The act, belief, or characteristic which violates group norms and typically results in censure or punishment is deviance. Option A is the correct answer.
Deviance is the act of deviating from the norms of society, and it is one of the key topics in sociology. A deviant act is one that is in violation of the norms or values of a specific group or society. Deviant behavior is judged to be unacceptable by the majority of society's members, and it is typically accompanied by censure or punishment. It is often referred to as a socially constructed category because it varies depending on the time and place.
Deviance is a broad concept that includes a variety of behaviors. Some examples of deviant behavior include murder, drug addiction, theft, and alcoholism. However, other behaviors, such as homosexuality or cross-dressing, can also be considered deviant depending on the norms and values of the society in which they occur.
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There are
creative commons license.
different types of
O A. six
O B. nine
O C. seven
O D. four
Your organization entered into an interoperability agreement (IA) with another organization a year ago. As a part of this agreement, a federated trust was established between your domain and the partner domain.The partnership has been in the ongoing operations phase for almost nine months now. As a security administrator, which tasks should you complete during this phase? (Select two.)answer choicesa. Negotiate the BPO agreementb. Conduct periodic vulnerability assessmentsc. Verify compliance with the IA documentsd. Draft an MOU document
The tasks that a security administrator should complete during the ongoing operations phase are as follows: Conduct periodic vulnerability assessments and Verify compliance with the IA documents. Let's discuss both tasks in detail below.
Periodic vulnerability assessments: Vulnerability assessments are conducted to identify and manage potential vulnerabilities within an IT infrastructure or system. It is a proactive approach that allows the organization to assess its security posture and improve it.
Periodic vulnerability assessments should be conducted by a security administrator to ensure that both organizations' systems and data are secure and there is no unauthorized access. The frequency of conducting these assessments depends on the nature and sensitivity of the data shared between the organizations.Verify compliance with the IA documents: The interoperability agreement (IA) is a document that outlines the terms and conditions of the partnership between the organizations. Compliance with the IA documents ensures that both parties are following the rules and regulations set forth in the agreement.
A security administrator should ensure that the partner organization is following the IA documents and all the security measures are in place to safeguard the data shared between them. In case of any non-compliance, the security administrator should take necessary steps to mitigate the risk and bring the partner organization back into compliance. Therefore, the correct answer is B and C, which are Conduct periodic vulnerability assessments and Verify compliance with the IA documents, respectively.
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Suggest two possible strategies that the government could have put into place to ensure greater accountability within their ranks during the pandemic
"Two possible strategies that the government could have put into place to ensure greater accountability within their ranks during the pandemic are-
1. Government needed to offer transparency
2. issue a state of emergency."
Various actions were taken by the Central Ministries along with States/UTs in terms of strengthened community surveil-lance, quarantine facilities, isolation wards, adequate PPEs, trained man-power, rapid response teams for manage-ment of pandemic. The COVID-19 pandemic sent shock waves through the world economy & set off the biggest world economic crisis in more than a century. The crisis led to a striking rise in inequality within & across countries.
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At which of the following stages in the criminal justice process is an indigent defendant not guaranteed counsel paid for by the government?a. plea bargaining c. first appearanceb. trial d. discretionary appeal
Indigent defendants are not guaranteed counsel paid for by the government at the plea bargaining stage of the criminal justice process. The correct option is a.
