The highest Sudan IV test result would be chocolate.
Which sample would provide a positive Sudan IV test result?Lipids will show up as positive in the Sudan IV test. A few drops of Sudan IV are diluted into the test solution as part of the test procedure. A dye called Sudan IV will stain lipids. The dye will settle to the bottom of the test tube if there are no lipids present.
What materials are in Sudan IV?Sudan IV can be prepared from propylene glycol, isopropyl alcohol, 95% ethanol, or 0.05% by weight of the acetone:ethanol:water mixture, according to one source (50:35:15). In order for the dye to partition into the highly apolar fat without solubilizing the fat that will be dyed, a moderately apolar solvent must solubilize the dye.
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protein should account for 15% of the calories you eat each day.
1. True
2. False
The given statement "protein should account for 15% of the calories you eat each day" is false because the appropriate percentage of daily calorie intake that should come from protein depends on several factors such as age, gender, body weight, activity level, and overall health status.
The Institute of Medicine (IOM) recommends that adults should consume at least 0.8 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight per day, which is about 10-35% of total calorie intake. Therefore, the recommended percentage of daily calorie intake from protein can vary from person to person based on their individual needs.
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how many gametes will be made from this genotype (AaBbCCDdEEFf)?
[tex]{\fcolorbox{blue}{yellow} {64 possible gametes} }[/tex]
Explanation:To determine the number of gametes that can be produced from an individual with a given genotype, you need to calculate the total number of possible combinations of alleles that can be produced during meiosis.For the genotype AaBbCCDdEEFf, there are six different gene loci, each with two possible alleles. Therefore, the total number of possible gametes can be calculated as follows:2⁶ = 64 possible gametesSo, an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEEFf can potentially produce 64 different gametes through meiosisselect all the roles that membranes play in cells.
A. Transport substances into and out of the cell
B. Receive and respond to external stimuli
C. Enclose organelles in eukaryotic cells
D. Transcribe DNA into RNA and assembles ribosomes
Membranes in cells play a crucial role in transporting substances into and out of the cell and enclosing organelles in eukaryotic cells. (option a and c)
Membranes are thin, semi-permeable layers that surround cells and organelles. They play a critical role in maintaining the functional integrity of cells by controlling what enters and exits the cell. Membranes are composed of a lipid bilayer, a double layer of phospholipid molecules, that acts as a barrier and selectively regulates the flow of molecules and ions in and out of the cell.
This allows cells to control their internal environment and communicate with their surroundings. In eukaryotic cells, membranes also enclose individual organelles, creating specialized compartments within the cell and allowing for compartmentalization of cellular processes.
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what is a trait quizlet
A trait is a distinctive quality about a person that is related to genetics. Traits can be influenced by genes, the environment, or a combination of the two.
Qualitative characteristics such as eye color can also be quantified (like height or blood pressure).
What are cell traits exactly?Each typical human cell has 46 chromosomes, or 23 pairs in total. A trait is any characteristic that is influenced by multiple genes.
What are genes and characteristics?The information that is carried by your genes is what determines your traits, which are features or characteristics that you inherit from your parents. trates). There are between 25,000 and 35,000 genes in each human cell.
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The embroyblast eventually differentiates into the a. zygote. b. blastocyst c. primary germ layers. d. sperm and egg
The embryoblast eventually differentiates into the: (c) primary germ layers.
Embryoblast is the inner cell mass (ICM) formed at the blastocyst stage of embryo development, It is present as an aggregate of cells at one portion of the blastocyst and is surrounded by a layer of trophoblast cells called tropho-ectoderm enclosing a cavity called blastocoel.
Germ layers are the group of cells in the embryo which interact with each other and eventually give rise to all the parts and organs of the body. The process through which germ layers develop is called gastrulation. There are three types of germ layer: ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.
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Some proteins that are on the surface of mammalian cells contain carbohydrates. These proteins are synthesized by _____ and the carbohydrates are added in the _____. a) Golgi apparatus; rough endoplasmic reticulum b) cytoplasmic ribosomes; cell membrane c) mitochondrial ribosomes; smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Some proteins that are on the surface of mammalian cells contain carbohydrates. These proteins are synthesized by the rough endoplasmic reticulum; and the carbohydrates are added in the Golgi apparatus;
Mammalian cells are eukaryotic in general. It means each cell is far more sophisticated than a bacterial cell. Furthermore, because mammals are made up of billions of distinct cells in a variety of organs and tissues, there is a great deal of specialization among mammalian cells.
