Topical antibiotics are used.
What are topical antibiotics used for?It is utilized to assist prevent or treat minor skin infections as well as treats minor wounds (such as cuts, scrapes, and burns). Minor skin infections and wounds typically heal without medical intervention, although in certain cases, applying an antibiotic directly to the wound site may hasten healing. These antibiotics function by reducing or preventing bacterial growth.
Working of topical antibiotics:The human body's largest organ, the skin, performs a number of vital tasks. Your skin acts as a barrier to stop harmful microorganisms from penetrating the interior of your body. Due to bacteria's ability to enter an open wound when the skin has been injured, as is the case with a cut or burn, the risk of infection is enhanced. The skin damage's immediate vicinity may then develop a local infection. In addition to difficulties, an untreated skin infection increases the risk of sepsis, an infection that enters the bloodstream.
Locally applied topical antibiotics are used to treat the diseased area so that germs won't develop or spread there.
I understand the question you are looking for is this:
A client with burns develops a wound infection. The nurse plans to teach the client that local wound infections primarily are treated with what type of antibiotics?
1. Oral
2. Topical
3. Intravenous
4. Intramuscular
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quizlet A nurse is taking an admission history from a client who reports Raynaud's disease. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as a parenteral trigger for exacerbation of Raynaud's
A parenteral trigger for exacerbation of Raynaud's syndrome is exposure to cold.
What can cause Raynaud's syndrome?One of the main causes is exposure to cold. Thus, people who live in places with milder temperatures or who are exposed to colder temperatures (washing dishes with cold water or handling ice) may have Raynaud's syndrome.
What does Raynaud syndrome mean?Constriction of the small arteries in the fingers and toes starts quickly and is most often triggered by exposure to cold. The episode can last minutes or hours. The fingers and toes become pale (pallor) or bluish (cyanosis), usually in plaques.
With this information, we can conclude that To prevent attacks of Raynaud's syndrome, you must avoid cooling the body. Dress well in cold weather and spring-autumn seasons.
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which component of cultural competence is being demonstrated when the nurse motivates the immigrant to accept differences in the way a pregnant women is cared for in her current residence
The nurse is using cultural desire as a part of cultural competence. This component is related to motivation and commitment towards the care of an individual.
What is cultural competence?Cultural competence helps the nurse to understand, communicate, and interact with people effectively. More specifically, it centers around:
Understanding the relationship between nurses and patientsAcquiring knowledge of various cultural practices and views of the worldDeveloping communication skills to promote and achieve interaction among culturesEnsuring a positive attitude is displayed toward differences and various culturesCultural competence expects more than just tolerating another’s cultures and practices. Instead, it aims to celebrate them through bridging gaps and personalizing care.
Practicing culturally competent care in nursing means taking a holistic approach that spans across all parts of the world. As a nurse, you should always work to respect the diverse cultures you come across when handling patients. It goes a long way to impact the capability and quality of your work.
What are the components of cultural competence?Culturally competent care consists of five core building blocks.
Cultural knowledge involves searching for information about the culture and beliefs of your patients to better understand and interact with them.Cultural skills involves your ability to collect relevant data and process it to help engage a patient in meaningful cross-cultural interaction.Cultural encounter encourages nurses to venture out of the environment they are conversant with and try new cultures and places. They improve their competence by interacting with people from different backgrounds, cultures, and ethnicities.Cultural desire requires a strong motivation to learn more about other cultures. It is a strong force that involves the ability to be open to new people, to accept and understand cultures that are different from yours, and be willing to learn.Cultural awareness involves examining yourself, dropping prejudices that you have previously formed against foreign cultures, and developing the right attitude toward giving the best health service to all patients and clients.learn more about cultural incompetence- https://brainly.com/question/20222316
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How should agent Erin respond when consumer Mrs. Rose notices that the presented MA Plan has a Star Rating of 2 stars?
Erin must respond when consumer Mrs. Rose realizes that the presented Health Care Plan has a 2 star rating, that even with a low rating it will have many advantages including cost benefit.
What is star scale in MA Plan?Plans are rated on a scale of one to five, with one star representing poor performance and five stars representing excellent performance. Star ratings are released annually and reflect the experiences of people enrolled in Medicare Advantage and Part D prescription drug plans. The Star Ratings system supports CMS' efforts to empower people to make the best health decisions for them.
With this information, we can conclude that that even with a low rating it will have many advantages including cost benefit.
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which response would the nurse provide to the client admitted with severe preeclampsia who anxiously asks the nurse will my baby be all right
The correct response of the nurse to the client would be "We'll be constantly monitoring your baby's condition. I'll let you listen to the baby's heartbeat."
What is preeclampsia?Preeclampsia is defined as a critical pregnancy situation that is characterized by hight blood pressure which usually occurs from 20 weeks of gestation.
The signs and symptoms of Preeclampsia include the following:
Excess protein in urine (proteinuria) or other signs of kidney problems.Decreased levels of platelets in blood (thrombocytopenia)Increased liver enzymes that indicate liver problems.Severe headaches.As a professional nurse and a competent nurse, it is their duty to reassure their patients which is a way to calm down any situation that may cause psychological stress.