The criminal justice system is a series of legal and social organizations created to enforce criminal law in accordance with a defined set of rules and limitations. The primary goal of the criminal justice system is to ensure that justice is served to victims of crime and that the public is protected from criminal activity.The criminal justice system's procedures are divided into three distinct stages. They are as follows: the police and prosecutor investigation, the trial process, and the correctional system. These processes are in place to guarantee that the accused's rights are protected and that the guilty parties are punished for their crimes.An indigent defendant is a person who cannot afford to hire an attorney and has to rely on court-appointed counsel. Indigent defendants are assigned lawyers by the court to ensure that they have legal representation. The Sixth Amendment guarantees the right to legal counsel, which means that defendants have the right to representation, but not the right to representation by an attorney who is paid for by the government. In general, the state is required to pay for the defendant's legal representation, and it is important that the defendant be represented by counsel to ensure that their rights are protected. Indigent defendants are not guaranteed counsel paid for by the government at the plea bargaining stage of the criminal justice process.Therefore, the correct option is a.Learn more about criminal justice system: https://brainly.com/question/7207817
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The administration of justice is an important aspect of the criminological study because it is concerned with those institutions that deal closely with crime and criminals throughout the justice system. In line with the above assertion, discuss the three (3) components of the criminal justice system in relation to the administration of justice in the Republic of South Africa.
The three main components of the criminal justice system in relation to the administration of justice in the Republic of South Africa are-
1. The prosecution service -
-It decides whether or not to prosecute someone who is suspected of having committed a crime.
2. The presiding officer-
-The magistrate or judge who hears the case, and the judiciary (the courts) decide if the accused is innocent or guilty after having heard evidence.
3. The Department of Justice provides accessible and quality justice for all-
- The prison system, done by the Department of Correctional Services (DCS), makes sure that sentences are done.
Justice actually mean?Justice is the ethical and philosophical thing that individuals should be treated impartially, fairly, nice, and rationally by the law and by those who leader it, that laws should guarantee that no one do damage, and that if harm is allegedly occurring, corrective action should be performed.
Justice means to different people?Giving each individual what they deserve, or, in more formal terms, giving each person their due, is what is meant by justice. Nowadays, the terms justice and fairness are used in pace of other since they are join.
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true/false. prosecuting attorneys exercise discretion when determining whether or not to bring charges against the arrestee.
True. Prosecuting attorneys are responsible for deciding whether to bring criminal charges against an individual who has been arrested.
This decision is made based on various factors, such as the strength of the evidence, the seriousness of the offense, and the interests of justice. Prosecutors have discretion in determining whether or not to bring charges, and their decision can have significant consequences for the individual facing the charges. In some cases, prosecutors may decide not to bring charges if they feel that the evidence is weak or if the offense is minor. However, in other cases, they may pursue charges aggressively, seeking the maximum possible penalty for the alleged offense.
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The adequacy of a premise is usually a matter of
Answer:
The norms of premise adequacy serve to identify when a premise ought itself to be (or to have been) supported.
Explanation:
The norms of premise adequacy serve to identify when a premise ought itself to be (or to have been) supported.
true/false. are 24/7 coordination centers that expand to become an interagency facility staffed by esfs in anticipation of a serious incident in the fema region.
True, 24/7 coordination centers that expand to become an interagency facility staffed by esfs in anticipation of a serious incident in the fema region.
24/7 coordination centers, also known as Emergency Operations Centers (EOCs), are established in anticipation of a serious incident in the FEMA (Federal Emergency Management Agency) region.
These centers expand to become interagency facilities staffed by ESFs (Emergency Support Functions) from various federal, state, and local agencies.
The EOC serves as the central point of coordination for all emergency response and recovery efforts, providing a forum for decision-making and communication between different agencies and organizations involved in the response effort.
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what is an example of a situation in which the government could use prior restraint against the press?
The prior restraint is the legal censorship or restriction on speech, expression, or other forms of public communication.
An example of a situation in which the government could use prior restraint against the press is a case of a national security breach or an invasion of privacy. Prior restraint is also used in cases of a criminal investigation. In this situation, if a newspaper or television channel has some valuable information about an ongoing investigation, the government may have to use prior restraint to stop the channel or the newspaper from publishing the information so that it won’t hinder the investigation process.