The immortalized Chinese hamster ovary (CHO) cell is the most often employed mammalian cell, but a variety of additional lines, including baby hamster kidney (BHK), human embryo kidney (HEK), mouse myeloma (NS0), and human retinal cells, have been licensed for manufacture of biopharmaceutical proteins (see References 16 and 17).
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what binds to the promoter in prokaryotic cells? in eukaryotic cells?
Transcription repressors are the ones that bind to the promoter in the prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells.
Eukaryotic cells contain ways to stop transcription, just like prokaryotic cells do. Repressors of transcription can attach to enhancer or promoter regions and stop transcription. Repressors react to environmental cues similarly to transcriptional activators in order to block the binding of activating transcription factors.
The control of gene expression is regulated by the organization of the genes. The region of promoter is also dependent on these genes. This area can be quite long or significantly short. The longer the promoter more area is there for the proteins to bind. Additionally, this gives the transcribing process a greater control. The promoter's size varies significantly between genes and is gene specific.
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What are vestigial structures 3 examples?
Vestigial structures are remnants of structures or organs that were present in an ancestor species but are no longer present in the current species. Examples of vestigial structures include the wings of the ostrich, the appendix in humans, and the hind leg bones of the whale.
They are anatomical structures that have lost their original function through the process of evolution. They are often referred to as "leftover" or "useless" parts of the body. However, some vestigial structures may have gained new functions over time.
Here are 3 examples of vestigial structures:
1. The appendix: The appendix is a small, tube-like structure that is attached to the large intestine. It is believed to have once played a role in digesting tough plant material, but is now considered to be a vestigial structure as it no longer serves a necessary function in the human body.
2. Wisdom teeth: Wisdom teeth are the third set of molars that typically emerge during young adulthood. However, due to the evolution of the human jaw, many people do not have enough room in their mouth for these teeth, and they often become impacted or cause other dental problems.
3. Tailbone: The tailbone, or coccyx, is a small, fused set of vertebrae at the base of the spine. It is believed to be the remnant of a tail that was once present in our ancestors, but is now considered a vestigial structure as it no longer serves a functional purpose.
Overall, vestigial structures are a fascinating reminder of our evolutionary history and the changes that have occurred in our anatomy over time.
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the following activities and body conditions affect blood pressure by changing one of the two listed factors.
Blood volume which results in affected blood pressure changes due to: blood donation; excessive sweating. While total peripheral resistance changes due to: high-altitude living, growth, smoking, increased sympathetic activity.
Blood pressure is defined as the force with which the heart pumps blood to the blood vessels. The blood pressure can be of following two types: systolic and diastolic. The average value of blood pressure in a healthy adult is 120/80.
Peripheral resistance, also called the vascular resistance is the component of the cardiac activity where the resistance is created by the circulatory system in order to create the blood pressure.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
The following activities and body conditions affect the blood pressure by changing one of the two listed factors:
Listed factors: Blood volume; Total peripheral resistance
Activities and body conditions: blood donation; smoking; excessive sweating; high-altitude living, growth; increased sympathetic activity
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What are an example of vascular tissue?
Vascular tissue is made up of the plant's primary transport systems, xylem and phloem. They are found in vascular bundles in all plant organs, crossing roots, stems, and leaves.
Xylem is in charge of transporting water and dissolved ions from the roots up through the plant. The vascular tissue that transports and distributes organic nutrients is known as phloem. Clubmosses, horsetails, ferns, gymnosperms (including conifers), and angiosperms are examples of vascular plants (flowering plants). Tracheophyta, Tracheobionta, and Equisetopsida sensu lato are some of the scientific names for the group.
The phloem serves as both a signaling system and a structural component of the plant. This tissue is made up of three cell types: sieve elements, parenchyma, and sclerenchyma.
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As malaria death rate increases, what would you expect to happen to the number of sickle-cell deaths?
When the death rate from malaria rises. There would be fewer deaths from sickle cell disease.
Describe malaria.People can get the potentially fatal disease known as malaria by being bitten by female Anopheles mosquito, which are known to transmit the parasites that cause it. It is treatable and preventable. Globally, 247 million cases of malaria were estimated to have been detected in 2021.
Does malaria have the highest mortality rate?Malaria represents one of the oldest illnesses to have been identified on Earth. It remains one of the world's most lethal diseases despite multiple international efforts to reduce death rates. Malaria is a serious condition that can be fatal if it is not promptly identified and treated. Even when they first occur, malaria symptoms might worsen hours or days later.
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which structure is specialized for the detection of the stimulus that triggers a phototaxic response in certain protists?
The specialized structure for the detection of the stimulus that triggers a phototaxic response in certain protists is called: eyespot.
Phototaxis is the movement of an organism by the detection of light. This process is particularly useful for the autotrophic organisms who can adjust themselves according to the most efficient light in order to perform photosynthesis.
