To increase the neutrophil count in a client with a steadily decreasing white blood cell count, the nurse anticipates administering granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) or granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF).
G-CSF and GM-CSF are medications that stimulate the production and maturation of neutrophils, a type of white blood cell responsible for fighting infection. These growth factors can be administered to individuals undergoing chemotherapy or other treatments that suppress the bone marrow, leading to a decreased production of neutrophils and an increased risk of infection.
By administering G-CSF or GM-CSF, the nurse can help stimulate the bone marrow to produce more neutrophils, thus increasing the neutrophil count and enhancing the client's ability to fight off infections. These medications are typically given as subcutaneous injections and are usually started at a specific point in the client's treatment protocol, as determined by the healthcare provider.
It is important for the nurse to closely monitor the client's response to the medication, including regular blood counts, to ensure the desired effect is achieved and to watch for any potential side effects. The specific dosing and administration schedule will depend on the client's individual circumstances and the healthcare provider's orders.
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A charge nurse is delegating a task. The nurse understands which of the following represents effective delegation
The nurse understands the following represents effective delegation
Delineating the desired outcomes of the delegation. Effective delegation means planning ahead when identifying tasks to be accomplished. Assess the situation, and clearly delineate the desired outcomes.Asking the nurse if they are capable of completing the delegated task.Monitoring how the delegated task is being accomplished.DelegationDelegation is the giving of power to another person (often from a boss to a subordinate) to carry out particular tasks. One of the fundamental ideas of management leadership is the distribution and delegation of tasks. Managers must decide which tasks they should complete themselves and which ones they should assign to others to complete.
From a managerial perspective, delegation entails transferring project ownership to team members, providing them the chance to efficiently conclude the work output with little assistance. Micromanagement, in which a manager gives too much input, direction, and oversight of work that has been assigned, is the reverse of effective delegation. Decision-making authority is granted to a subordinate through delegation.
A charge nurse is delegating a task. The nurse understands which of the following represents effective delegation
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All people who have seizures have epilepsy even if they haven’t been diagnosed yet. True or false?.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Seizures are caused by a number of factors that don't include epilepsy.
Epilepsy is a neurological condition that has been known to affect the brain. People who get seizures are not bound to suffer from epilepsy. Thus, the statement is false.
What are seizures?A seizure is an uncontrolled and sudden condition that causes the electrical disturbance of the impulses in the brain. This interruption causes spasmodic movements in the skeletal muscles of the body.
It results in alteration of the behavior, consciousness, breathing problems, confusion, stiffen the body, etc. It can affect and cause various diseases of CNS that include epilepsy which can be focal or generalized seizures.
The epileptic seizures are not just caused by one convulsion activity and rather include more episodes of the seizures that lead to more serious neurological conditions.
Therefore, the statement is false.
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Discuss the influence of various factors on health. What is health protective and what is health threatening
Various factors which influence health are tobacco use, alcohol consumption, physical activity and diet, sexual practices, and disease screening.
How various factors influence health?Health is the state of being free from illness or injury. It tells a person’s mental or physical condition.There are various factors which may either be health protective or health threatening.Health protective behaviors are actions linked to decreasing risk factors, reducing negative health outcomes and facilitating a healthy lifestyle. Health protective behaviors include not smoking, planned exercise, routine exercise, moderate drinking, absence of sedative use, and general health behaviors.Health-threatening behaviors are those responses and life-style patterns that harm physical well-being and establish risk for subsequent medical illness. Health threatening behaviors are common within the society: cigarette smoking, alcohol consumption, poor exercise habits, and high-cholesterol diets.Learn more about factors influencing health here:
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A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyphagia. Which outcome statement is the priority for this client
Adequate cellular nourisment
In people with diabetes, glucose do not enter inside the cells to be used for energy. This can be due to either low insulin levels or insulin resistance
What is Diabetes mellitus ?Diabetes mellitus Type 1 is characterized by hyperglycemia that precipitates glucosuria and polyuria (frequent urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia (excessive hunger).
Polyphagia is a consequence of cellular malnourishment when insulin deficiency prevents utilization of glucose into the cell for energy.So the outcome statement should include stabilization of adequate cellular nutrition which is done by providing the insulin supplement the client needs.Learn more about Diabetes mellitus here:
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The diet of humans is very flexible and wide-ranging, although the actual foods most people eat are quite limited. Group of answer choices True False
The statement "diet of humans is very flexible and wide-ranging, although the actual foods most people eat are quite limited" is true.
