
C decrease; increase.
D decrease; decrease.
A - An increase in transfer payments or a decrease in taxes would increase disposable income of households and thus increase consumption purchases.
Transfer payments refer to government payments to individuals or families for various reasons such as unemployment benefits, welfare, or social security. A decrease in taxes would mean that households have to pay less in taxes, leaving them with more money to spend. Both of these actions would increase disposable income, which is the amount of money that households have available to spend or save after paying taxes and other expenses.
With more disposable income, households would be able to increase their consumer purchases, which refers to the number of goods and services that they buy. This would have a positive effect on the economy by increasing demand for goods and services, which could lead to more jobs and economic growth. Therefore, the correct answer is A - an increase in transfer payments or a decrease in taxes would increase the disposable income of households and thus increase consumption purchases.
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credit slaes = 9400 sales on account = 12000 what is the net sales
Net sales is the amount of revenue a company earns after deducting any returns, discounts, or allowances. To calculate the net sales, we need to subtract the amount of credit sales and sales on account from the total sales.Therefore, the net sales for this period would be $2600.
In this case, the total sales are not given, but we can assume that all sales are either on credit or account, so we can add them together to get the total sales.Credit sales refer to the sales made on credit, where the customer does not pay at the time of purchase, but agrees to pay later. Sales on account, on the other hand, refer to the sales made to customers who have a credit account with the company and can pay later.
So, in this case, the net sales would be:
Net sales = Total sales - Credit sales - Sales on account
Since we don't know the total sales, we can use the information given to find the net sales.
Net sales = (Credit sales + Sales on account) - Credit sales - Sales on account
Net sales = 12000 - 9400
Net sales = $2600
Therefore, the net sales for this period would be $2600. This means that after deducting the returns, discounts, and allowances, the company earned a revenue of $2600 from its sales made on credit and accounts.
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To determine before-tax ROR, divide the after-tax ROR by
A. Net profit after taxe
B.1 - effective tax rate
C.Effective tax rate
D.Lower
To determine before-tax ROR, divide the after-tax ROR by (B) the effective tax rate.
To determine before-tax ROR, you need to adjust for taxes that have been paid on the investment returns.
The formula for before-tax ROR is after-tax ROR / (1 - effective tax rate).
The effective tax rate is the percentage of the investment returns that are paid in taxes.
Therefore, by dividing the after-tax ROR by (1 - effective tax rate), you can calculate the before-tax ROR.
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The before-tax ROR would be 8% / 0.80 = 10%. This means that if there were no taxes, the investment would have yielded a 10% rate of return. The correct answer to the question is B.1 - effective tax rate.
To determine the before-tax ROR (Rate of Return), you need to adjust the after-tax ROR by taking into account the effect of taxes.
The after-tax ROR is the rate of return on an investment after taxes have been deducted. To calculate the before-tax ROR, you need to reverse this process by dividing the after-tax ROR by 1 minus the effective tax rate.
The effective tax rate is the average rate at which an investment is taxed. It takes into account all applicable taxes, such as income tax, capital gains tax, and any other taxes that may apply to the investment.
By dividing the after-tax ROR by 1 minus the effective tax rate, you are essentially removing the effect of taxes and arriving at the before-tax ROR. This allows you to compare the rate of return on different investments on a level playing field, without the distortion caused by taxes.
For example, let's say you have an investment with an after-tax ROR of 8% and an effective tax rate of 20%. To calculate the before-tax ROR, you would divide the after-tax ROR (8%) by 1 minus the effective tax rate (1 - 0.20 = 0.80).
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a study which observes whether a particular occurrence influences some outcome is referred to as a(n): a. event study. b. comparative study. c. exponential study. d. laboratory study
The correct answer is a. event study. An event study is a research method that examines the impact of a specific event or occurrence on a particular outcome. It involves analyzing the changes in the outcome variable before, during, and after the event to determine if the event has had a significant effect.
An event study is a type of research design used to analyze the impact of a specific event or occurrence on a particular outcome. This method is commonly employed in various disciplines, including economics, finance, and social sciences.