Eyespot is an organelle particular present in various protists, involved in the function of photoreception. These are the small organelles with large amount of carotenoid pigment which helps in phototaxis. The eyespot can detect the intensity as well as the direction of incoming light.
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the ability to reach threshold without stimulation is called the of the sa node.
The ability of the SA (sinoatrial) node to reach threshold without stimulation is called the intrinsic firing rate.
What is SA node?
The SA node is a group of specialized cardiac muscle cells located in the upper right atrium of the heart. It serves as the heart's natural pacemaker, initiating electrical impulses that travel through the atria and ventricles, causing them to contract and pump blood throughout the body. The SA node's ability to generate these electrical impulses on its own, without any external stimulation, is referred to as its intrinsic firing rate. The intrinsic firing rate of the SA node is determined by its unique properties, which include automaticity, excitability, and conductivity. Automaticity refers to the ability of the SA node to initiate electrical impulses spontaneously, without any external stimulation. Excitability refers to the ability of the SA node to respond to electrical signals, allowing it to reach threshold and initiate an action potential.
Conductivity refers to the ability of the SA node to transmit electrical impulses to other cells, allowing the heart to contract and pump blood.
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Label the blood types according to their description. Type ABO Blood Types Anti-A antibodies Blood type Neither surface antigen A nor B Type AB A and B Surface antigen A Surface antigen B Surface antigens Erythrocytes Neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies Type A Plasma Plasma Anti-B antibodies Type B Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies
The ABO system identifies four blood types, according to the presence or absence of the antigens A and B on the RBCs.
What is ABO System?Four blood types are distinguished by the ABO system based on the presence or absence of the antigens A and B on the RBCs.
Blood type A: This blood type has anti-B antibodies in the plasma and A antigens on the RBCs.B antigens are found on RBCs and anti-A antibodies are found in plasma in people with blood group B.Blood group AB: These RBCs contain both A and B antigens, but the plasma contains no antibodies.Blood group O: This group's red blood cells lack the A and B antigens but do have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. The most prevalent blood type in the world is this one.The antigen and antibody status must both be taken into account prior to transfusing any patient.
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What types of proteins are categorized as opioid receptors?
Opioid receptors are categorized as G-protein coupled receptors.
Opioid Receptors are G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs). These receptors help to mediate the response of the human body to most hormones in the body, neurotransmitters, drugs, and are also involved in sensory perception of vision, taste, and olfaction. [2] All GPCRs consists of seven transmembrane-spanning proteins that couple to intracellular G proteins.The opioid system of receptors consists of three types of receptors, mu, delta, and kappa, which are activated by endogenous opioid peptides processed from three different protein precursors, namely, proopiomelanocortin, proenkephalin, and prodynorphin.They are expressed in cell lines and also mediate the inhibition of adenylyl cyclase activity by opioids .
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How does histone acetylation affect transcription?
Histone acetylation reduces the binding between histones and DNA by removing positive charges, thus promoting transcription.
What is histone acetylation?Histone acetylation and deacetylation are the processes by which the lysine residues within the N-terminal tail protruding from the histone center of the nucleosome are acetylated and deacetylated as part of gene regulation.
Histone acetylation and deacetylation of histones are crucial processes in gene regulation.
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Scenario
Photosynthesis is a process that takes place in plants. Carbon dioxide and water are converted into sugar and oxygen. The energy source that allows plants to start this process comes from the Sun. Soil, fertilizer, and minerals are nutrients that plants need to carry out important processes.External Data
Prompt Write a scientific explanation for which substance(s) illustrated above are food for plants.Claim:Evidence:Reasoning:
Answer:
grow and produce energy through photosynthesis.
Explanation:
In this process, the chloroplasts in the leaves of the plant contain chlorophyll, which is responsible for capturing the energy from sunlight. This energy is used to split the water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen, and the hydrogen is combined with carbon dioxide to produce glucose (sugar) and release oxygen as a byproduct.
This process is critical for the survival of plants and plays a significant role in the global carbon cycle, as it helps to remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and release oxygen into the air. Additionally, photosynthesis is the primary source of food and energy for nearly all life on Earth, as plants are the foundation of nearly all food chains.
Fossils of snakes with hind limbs but no forelimbs have been discovered. Which of the following conclusion is best supported by this fossil evidence
In a case whereby Fossils of snakes with hind limbs but no forelimbs have been discovered the conclusions that is best supported by this fossil evidence is C Snakes have evolved from an ancestral reptilewith limbs.