Human beings are multicellular organisms that are heterotrophic in nature and thus, are not able to produce their own food. They depend on other organisms for their food. The diet of humans is diverse and flexible which includes various dishes (veg and non-veg). This diversity in the diet of humans includes only four limited organic molecules like proteins, carbohydrates, fats, and nucleic acids. Therefore, even after the diversity in the diet human beings eat quite a limited food type.
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A client gives birth to a baby at a local health care facility. The nurse observes that the infant is fussy and begins to move her hands to her mouth and suck on her hand and fingers. How should the nurse interpret these findings
Which of the following perspectives is concerned primarily with the meaning that people place on their own and one another's behavior?
Symbolic interactionism is concerned primarily with the meaning that people place on their own and one another's behavior
Symbolic interaction theory is a sociological theory that develops from practical considerations and alludes to specific effects of human communication and interaction, making images and ordinary connotations, inferences, and correspondences with others.
Symbolic interaction theory is an approach used to analyze human interaction by focusing on the meanings that individuals behaviour assign to things in the world around them, such as words and objects.
It may look like a big name, but symbolic interaction is how your experience adds subjective meaning to symbols and letters. For example, the word "dog" is just a string. Through interaction with the word "dog", this is considered a furry four-legged dog.
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The charge nurse is making assignments on a medical-surgical telemetry unit. Which clients are appropriate to assign to the licensed practical nurse
Client 2 days after aortic valve surgery who needs a urinary catheter reinserted due to inability to void is appropriate to assign to the licensed practical nurse.
Who is a Licensed practical nurse?These are healthcare professionals who perform different activities to ease the burden of patients and make them more comfortable.
In this case, reinserting a urinary catheter due to inability to void will make the patients more comfortable in the hospital.
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The home health nurse visits a client with inflammatory bowel disease who recently underwent a total colectomy with ileostomy creation. Which statement by the client indicates that the client understands ileostomy care
The statement which indicates that the client understands ileostomy care is 'I cut the appliance opening slightly larger than my stoma'.
What is Ileostomy?This is a medical procedure which involves diverting the small intestine through an opening in the abdomen.
This opening must be slightly larger which is not more than 1/8 inches so as to protect the peristomal skin and prevent infection.
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The best method of notifying the BON about reportable violations by a nurse of the NPA and board rules is to
The best method of notifying the BON about reportable violations by a nurse of the NPA and board rules is to complete the reporting form on the BON website.
What is BON?This is referred to as board of nursing which ensures qualified nurses are made to practice based on the accepted code of standards.
They have a website where violations by a nurse of the NPA can be reported in an anonymous manner for due investigation and action.
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Signs and symptoms common to both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) include all of the following except:
Answer:
polydipsia
Explanation:
I feel that that is the answer
When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she:
When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she has gathered patient history information.
Who is an EMT?An EMT is an acronym that stands for Emergency Medical Technician. They are individuals that are specially trained with skills that are needed for emergency health situations.
Pain is the way our body reacts to an abnormal internal or external stimuli.
Abdominal pain is a type of pain experience at the abdominal region of the body.
The EMT would needs to obtain an information from the patient, which is often call patient history information.
This would help the technician set up a treatment plan for this patient.
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A nurse is preparing to discharge a client with coronary artery disease and hypertension who is at risk for type 2 diabetes. Which information is important to include in the discharge teaching
How to control blood glucose through lifestyle modification with diet and exercise
Physical activity reduces the risk of coronary artery disease. Heart-pumping aerobic exercise is the kind that doctors have in mind when they recommend at least 150 minutes per week of moderate activity.
What is Coronary artery disease ?Disease in which there is a narrowing or blockage of the coronary arteries (blood vessels that carry blood and oxygen to the heart).
Coronary artery disease is usually caused by atherosclerosis (a buildup of fatty material and plaque inside the coronary arteries).Treatment can include: lifestyle changes, such as regular exercise and stopping smoking, medicines.Learn more Coronary artery disease here:
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Question 6. A LVN learns that a facility licensing law requires that a registered nurse always perform a specific task related to admission of new patients. The LVN understands that this means he or she
The LVN understands that this means he or she may not perform the task, as the RN level of licensure is necessary to perform the task.
Sure, an RN role is a higher degree nurse than an LVN. RNs may supervise LVNs. At the same time as LVNs offer primary affected person care, RNs verify patient situations, record affected person's clinical signs, and histories, administer medication, perform and analyze diagnostic exams and create affected person care plans.
yes, an RN role is a better degree nurse than an LVN. RNs can also supervise LVNs. even as LVNs offer simple patient care, RNs determine affected person situations, file affected person scientific signs and histories, administer medicine, carry out and analyze diagnostic assessments and create affected person care plans.
one in every of the largest differences between LVNs and CNAs is what they may be liable for. essentially, while certified nursing assistants are usually chargeable for cleansing and assistant-degree responsibilities, certified vocational nurses partake in more scientific-associated and clerical obligations.