It is the work of the Nurse to reassure her client and that anything is being done to monitor the fetus.
You can further prove this by offering to allow the client listen to the heart beat of her baby.
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Patients in an obstetrician’s office include both pregnant women and women with fertility problems. Why is it important to be sensitive to women who are struggling with infertility, as well as women who may have recently had a miscarriage?
The disorder known as infertility affects or limits one's capacity to become pregnant and give birth to a child.
What factors contribute most to infertility?Ovulation problems are frequently the root of infertility (the monthly release of an egg from the ovaries). While some problems prevent the release of an egg entirely, others only do so during certain cycles.
Injury or obstruction to the fallopian tube is commonly caused by inflammation of the tube (salpingitis). This could be the result of a sexually transmitted infection, endometriosis, adhesions, or pelvic inflammatory disease, which are the usual causes of these symptoms. Endometriosis, which happens when endometrial tissue expands outside of the uterus, may have an impact on the ovaries, uterus, and fallopian tubes.
Women in these situations should take the prescribed drugs as directed by their doctor.
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A nurse is caring for a client experiencing nausea, vomiting and anorexia due to chemotherapy treatment. What actions should the nurse take to treat this side effect
The actions which a nurse which is caring for a client experiencing nausea, vomiting and anorexia due to chemotherapy treatment should take to treat this side effect are:
Avoiding smellsAvoid anything that triggers nauseaTaking water in between mealsTaking appropriate medicationsWhat is nausea?Nausea is feeling or a sensation of illness or discomfort in the digestive system, usually characterized by a strong urge to vomit.
Vomiting means to regurgitate or eject the contents of the stomach through the mouth.
Anorexia is the loss of appetite, especially as a result of disease.
So therefore, the actions which a nurse which is caring for a client experiencing nausea, vomiting and anorexia due to chemotherapy treatment should take to treat this side effect are avoiding smells, avoid anything that triggers nausea, taking water in between meals and taking appropriate medications.
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13) when neither anti-a serum nor anti-b serum clot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type ________
When neither anti-A serum nor anti-B serum cause clumping (agglutination) of donor cells, the blood type specified is O.
What is agglutination?
Antibodies or agglutinins for the antigens A and B exsist in the plasma and these are termed anti-A and anti-B. Antigen antibody complexes are formed when the corresponding antigen and antibody are not present, thus effectively agglutinating the blood. in this, few blood drops are mixed with sera that contain anti -sera or antibodies. If the blood doesn't react to any of the anti-A or anti-B serum , then the blood type is O. The blood group O contains both antibodis A and B but contains neither A antigen nor B antigen. Therefore , blood type O is referred to as universal donor.
So, when neither anti-a serum nor anti-b serum clot on a blood plate with donor blood, the blood is type O.
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A client has a warm, moist compress to the lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the nurse recognize as a risk to client safety
The action a nurse recognize as a risk for client safety which have a warm, moist compress to lower extremity is avoiding what would increase the warmness or lower the temperature more
What is client's safety?Client's safety simply refers to ways to prevent and reduce risks, errors and harm that occur to patients during provision of health care.
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To prevent coding errors, always use both the Alphabetic Index (to identify a code) and the ______ (to verify a code).
Describe why it is necessary to understand the difference between inpatient and outpatient coding guidelines.
It is necessary to understand the difference between inpatient and outpatient coding guidelines because both patients have different needs and treatments.
What is the difference between inpatient and outpatient coding guidelines?Outpatient coding is the detailed diagnosis report in which the patient is treated in one visit, while on the other hand, an inpatient coding is a system that is used to report a patient's diagnosis during his duration of stay. So understand the difference between inpatient is very necessary for the nursing staff in order to give the right treatment.
So we can conclude that it is necessary to understand the difference between inpatient and outpatient coding guidelines because both patients have different needs and treatments.
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The employer/employee relationship works both ways brainstorm some responsibilities the chapter did not list for both employer to employee and employee to the employer
The employer has a duty to provide a good working environment in addition to timely payments, and the employee has a duty to comply with the employer's recommendations.
What is the concept of employee and employer?The difference between employee and employer is mainly described as per the legal aspects of the law. While the employee is the one who provides the service, the employer is the company, which assumes the economic and hiring responsibility.
With this information, we can conclude that The relationship between employee and employer must have mutual respect, respect for the dignity of the employee, as well as the employee must have a posture of a true leader, having this authority and knowing how to impose his authority without being authoritarian.
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A patient is suffering from a condition requiring multiple blood transfusions. They have type A blood and their first transfusion was perfectly successful. However, their second transfusion of type A blood causes them to become very ill and observation of their blood reveals agglutination. What has happened to cause their second transfusion to fail
The blood used in the first transfusion contained Rh antigens, which caused the patient to produce anti-Rh antibodies and attack the blood from the second transfusion causing agglutination.
what is agglutination and why does it occur ?