What are fossil evidence ?Fossil evidence shows how organisms evolved and how a "tree of life" can be used to illustrate this process, demonstrating the interconnectedness of all species. Rocks can also be dated using fossils.
Examples include exoskeletons, bones, shells, animal or microbe imprints in stone, items preserved in amber, hair, petrified wood, and DNA traces. The fossil record is the collection of all fossils.
Therefore, option C is correct.
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complete question:
Fossils of snakes with hind limbs but no forelimbs
have been discovered. Which of the following
conclusions is best supported by this fossil
evidence?
A Snakes are likely to evolve limbs in the future.
B Snakes are well adapted to live on land without
limbs.
C Snakes have evolved from an ancestral reptile
with limbs.
D Snakes are poor competitors compared to
reptiles with limbs.
Cell cycle is the process through which cells replicate and make two new cells. True/False?
So, the cell cycle is the process through which cells replicate and divide, but the end result may not always be two new cells.
What is cell?The cell cycle is the process by which cells grow, divide, and make copies of themselves. However, the end result of the cell cycle is not always two new cells. The cell cycle consists of two main stages: interphase and mitosis. During interphase, the cell grows, replicates its DNA, and prepares for cell division. Mitosis is the process of cell division, which is further divided into four stages: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. In some cases, such as in mitosis of somatic cells, the end result is two identical daughter cells. However, in other cases, such as in meiosis, the end result is four non-identical daughter cells.
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a protein that binds to the operator and blocks the rna polymerase is called?
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the rna polymerase is called repressor
What sort of protein attaches to a transcriptional operator and stops transcription?The operator gene is bound by a repressor protein that prevents the operon's structural genes from being transcribed in the absence of an inducer.
RNA polymerase interacts with a region of DNA called the promoter, which is near to the gene's start. In bacteria, each gene has its own promoter, which is a collection of co-transcribed genes. The template for transcription is produced when RNA polymerase splits the DNA strands into single strands after binding.
Repressors prevent RNA polymerase from connecting to or moving forward by attaching to operator sequences that are downstream of the promoters and limiting transcription.
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What are the main functions of cerebrum and cerebellum?
Cerebrum sends the signals to the muscles in your arms.
Your movements are calculated and controlled by your cerebellum, ensuring that your hand reaches the pencil without deviating. In addition to controlling conscious thought, your cerebellum also controls planning and movement.
The cerebrum, which is the biggest component of the brain, controls temperature as well as initiating and coordinating movement. Speech, judgment, thinking and reasoning, problem-solving, emotions, and learning are all made possible by different regions of the cerebrum.
A large number of activities and functions in both your brain and body are coordinated and regulated by the cerebellum, a region of the brain. It contains more than half of the neurons in your entire body while being quite little in comparison to your brain as a whole.
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catabolism consists of energy-releasing decomposition reactions?
True False
True. Catabolism refers to the set of metabolic pathways that involve the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler compounds, which releases energy that can be harnessed by the cell.
This process involves a series of exergonic, or energy-releasing, decomposition reactions that break down large molecules such as carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins into smaller molecules, such as glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids.
During catabolism, the energy contained in the chemical bonds of these complex molecules is released in a stepwise manner, with each reaction being catalyzed by a specific enzyme. The energy released can then be used by the cell to perform various functions, such as synthesizing ATP, the primary energy currency of the cell.
Catabolism is the opposite of anabolism, which involves the synthesis of complex molecules from simpler compounds, a process that typically requires energy. Together, catabolism and anabolism constitute the two sides of metabolism, the set of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life.
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because animals store glycogen in their muscles, meat, fish, and poultry are good sources of carbohydrates.A. True
B. False
False, Meat, fish, and poultry are not considered good sources of dietary carbohydrates, despite the fact that animals store glycogen in their muscles.
What are some examples of good sources of carbohydrates?Good sources of carbohydrates include whole grains, fruits, vegetables, beans, and legumes.
What is glycogen and where is it stored in the body?Glycogen is a complex carbohydrate that is stored in the liver and muscles of animals, including humans. It serves as a short-term energy reserve for the body. While meat, fish, and poultry do contain small amounts of glycogen, they are not considered significant sources of dietary carbohydrates.
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what is fusiform face area?
For typically developing individuals, the fusiform face area (FFA) is a region of the cortex in the inferior temporal lobe of the brain that has been found to respond most strongly to faces compared to other types of input (e.g., objects).
The FFA is located on the lateral side of the fusiform gyrus in the ventral stream on the ventral surface of the temporal lobe. It is located lateral to the parahippocampal position area. It has some lateralization, with the right hemisphere being larger.