This situation usually happens in cases of political assassination or terrorism, where the government does not want the culprits to know the ongoing investigation process. Therefore, the government is forced to use prior restraint against the press to stop them from publishing sensitive information. The government also uses prior restraint to protect the privacy of individuals. If a newspaper or television channel has information about a person's personal life that could damage their reputation, the government can use prior restraint to stop them from publishing such information.
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which of these are useful forecasting techniques for projecting the future direction of important public policy information?
Trend extrapolation and Scenario development are useful forecasting techniques for projecting the future direction of important public policy information. The correct option is 4.
Utilizing statistics and modeling methods, predictive analytics predicts future performance based on existing and previous data. In order to build, process, and validate a model that can be used to predict future outcomes, predictive modeling uses known results.
Forecasting and trend analysis are the two main applications of extrapolation. By using data and trends from the past, forecasting involves making predictions about the future. The process of trend analysis entails spotting data trends over time and using those trends to forecast future outcomes. One component of the broader discipline of trend (or trendline) analysis is trend extrapolation.
It almost always aims to predict future values with some degree of probability by extending known data points to areas beyond the timeframe of known data points. The correct option is 4.
The question is incomplete, complete question" which of these are useful forecasting techniques for projecting the future direction of important public policy information?(1) straight-line, (2) moving average, (3) simple linear regression and (4)Trend extrapolation and Scenario development
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what the forensic lab plays within crime scene investigation?
Explain briefly the concept of duress in contract law.
examples of mala prohibita
Answer:
Mala prohibita are crimes that are illegal only because they are prohibited by law, rather than being inherently immoral. Examples include traffic violations, drug offenses, white-collar crimes, gambling offenses, firearms offenses, prostitution and sex-related crimes, alcohol-related offenses, intellectual property offenses, immigration offenses, and environmental offenses.
Examples:
Traffic violations such as speeding, driving without a license, and running a red light.Drug offenses such as possession of controlled substances.White-collar crimes such as tax evasion, money laundering, and insider trading.Gambling offenses such as illegal gambling and bookmaking.Firearms offenses such as possessing an illegal firearm or carrying a concealed weapon without a permit.Prostitution and other sex-related crimes such as solicitation and public indecency.Alcohol-related offenses such as selling alcohol to minors and driving under the influence (DUI).Intellectual property offenses such as copyright and trademark infringement.Immigration offenses such as illegal entry or overstaying a visa.Environmental offenses such as pollution violations and illegal dumping.which of the following is not one of the necessary factors that leads to a crime according to routine activities theory?
Routine activities theory suggests that for a crime to occur, three necessary factors must be present: a motivated offender, a suitable target, and the absence of a capable guardian.
These factors create opportunities for crime to occur, and their absence makes it less likely. However, the theory does not suggest that a specific individual or group of individuals is responsible for the occurrence of a crime. Instead, it focuses on the environmental and situational factors that create opportunities for criminal activity. Therefore, the identity of the potential offender is not a necessary factor in the theory.
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In some cases, the sale of a property triggers payment in full of a deferred tax or special assessment. If this is the case, the tax may be paid by
all of these.
If a property sale triggers payment of a deferred tax or special assessment, the responsibility for paying the tax usually falls on the seller.
This is because the tax or assessment is typically attached to the property and not the owner. As such, when the property changes hands, the new owner inherits any existing tax liability.
The payment of the deferred tax or special assessment may be made directly by the seller, or the payment may be deducted from the sale proceeds before the seller receives their payment. This deduction is typically made at closing, where the seller's proceeds are calculated and paid out.
It is important for both buyers and sellers to be aware of any outstanding tax or assessment liabilities attached to a property before entering into a transaction. Failing to account for these liabilities can result in unexpected costs and delays in closing the deal.
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The doctrine of __________ is the basis for an employer's liability for an unauthorized tort committed by his employee in the course of his employment.
a. indemnification
b. respondeat superior
c. apparent authority
d. direct liability
The doctrine of respondeat superior is the basis for an employer's liability for an unauthorized tort committed by his employee in the course of his employment. The correct answer is option b.