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In what year did Medicare stop paying for all consultation codes from the CPT evaluation and management, except for telehealth consultation G-codes
From 2010, Medicare stopped paying for all consultation codes from the CPT evaluation and management, except for telehealth consultation G-codes.
As of the first of the year 2010, the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) stopped providing coverage for consultation codes. It is difficult enough to comprehend the coding policy; but, today there is a mix of the coverage policy and the coding policy, and one is required to differentiate between the two.
CMS has removed funding for consultation codes and transferred their relative value units (RVUs) to other assessment and management codes. CMS has said that it does not feel there is much effort involved in the consultation codes beyond the routine evaluation and management activities related to report writing.
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A nurse is performing a venipuncture on an older adult client whose veins are difficult to locate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take
When doing venipuncture on an elderly client whose veins are hard to find, the nurse should touch the skin around the insertion site.
Location for Venipuncture:
The two veins most frequently utilized for venipuncture are -the cephalic and median cubital veins. Possible locations include the dorsum of the arm's basilic vein or the dorsal veins of the hands. The basilic vein, which is found on the pinkie side of the arm and is adjacent to the brachial arteries and median nerve, must only be utilized if there are no other more noticeable arm veins, due to its close closeness to both. Only in extreme cases can veins in the ankle and foot be used. Avoid touching the veins on the inside of the wrist. A few additional websites ought to be avoided as well.Learn more about venipuncture here:
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Differential diagnosis: the key to reducing diagnosis error, measuring diagnosis and a mechanism to reduce healthcare costs
A differential diagnosis is a list of potential diseases that could share the symptoms you gave doctor. This list provides a theory as to what might be causing your symptoms, not definitive diagnosis.
What about differential diagnosis?A crucial aspect of clinical reasoning is creating a differential diagnosis, which entails creating a list of potential diseases that could cause a patient's symptoms and physical findings. It makes it possible for the right testing to exclude potential causes and validate a final diagnosis.The list of potential illnesses or ailments that could be the source of your symptoms is known as a differential diagnosis. It is based on information gleaned from your symptoms, medical background, uncomplicated laboratory findings, and physical examination.Mild concussion was the official diagnosis.Physician initially gave him a pneumonia diagnosis. The committee's analysis of the issues facing urban schools was published.It is necessary to formulate and test hypotheses in order to diagnose the issue.Learn more about differential diagnosis here:
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After abdominal surgery, a client with protein calorie malnutrition is receiving parenteral nutrition (PN). Which is the best indicator that the client is receiving adequate nutrition
The best indicator that a client received adequate nutrition after receiving parenteral nutrition is the assessment of serum albumin level
What is nutrition?Nutrition is defined as the process of obtaining food substances
Two major types of nutrition are:
Autotrophic nutritionHeterotrophic nutritionIn conclusion, the best indicator that a client received adequate nutrition after receiving parenteral nutrition is assessment of serum albumin level
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Over-the-counter medicine, like cold medicine, can still be dangerous if mixed with the wrong medications or if too much is taken. Because of this, over-the-counter medicine should:
Over-the-counter medicines should be avoided but taken with a doctor's recommendation.
Over-the-counter medicines
Over-the-counter medicines (OTC medicines) are medicines that a person can buy and store without getting a prescription from the doctor. Such drugs are used to prevent various common illnesses like cold, flu, nausea, pain, constipation, etc.
Drug-drug Interactions
OTC medicines can interact with another drug which is termed drug-drug interaction. Such interactions can be grouped as duplication, opposition, or alteration. Duplication occurs when the active ingredients are similar and opposition occurs when the active ingredients have opposite effects. Alterations occur when one drug changes the way the body reacts to the other. Such changes can have devastating effects on the patient. Thus OTC medicines must be taken after consulting with a doctor.
Note: - The question seems incomplete and the missing options could be,
"Be easily accessible.Not be used before a prescription medicineBe stored in a safe place where it is not easily accessedBe avoided and only taken with a doctor's recommendationLearn more about over-the-counter medicines here:
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In the dental formula for the adult dog, “2 x (i 3/3, c 1/1, pm 4/4, m 2/3)”, the “2 x” refers to the left and the right side of the mouth.
true or false
It is absolutely very true that the dental formula for the adult dog, is given by: “2 x (i 3/3, c 1/1, pm 4/4, m 2/3)”, the “2 x” refers to the left and the right side of the mouth.