In an event study, researchers select a specific event that is believed to have an influence on the outcome they are interested in studying. This event can be anything from a policy change, a corporate announcement, a natural disaster, or a social phenomenon. The key objective is to understand the causal relationship between the occurrence and the outcome.
To conduct an event study, researchers typically collect data on the outcome variable both before and after the event. They then compare the pre-event and post-event periods to analyze any significant changes or trends. By examining the timing and magnitude of the outcome variable's response to the event, researchers can assess the event's impact.
Event studies often utilize statistical methods, such as regression analysis or event study methodology, to quantify the event's effect on the outcome. These techniques help researchers control for other factors that may influence the outcome and isolate the event's impact.
The findings of an event study can provide valuable insights into the causal relationship between events and outcomes. They can help policymakers, businesses, and researchers make informed decisions, evaluate the effectiveness of interventions or policies, and understand the consequences of specific occurrences.
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Consider an economy where demand for real money balances is (M / P)^D = eY − fi + ε . The variable ε represents the effect of any special factors, other than real income or the nominal interest rate, that might affect money demand. The real interest rate is r=i−Eπ. The money supply M^S is determined by the central bank. a) Derive an equation that gives (M / P)D as a function of Y, Eπ , r and ε . In this equation, (M / P)^D should be alone on the left-hand side. b) Starting from your answer to a), do some algebra and derive an equation that gives r as a function of (M / P)^D, Y, Eπ and ε.This is the "equation of the money demand curve."
The equation of the money demand curve is r = i - Eπ = e[tex](M/P)^D[/tex] / e - Y + ε/e - Eπ. It shows the relationship between the real interest rate and the demand for money.
To derive an equation for [tex](M/P)^D[/tex] as a function of Y, Eπ, r, and ε, we start with the given demand for real money balances
[tex](M/P)^D[/tex] = eY − fi + ε
We want to isolate [tex](M/P)^D[/tex] on the left-hand side, so we can rearrange the equation as follows
[tex](M/P)^D[/tex] + fi = eY + ε
Next, we can divide both sides by e to get
[tex](M/P)^D[/tex] / e + fi / e = Y + ε / e
Finally, we can subtract ε/e from both sides to get:
[tex](M/P)^D[/tex]/ e = Y - ε / e + fi / e
Multiplying both sides by e, we get the equation for [tex](M/P)^D[/tex] as a function of Y, Eπ, r, and ε
[tex](M/P)^D[/tex] = e(Y - ε/e + fi / e)
To derive an equation for r as a function of [tex](M/P)^D[/tex] Y, Eπ, and ε, we start with the real interest rate equation
r = i - Eπ
We can substitute the expression for i from the question
i = r + Eπ
into the demand for real money balances equation from part a)
[tex](M/P)^D[/tex] = e(Y - ε/e + fi / e)
We can rearrange this equation to isolate the variable fi
fi = e[tex](M/P)^D[/tex] / e - Y + ε/e
Next, we can substitute the expression for fi into the expression for i
i = r + Eπ = e[tex](M/P)^D[/tex] / e - Y + ε/e + Eπ
Finally, we can rearrange this equation to isolate the variable r
r = i - Eπ = e[tex](M/P)^D[/tex] / e - Y + ε/e - Eπ
This is the equation of the money demand curve, where r is a function of [tex](M/P)^D[/tex], Y, Eπ, and ε.
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ctivity b of a project has a budgeted cost of $50,000 and is 30omplete. the actual cost of the activity is $12,000. what is the activity difference
The activity difference for Activity B of the project is $38,000. This indicates that the project has an unfavorable variance of $38,000 for this activity.
The activity difference is calculated by subtracting the actual cost from the budgeted cost. In this case, the budgeted cost is $50,000 and the actual cost is $12,000. Therefore, the activity difference is $50,000 - $12,000 = $38,000.
This variance suggests that the actual cost of Activity B is significantly lower than what was initially budgeted. It could be an indication of efficient cost management or potential cost savings. However, without further information about the project's overall budget and other activities, it is difficult to determine the overall impact of this variance on the project's performance.