What is the Doctrine of Respondeat Superior?The Doctrine of Respondeat Superior states that an employer is accountable for any unauthorized tort committed by an employee during his or her employment, and that the employer can be sued or made accountable for the tort committed by the employee. An unauthorized tort is a tort committed by an employee outside of his or her job responsibilities or outside of his or her specific authority.
What is the Doctrine of Respondeat Superior in law?The Doctrine of Respondeat Superior in the law is a legal concept that specifies that an employer is responsible for the actions of his or her employees, agents, or independent contractors, as long as the tortious conduct was committed within the scope of the employment or agency.
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Which of the following is NOT one of the elements of a libel suit?a. Identificationb. Clear and present dangerc. Defamationd. Faulte. Injury
Defamation is NOT one of the elements of a libel suit. (C)
Libel is a type of defamation that consists of false statements that are published in a written form. A libel suit requires four elements: identification, clear and present danger, fault, and injury. Identification means that the individual responsible for the libelous statement must be identified.
Clear and present danger means that the statement was false, and it created harm or the potential to cause harm. Fault means that the person who made the statement either acted negligently or with intentional malice. Injury means that the libelous statement caused some form of harm or damage to the plaintiff.
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george is walking down the street one day and sees two men across the street walking hand in hand
George seeing two men walking hand in hand is an example of a situation that may prompt a psychological reaction from him, either positive or negative, depending on his personal beliefs and values.
This situation highlights the issue of acceptance and tolerance of diversity in society, specifically with regards to sexual orientation and gender identity. In today's society, individuals have varying opinions and beliefs about what is acceptable behavior, and it is important to understand that diversity and individual differences should be respected and celebrated. This situation emphasizes the importance of cultivating empathy and understanding towards others, even when their beliefs and behaviors differ from our own.
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are responsible for coordinating resources to address actual or potential incidents. Due to their remote locations, often face unique challenges in receiving assistance from outside the jurisdiction quickly and often request assistance from neighboring islands, other nearby countries, States, the private sector or nongovernmental organization resources, or the Federal Government.
The responsible entity for coordinating resources to address actual or potential incidents are those entities that are in charge of providing emergency response. In some cases, because of the remoteness of the areas, assistance from outside the jurisdiction may be needed. In these cases, there are several options for requesting aid from neighboring areas, other countries, the private sector, or non-governmental organizations.
Resources to address actual or potential incidents are coordinated by emergency response entities. Emergency response organizations, such as the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) or local emergency management organizations, coordinate resources to address actual or potential incidents. Emergency response organizations are responsible for coordinating local, state, and federal resources to respond to disasters, such as hurricanes, earthquakes, or floods.
They are also responsible for coordinating with other organizations, such as non-governmental organizations or the private sector, to ensure that resources are available to meet the needs of the affected population.
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For financial statement audits, generally accepted government auditing standards (GAGS) incorporate the Statements on Auditing Standards (SAS) that are issued by the AICPA. GAGAS prescribe additional standards on:
1. direct reporting of illegal acts
2. reporting on internal controls
For financial statement audits, generally accepted government auditing standards (GAGS) incorporate the Statements on Auditing Standards (SAS) that are issued by the AICPA.
GAGAS prescribe additional standards on reporting on internal controls and direct reporting of illegal acts.
The Government Accountability Office (GAO) establishes the generally accepted government auditing standards (GAGAS). These standards are used to audit the government's financial statements.GAGAS prescribe additional standards on reporting on internal controls and direct reporting of illegal acts.
GAGAS are divided into three types: general standards, fieldwork standards, and reporting standards.GAGAS, like most auditing standards, require auditors to be objective, to use appropriate care in their work, and to maintain professional behavior.
GAGAS sets out additional requirements that auditors must adhere to in order to maintain independence, objectivity, and impartiality, including requirements for reporting on internal controls and direct reporting of illegal acts.GAGAS is used for audits of federal, state, and local government entities.