The FFA was identified and is still being studied in humans utilizing positron emission tomography (PET) and functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI). Typically, a person sees visions of faces, objects, places, and bodies, as well as scrambled faces, objects, places, and bodies.
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what is the reasoning why acidic dyes stain only the background and not the cells?
Acidic dyes are negatively charged and are repelled by the negatively charged bacterial cell surface, causing them to only stain the background.
Why do acidic dyes not stain bacterial cells?Acidic dyes are negatively charged and are repelled by the negatively charged bacterial cell surface. This causes the dyes to only stain the background and not the bacterial cells.
What is the principle behind the use of acidic dyes in bacterial staining?Acidic dyes are used in bacterial staining to create a contrast between the bacterial cells and the background. Since acidic dyes only stain the background, they allow the bacterial cells to stand out and be easily visible under a microscope.
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what criterion does the biological species concept use to identify species?
The Biological Species Concept (BSC), which defines species as collections of interbreeding individuals that continue to reproduce, is the standard method for differentiating species.
According to the biological species idea, which criterion is employed to differentiate between species?According to Mayr, determining if there is shared reproduction within an organism population and whether there are obstacles to reproduction with other organisms is the key to recognising species.
What trait allows two species to be distinguished from one another?Most evolutionary biologists make the distinction between one species and another based on reproductivity: if two individuals of a different species mate, the offspring are frequently sterile, unviable, or have some other reduced fitness.
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Many organisms of a food chain feed on plants to derive energy for their vital activities. What is the food from which plants derive energy for their own growth and reproduction? Responses oxygen released by other plants oxygen released by other plants nutrients absorbed from the soil nutrients absorbed from the soil minerals absorbed from water in the soil minerals absorbed from water in the soil sugars made from carbon dioxide and water sugars made from carbon dioxide and water
Light work is the food from which plants derive energy for their own growth and reproduction.
What is carbon dioxide ?One part carbon and two parts oxygen make up the gas called carbon dioxide. Its usage by plants to create carbohydrates during a process known as photosynthesis makes it one of the most significant gases on the planet.
What is reproduction?Creating offspring is considered reproduction. An organism that reproduces sexually integrates the genetic makeup of both parents to create a genetically distinct individual. One parent replicates itself to create a genetically identical offspring in asexual reproduction.
Therefore, Light work is the food from which plants derive energy for their own growth and reproduction.
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Which of the following have the thickest layer of peptidoglycan in the cell wall?a. mycoplasmab. gram-positive bacteriac. gram-negative bacteriad. L-forms
'Gram-positive bacteria' have the thickest layer of peptidoglycan in the cell wall.
What do you mean by bacteria?
Bacteria are single-celled microorganisms that occur naturally in the environment and in and on the bodies of animals and humans. They can be beneficial or harmful, depending on the context. Bacteria are the most common cause of infections in humans and can cause a wide range of illnesses, from mild diarrhea to serious conditions such as meningitis and pneumonia.
Gram-positive bacteria are characterized by having a much thicker layer of peptidoglycan in their cell wall compared to Gram-negative bacteria. This is due to the lack of an outer membrane in Gram-positive bacteria which allows for an increased amount of peptidoglycan. The thick layer of peptidoglycan acts as a barrier to protect the bacteria from external threats such as antibiotics and other chemicals. It is also responsible for providing the bacteria with a rigid structure, allowing for the maintenance of shape and preventing cell lysis.
Hence, option B is correct.
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what is 4 tiny glands that function together that release hormones that regulates calcium levels?
The production of parathyroid hormone by the parathyroid glands is essential for controlling blood calcium levels.
Which two parathyroid glands regulate the blood calcium levels?The lobules cells of a thyroid hormone release calcitonin. This hormone lowers the blood's calcium concentration, counteracting the parathyroid glands' function. Calcitonin is released until intracellular calcium levels return to normal if blood calcium levels rise too high.
Which gland regulates calcium, according to this quiz?A hormone termed parathormone, which is secreted by the parathyroid gland, is essential for the metabolism of calcium. The Parathyroid Gland controls the calcium levels in the blood, which control how quickly people grow.
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what is the renal medulla
Renal medulla refers to the internal parts of the kidney which is made up of collecting ducts, Henle loop and vasa recta.
The term renal is often related to kidneys. Kidneys are the filtration units of the body. It has many parts such as renal veins, renal arteries, renal papilla, renal cortex and renal columns. Renal medulla is actively engaged in the process of concentration of urine by filtering out water, salts, and acid.
There are approximately 10 to 18 renal medulla in the conical subdivisions. Loop of Henle is present in the medullary region of the kidney. Renal medulla also has the length of the nephrons which are called as renal cells. Renal medulla has number of sections called as renal pyramids.
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