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_____ advertising is used to stimulate demand for a new product or product category and is heavily utilized during the introductory stage of the product life cycle.
"Pioneering" advertising is used to stimulate demand for a new product or product category and is heavily utilized during the introductory stage of the product life cycle.
Pioneering advertising aims to create awareness and generate interest among potential customers who may be unfamiliar with the new product or product category. It focuses on highlighting the unique features, benefits, and value proposition of the new offering to establish its position in the market. This type of advertising often seeks to educate consumers and build brand recognition during the early stages of a product's life cycle.
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Which of the following accurately explains how discretionary fiscal policy fights recession? a. A decrease in government spending stimulates a rightward shift of the AS curve to return the economy to full employment. b. An increase in government spending stimulates a leftward shift of the AD curve to return the economy to equilibrium real GDP. c. An increase in government spending stimulates a rightward shift of the AD curve to return the economy to full employment. d. A decrease in government spending stimulates a leftward shift of the AS curve to return the economy to equilibrium real GDP.
An increase in government spending stimulates a rightward shift of the AD curve to return the economy to full employment.Discretionary fiscal policy refers to deliberate changes in government spending and taxation to influence the economy's overall level of spending.
During a recession, when aggregate demand (AD) is low and unemployment is high, the government can increase spending to stimulate economic growth and job creation. This increase in government spending shifts the AD curve to the right, leading to higher output and lower unemployment.Option (a) is incorrect because a decrease in government spending would lead to a leftward shift in the AD curve, which would exacerbate a recession by reducing output and employment. Option (b) is incorrect because an increase in government spending would shift the AD curve to the right, not the left. Option (d) is incorrect because a decrease in government spending would lead to a leftward shift in the AS curve, not the AD curve, resulting in lower output and higher unemployment.
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2. how did territorial expansion lead to debates over slavery? (need specific historical evidence)
Territorial expansion in the United States during the 1800s led to debates over slavery because the newly acquired territories brought up the question of whether or not they would allow slavery.
The most significant example of this is the debate over the Missouri Territory in 1819. When Missouri applied for statehood, it wanted to allow slavery, but this sparked a debate in Congress.
The northern states opposed this, as they wanted to prevent the spread of slavery. The southern states, on the other hand, argued that they had the right to expand slavery into new territories.
The Compromise of 1820 was eventually reached, which allowed Missouri to enter the Union as a slave state, but Maine would enter as a free state, and slavery would be prohibited north of the 36°30' parallel in the Louisiana Territory. This compromise only temporarily resolved the issue, as more territories were acquired, leading to new debates over slavery.
The acquisition of Texas, for example, led to the Mexican-American War and debates over whether or not Texas would allow slavery. The Compromise of 1850 tried to address these issues by allowing California to enter the Union as a free state, but the Fugitive Slave Act also strengthened laws that allowed slave owners to capture runaway slaves in any state.
Overall, territorial expansion led to debates over slavery because it forced the nation to confront the question of whether or not slavery should be allowed in new territories. These debates eventually led to the Civil War, as the divide between the northern and southern states over the issue of slavery could not be resolved peacefully.
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if promotion is successful at stimulating demand, it will tend to increase prices. T/F?
It is possible for promotion to increase prices, but it is not necessarily true in every case.
When a promotion successfully stimulates demand, it can lead to an increase in sales volume, which can result in economies of scale and lower production costs. If the cost savings are passed on to the consumer, prices may remain the same or even decrease. However, if the promotion creates a situation where demand exceeds supply, prices may increase due to scarcity.
Additionally, if the promotion involves premium features or a higher-end product, prices may naturally be higher. Ultimately, the effect of promotion on prices depends on various factors such as the nature of the promotion, the competitiveness of the market, and the behavior of consumers.