The GAO, for example, must follow GAGAS when conducting audits of government entities. In addition, many state auditors follow GAGAS when performing audits of their own state and local government entities.
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Suggest the scenarios that would prove the Hooman Khanloo's (appellant) NON-EXCLUSIVE use of room No. 1109? in case Dato ARahman.
Explanation:
Testimony from witnesses: If there were witnesses who saw Hooman Khanloo using the room on a non-exclusive basis, their testimony could support his claim. These witnesses may include other tenants or employees of the building who have seen Hooman using the room for specific purposes, such as holding meetings or conducting business.
Communication records: If Hooman communicated with Dato ARahman regarding his use of the room, such as through email or text message, these records could support his claim. If the messages show that Dato ARahman agreed to allow Hooman to use the room on a non-exclusive basis, this could be used as evidence in court.
Physical evidence: If there is physical evidence to support Hooman's claim, such as items or equipment that he left in the room, this could be used as evidence. If the items left behind by Hooman suggest that he was only using the room for a limited period of time or for specific purposes, this could support his claim of non-exclusive use.
Ultimately, the strength of Hooman's case will depend on the specific facts and evidence presented in court. It is important for him to gather as much evidence as possible to support his claim of non-exclusive use of the room.
whether highlight or underline the additional reasons outlined here to support lifelong tenure of a federal judge/judge.
Highlighting and underlining are great tools for emphasizing certain points in written material. In this instance, additional reasons outlined to support the lifelong tenure of a federal judge/judge can be emphasized by highlighting or underlining them.
The lifelong tenure of a federal judge/judge is an important concept in the United States justice system. There are a number of reasons why it is beneficial to keep a federal judge in place for their entire career, including experience, consistency, and continuity. The experience a judge gains through decades of decisions helps them to better understand the relevant laws, precedents, and the people appearing before them.
Additionally, consistency in the federal courts helps to provide equal justice for all. A judge who is consistent in their decisions and rulings provides a greater level of security for those subject to their court. The continuity of judicial personnel ensures that the decisions made in the courtroom are uniform and consistent. All of these factors come together to create a more effective and efficient justice system. Highlighting and underlining these reasons in written material is an excellent way to ensure they are properly emphasized.
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What is meant by the statement, "You can decide at any time to exercise these rights and not answer any
questions or make any statements"?
O Once the suspect has agreed to speak, he or she cannot later claim that they were forced to do so
O The suspect is always encouraged to change his or her mind and begin speaking with the police
Even if the suspect initially agrees to speak with the police, he or she has the right to stop the interview at any time and seek
legal advice
Once the suspect has made a decision to speak or to remain silent, that choice cannot be changed
Answer:
This is because you can invoke your rights at any time. This means that after invoking your rights, any incriminating statements you made after will be inadmissible as evidence. A person may still invoke their right to remain silent or right to an attorney even after they have agreed to answer the officer's questions.
what is The Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (SMCRA)?
The Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (SMCRA) is a federal law that regulates the surface mining of coal in the United States.
The law was designed to address the negative effects coal mining has on the environment and society, including erosion, habitat damage, and air and water pollution.
The law puts rigorous regulations on mining activities, such as the reclamation of land when mining is finished, and requires mining operations to get permission from the state in which they are working.
The law also stipulates that mining operations must pay a reclamation charge, which goes towards cleaning up and restoring mined-out land.
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true/false. even though marriage licenses fall under state jurisdiction in the united states, marriage is recognized across the country and in the constitution.
The given statement " even though marriage licenses fall under state jurisdiction in the united states, marriage is recognized across the country and in the constitution." is true due to state as well as it is civil right protected by the supreme court.