Interestingly, dogs are omnivorous animals, meaning that they feed both plants and animals.
The dental formula for Dog is:
2 x (3142 / 3143) = 42 teeth (6 incisors 2 canine 8 premolars and 4 molar) / (6 incisors 2 canine 8 premolars and 6 molar) = 42 teeth.
What is omnivorous animals?Omnivorous animals are animals that feed on both plants and animals. Examples include: human being, dog, cat, lion, tiger, elephant etc.
So therefore, it is absolutely very true that the dental formula for the adult dog, is given by: “2 x (i 3/3, c 1/1, pm 4/4, m 2/3)”, the “2 x” refers to the left and the right side of the mouth.
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A client is visiting the clinic for an annual well-woman examination. The client reports having had sex with women. Which question will help the nurse determine the client's risk for sexually transmitted infections
Whether used any Condom or not
It was once thought that using condoms with nonoxynol-9 helped to prevent STDs by killing the organisms that can cause disease.
What is Sexually transmitted disease ?Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are infections transmitted from an infected person to an uninfected person through sexual contact.
Antibiotics, often in a single dose, can cure many sexually transmitted bacterial and parasitic infections, including gonorrhea, syphilis, chlamydia and trichomoniasis. Condoms can prevent the spread of other STDs, like HIV or genital herpes, only when the condom covers all of the infected area or sores.Learn more about STD's here:
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What organs work together in the human body or which organs are grouped together?.
A Group of organs working together is called an organ system.
What is an organ system?An organ system is a collection of organs that cooperate to carry out a certain task in the body of an organism. Organs, which are self-contained collections of tissues like the heart that cooperate to carry out a single function, are present in the majority of animals and plants. Mammals, including humans, have a variety of organ systems. The circulatory system, which consists of the heart, arteries, veins, and capillaries, is an illustration of an organ system.
There are 11 distinct organ systems in the human body which are:
IntegumentarySkeletalMuscularCirculatoryRespiratoryDigestiveUrinaryImmuneNervousEndocrineReproductiveLearn more about organ systems here:
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The nurse is caring for a client who has sustained severe burns to 50% of the body. The nurse is aware that fluid shifts during the first week of the acute phase of a burn injury cause massive cell destruction. What should the nurse report if it occurs immediately after burn injury
The nurse should report Hyperkalemia if it occurs immediately after burn injury.
HyperkalemiaPatients with electrical burns have traditionally been thought to develop hyperkalemia as a consequence. The breakdown of red blood cells, rhabdomyolysis, metabolic acidosis, and the onset of renal failure are all contributing factors to hyperkalemia. In this study, the prevalence of hyperkalemia within the first 24 hours following electrical burn injury was examined, as well as any potential relationships between serum potassium concentration and cutaneous burn size (percent TBSA) and serum creatine phosphokinase (CPK) concentration.
First off, hyperkalemia is a rare occurrence in patients who are hospitalized to our burn center with electrical injury along with extensive skin and muscle injuries. Second, whether or not is present is unrelated to the degree of rhabdomyolysis or the size of the burn.
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A hockey player is elbowed in the mouth, and one of his front teeth is dislocated. he has no other ill effects. What can you do to provide the best chance of successfully reimplanted the tooth?
The action that need to be provided as the best chance of successfully replanted the tooth is option A: Rinse the tooth with saline solution, then place it in a tooth saver container.
How do you clean and save your teeth?In all, a person can preserve a tooth and also kill any bacteria on it with the use of applying alcohol or a special disinfectant.
Note that as it is said to be clean, one can save the tooth in an airtight container.
In the case above, The action that need to be provided as the best chance of successfully replanted the tooth is option A: Rinse the tooth with saline solution, then place it in a tooth saver container.
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See full question below
A hockey player is elbowed in the mouth, and one of his front teeth is dislocated. He has no other ill effects. What can you do to provide the best chance of successfully reimplanting the tooth? a. Rinse the tooth with saline solution, then place it in a tooth saver container. b. Wrap the tooth in sterile gauze. C. Rinse the tooth with water, then put it into a container with milk. d. Place the tooth in a container of ice-cold water. e. Call for emergency medical assistance.
Unlike southeast asia, afghanistan's rugged terrain and the martial tradition of its tribes kept it free of?
The rugged terrain and the martial tradition of its tribes, Afghanistan is generally kept it free of invasion.
Where is Afghanistan ?The country called Afghanistan is found in the region of South East Asia. The country is surounded by other countries such as Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Pakistan, Nepal, and Sri Lanka. The country have ben involved in a lot of wars owing to the rise of many armed groups especially the Taliban which have recently ceased power in the country.