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Blossom Company, a machinery dealer, leased a machine to Dexter Corporation on January 1, 2020. The lease is for an 8-year period and requires equal annual payments of $28,865 at the beginning of each year. The first payment is received on January 1, 2020. Blossom had purchased the machine during 2016 for $100,000. Collectibility of lease payments by Blossom is probable. Blossom set the annual rental to ensure a 6% rate of return. The machine has an economic life of 10 years with no residual value and reverts to Blossom at the termination of the lease. Click here to view factor tables. Â Your answer is correct. Compute the amount of the lease receivable. (For calculation purposes, use 5 decimal places as displayed in the factor table provided and round final answer to 0 decimal places e. G. 5,275. ) Amount of the lease receivable $ 190000 Prepare all necessary journal entries for Blossom for 2020. (Credit account titles are automatically indented when amount is entered. Do not indent manually. Round answers to 0 decimal places e. G. 5,275. ) Date Account Titles and Explanation Debit Credit 1/1/20 Right-of-Use Asset Lease Receivable Cash (To record the lease) Lease Liability Cash (To record the first lease payment) 12/31/20 Suppose the collectibility of the lease payments was not probable for Blossom. Prepare the necessary journal entry for the company in 2020. (Credit account titles are automatically indented when amount is entered. Do not indent manually. ) Date Account Titles and Explanation Debit Credit 1/1/ 200 C e Textbook and Media List of Accounts X Your answer is incorrect. Suppose at the end of the lease term, Blossom receives the asset and determines that it actually has a fair value of $900 instead of the anticipated residual value of $0. Record the entry to recognize the receipt of the asset for Blossom at the end of the lease term. (Credit account titles are automatically indented when amount is entered. Do not indent manually. Round answers to 0 decimal places e. G. 5,275. ) Date Account Titles and Explanation Debit Credit 1/1/20
Blossom Company, a machinery dealer, leased a machine to Dexter Corporation on January 1, 2020. The lease is for an 8-year period and requires equal annual payments of $28,865 at the beginning of each year.
The first payment is received on January 1, 2020. Blossom had purchased the machine during 2016 for $100,000. Collectibility of lease payments by Blossom is probable. Blossom set the annual rental to ensure a 6% rate of return. The machine has an economic life of 10 years with no residual value and reverts to Blossom at the termination of the lease.Compute the amount of the lease receivable.
The calculation of the lease receivable is shown below:Calculation of lease receivable:Using the present value of annuity due formula:PVAD = PMT x [(1 - (1 / (1 + i)n)) / i]PVAD = $28,865 x [(1 - (1 / (1 + 0.06)8)) / 0.06]PVAD = $163,574.30Value of machine at the beginning of lease term: $100,000Amount of lease receivable: $163,574.30 + $100,000 = $263,574.30.
Prepare all necessary journal entries for Blossom for 2020.The journal entries for 2020 are shown below:DateAccount Titles and ExplanationDebitCredit1/1/20Right-of-Use AssetLease ReceivableCash (To record the lease) $100,000$163,574.30$263,574.301/1/20Lease LiabilityCash (To record the first lease payment) $28,865$28,86512/31/20Depreciation Expense ([$100,000 - $0] / 8)Right-of-Use AssetLease Interest ExpenseLease Liability $12,500$28,217.44($16,717.44)($28,217.44)Suppose the collectibility of the lease payments was not probable for Blossom.
Prepare the necessary journal entry for the company in 2020.The journal entry for the situation is shown below:DateAccount Titles and ExplanationDebitCredit1/1/20Loss on Lease ReceivableLease Receivable $38,949.43$38,949.43Suppose at the end of the lease term, Blossom receives the asset and determines that it actually has a fair value of $900 instead of the anticipated residual value of $0. Record the entry to recognize the receipt of the asset for Blossom at the end of the lease term.
The journal entry to recognize the receipt of the asset for Blossom at the end of the lease term is shown below:DateAccount Titles and ExplanationDebitCredit12/31/28Lease ReceivableLease LiabilityRight-of-Use AssetGain on Lease Termination Cash (To record asset receipt and termination of the lease) $263,574.30($240,000)($100,000)$3,574.30
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