The legal union of a couple as spouses is called marriage. The fundamental components of a marriage are: (1) the parties' legal capacity to wed; (2) their shared consent; and (3) a legally mandated marriage contract. States are primarily in charge of regulating marriage. The Supreme Court has ruled that states may lawfully regulate the institution by establishing restrictions on who may marry and how marriages may end.
Entering into a marriage changes the legal status of both parties and gives both husband and wife new rights and obligations. However, the states do not have the authority to forbid marriage if there is no good reason for it.
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assume that print todays date is a function that uses no parameters. write a statement that calls (invokes) this function.
Assuming that print today's data is a function with no parameters, the statement that calls this function is: print_todays_date()
How to write the statement ?In programming, a function is a block of code that performs a specific task. Functions are often used to break down a program into smaller, more manageable pieces of code that can be reused throughout the program.
When you define a function, you give it a name and a set of parameters (if any) that it takes as input. In the case of the "print today's date" function, it doesn't take any parameters, so you can simply write the name of the function followed by a set of empty parentheses, like this: print_todays_date().
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paragraph 3 states that overcrow cities and urban spawn have put more peolple and wild animals close
The rapid growth of urban areas has resulted in many challenges, one of which is the increasing proximity between people and wild animals.
How would you support your answer ?As cities expand and new suburbs are built, they often encroach on the habitats of wild animals. As a result, animals such as deer, coyotes, and raccoons are often found living in close proximity to humans. This can be particularly problematic for both people and animals. Wild animals can be a threat to human safety, particularly if they become aggressive or attack humans. On the other hand, people can also be a threat to wild animals, either intentionally or unintentionally.
For example, they may kill animals that they perceive as pests or encroach on their habitats. Moreover, the increasing proximity between people and wild animals can also increase the spread of diseases. Overall, it is crucial for policymakers to find ways to balance the needs of humans and wild animals in urban areas to minimize potential conflicts and protect both groups.
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by acting as ___ , the press allows citizens to pay more attention to what government is doing.
The public was to be served by the press, not the authorities. A democracy in which the government is answerable to the people depends on the press freedom, which is safeguarded by the First Amendment.
What is the press's function?Independent, reputable, and ethical media are the foundation of any democracy. They serve to educate, critique, and arouse discussion.
What is the name of a government that empowers its people?Democracy is a system of government in which the populace has the power to decide legislation ("direct democracy") or to elect representatives to do so ("representative democracy").
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In 1873, the congressional law that officially discontinued silver coinage. became known to critics as the "Crime of '73."
In 1873, the congressional law that officially discontinued silver coinage became known to critics as the "Crime of '73." The act, also known as the Coinage Act of 1873, ended the circulation of silver dollars, half dollars, and quarter dollars.
It was a controversial law because it had long-lasting implications for the US monetary system and the country's economy. The Coinage Act of 1873 played a significant role in shaping the country's monetary system. It was instrumental in ending the bimetallism era, which allowed gold and silver to be used interchangeably as a currency. The law put the US on the gold standard, which meant that the country's currency was tied to gold.
The gold standard was a crucial factor in stabilizing the US economy in the late 19th century, but it had its drawbacks too, particularly during economic crises. The passage of the Coinage Act of 1873 created much controversy in the United States, and it is still considered a significant moment in US monetary history. Those who opposed the law saw it as a conspiracy to deprive people of their right to use silver as a currency. As a result, it became known as the "Crime of '73."
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the redrawing of district and precinct lines following the national census to reflect population changes defines which of the following terms?
The redrawing of district and precinct lines following the national census to reflect population changes is commonly referred to as "redistricting."
In this case option A is correct
Redistricting is the process of adjusting electoral district boundaries to ensure that each district contains roughly the same number of people, as required by the United States Constitution.
The goal of redistricting is to ensure that each person's vote carries the same weight, and that representation in government is distributed fairly among all citizens.
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the redrawing of district and precinct lines following the national census to reflect population changes defines which of the following terms?
redistricting
single member district
reapportionment
regional districts