The country is filled with a lot of deserts which are rough and dry and accounts for the droughts that occur frequently in the country. There is about seventy five percent of rugged mountainside in Afghanistan.
Given the rugged terrain and the martial tradition of its tribes, Afghanistan is generally kept it free of invasion.
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Missing parts;
Unlike Southeast Asia, Afghanistan's rugged terrain and the martial tradition of its tribes kept it free of ___________.
A) terrorism
B) colonialism
C) invasion
D) opium
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. The client reports a metallic taste in his mouth while eating. Which of the following actions should the nurse take
During radiation therapy, a client who has altered taste should receive few, frequent meals from the nurse. It is appropriate to provide citrus fruits. Citrus fruits increase saliva production, which helps to mask the taste of metal. It is proper to suggest pickles as a snack.
Radiation therapy:High doses of radiation are used in radiation therapy, also known as radiotherapy, as a cancer treatment to eradicate cancer cells and reduce tumor size. As with x-rays of your teeth or shattered bones, radiation is utilized at low doses in x-rays to see inside your body. Patients usually respond favorably to either brachytherapy or external beam radiation in the early stages of the disease. With any strategy, success rates of 90% or greater can be attained.
There are three typical forms of internal radiation therapy:
Implanting radioactive material within the body is known as brachytherapy.In the course of cancer surgery, an exposed tumor is treated with intraoperative radiation therapy (IORT).Surgery is not what stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS) is.Learn more about radiation therapy here:
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The fastest growing segment of the population in the united states is:______.
a) 65-75 year olds.
b) 75-85 year olds.
c) 85 and older.
d) none of the above.
The fastest growing segment of the population in the United states is:85 and older.
c) 85 and older.Which segment of the U.S. population is the fastest growing?The fastest growing segment of the older population is the oldest old — that is, those ages 85 and older. They are projected to total 6 million as early as 2010, twice their 1990 level. Beginning in 2031, when the baby boomers will begin reaching 85, the number of oldest old will increase rapidly.
With this information, we can conclude that The fastest growing segment of the older population is the oldest old — that is, those ages 85 and older.
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A 32-year-old sees her obstetrician about a lump in the lower outer quadrant of the right breast. Her mother and aunt both have a history of breast cancer. What diagnosis code(s) should be reported
Three diagnosis code(s) should be reported-
N63, Z80.3N63 (lump in breast, unspecified)Z80.3 (Family history of malignant neoplasm of breast)What are NEC and NOS considered in the ICD-10-CM code book?
The ICD-IO-CM codebook employs the terms NEC and NOS. Reason: ICD-10-CM recommendation States in I.A. The acronyms NEC and NOS are used. Not Elsewhere Classifiable is referred to as NEC, and Not Otherwise Specified is referred to as NOS.What are NEC and NOS considered?
The initials "NEC" and "NOS" are alphanumeric abbreviations. NEC and NOS stand for "Not Elsewhere Classified" and "Not Otherwise Specified," respectively. Simply put, NEC denotes that although your doctor provided you with a very specific diagnosis, the codes do not go that far.What is the difference between NOS and NEC ?
The Alphabetic Index uses the abbreviation NEC (not elsewhere categorized) to denote conditions for which there is no distinct code. The term "NOS" (not else specified), which is only used in the Tabular List, is identical to "unspecified."Learn more about diagnosis code
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Maria is 75 years old. She is experiencing severe loss of bone tissue. Maria is most likely to be diagnosed with Group of answer choices diabetes.
Maria is most likely to be diagnosed with osteoporosis.
What is osteoporosis?Osteoporosis is a bone disease that mainly affects old people (from beyond 75 years old).
Osteoporosis is characterized by a progressive bone strength loss that may be a serious problem if it is not treated properly.
In conclusion, Maria is diagnosed with osteoporosis.
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A client is prescribed a topical antipruritic cream for multiple bug bites. The client asks the health care practitioner if the cream will stop the pain and itch. How should the health care practitioner respond
The health care practitioner should respond by saying, the medicine contains benzocaine to stop the pain.
It is common practice to administer benzocaine to patients suffering from sunburn or other mild burns, poison ivy, insect bites or stings, poison oak, or poison sumac, minor cuts or scratches, and other disorders that cause pain and irritation.
Benzocaine is a topical local anaesthetic, which is a class of medication that belongs to a larger group. The nerve endings inside the skin become less sensitive as a result. This medicine does not put a patient to sleep in the same way that general anaesthetics do when they are administered during surgery.
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