A clumping of particles is called agglutination.
the clustering of cells, like bacteria or red blood cells, when an antibody or complement is involved. An extensive complex formed when an antibody or other molecule binds several particles and binds them altogether. Due to its ability to phagocytose large clusters of bacteria increase the effectiveness of microbial elimination through phagocytosis.
When the incorrect blood group is transfused into a person, the antibodies react with the transfused blood group, that causes the erythrocytes to clump and cling to one another, causing them to agglutinate.
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A person consuming 2200 kcal/day who wants to meet AMDR recommendations should limit daily fat intake to:
For a person consuming 2200 kcal/day to meet the AMDR for fat intake, he/she must limit daily fat intake to 440-770 kcal/day (AMDR for fat intake is 20-35% of total kcal).
What is AMDR?The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) expresses dietary recommendations in the context of a complete diet.It recommends the range of intake of a macronutrient.This provides simple targets to people for consuming carbs, fat and protein in amounts that generally support good health while making meal planning easier for certain people. A diet with this distribution of protein, fat, and carbohydrates may be helpful for prevention of diseases like heart disease, type 2 diabetes, etc.AMDR for fat intake is 20-35% of total energy intake (kcal)For a person consuming 2200 kcal/day,
20% of 2200= 440 and 35% of 2200= 770;
i.e. 440- 770 kcal/day.
AMDR for carbohydrate intake is 45-65% of total energy intake (kcal)AMDR for proteins intake is 10-35% of total energy intake (kcal)Learn more about AMDR here:
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Mrs. Jones has called for an appointment. She is a new patient. How will you verify her insurance benefits?
Some of the different ways to verify the insurance benefits of a patient are:
Look through the insurance verification checklistLook through Mrs.Jones's insurance cardConfirm the detailsWhat are Insurance Benefits?This refers to the different things that an insured person enjoys when a clause is activated in his insurance and this can be in the form of discounts, etc.
Hence, we can see that based on the fact that Mrs. Jones is a patient that claims to have medical insurance, you would need to verify her claim and this can be done using the aforementioned tips.
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What is management in public health?
Answer:
Explanation:La gestión de la salud pública es un conjunto de procesos que, bajo la dirección y liderazgo de la autoridad sanitaria, buscan que todos los actores del Sistema de Salud logren resultados en salud, mediante el desarrollo e implementación efectiva y eficiente de las políticas, planes, programas
A temporary permit to practice nursing issued to a graduate of a board-approved nursing educational program
A temporary permit to practice nursing issued to a graduate of a board-approved nursing educational program is denied based on a licensure candidate's criminal history.
What about nursing license?After deciding that an applicant has obtained the competency required to conduct a certain scope of practice, nursing boards issue approval for the applicant to engage in nursing practice through the licensing procedure.According to the new regulations, temporary practice licenses may be granted to competent candidates who have undergone a background check on a nationwide level. They need to fulfill all other licensing standards, have a valid license in another state without any restrictions, and have no prior criminal convictions in Washington.Must earn a postgraduate diploma in nursing or a nursing undergraduate degree to become a nurse.Despite the fact that there are other ways to enroll in a course, this is a necessity.It cannot become a nurse without one of those qualifications.Learn more about nursing license here:
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A client is being treated with Casodex, an oral antiandrogen, for prostate cancer. How should the client be advised
An oral antiandrogen called Casodex is being used to treat prostate cancer in a client. Even if the client's sickness symptoms go better, they should still be reminded to take their medication.
A medication that prevents the body's response to androgens (male hormones) is called antiandrogen. The term "antiandrogens" refers to substances that prevent the production of testosterone, obstruct androgen receptors (androgen-receptor antagonists), or prevent the conversion of testosterone to its more active form, dihydrotestosterone. Casodex is an antiandrogen that is used in the treatment of prostate cancer. The patient should not stop its consumption till the doctor advises to do that even if the symptoms go better as it increases the chances of reoccurrence of cancer.
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The nurse conducts telephone screenings with several clients who are scheduled for CT scan of the abdomen with oral contrast. The nurse should notify the health care provider about which client before the CT scan is performed
The nurse should notify the health care provider about Client with a history of stroke who has dysphagia and is drooling.
Why is an oral contrast performed?Oral contrast increases the visibility and helps in detailed analysis of the Gastrointestinal (GI) structures on CT scan.Computed Tomography (CT) scan is a test that combines X-rays and computer scans.Oral contrast helps to opacify the bowel and helps to get better images of the abdomen for diagnosis. It makes specific organs to stand out (GI tract) thus for better detection of a disease or an injury.Commonly used contrast agents in CT imaging are based on barium and iodine.Therefore, the nurse should check first if a patient has iodine allergy.Also the nurse should check if any patient has difficulty in swallowing the contrast or his own drool (Dysphagia) as it can be the symptom of a stroke.Learn more about CT scan here:
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The nurse prepares to administer the inactivated polio vaccine to a 4 month old infant. Which assessment finding does the nurse delay administering the vaccine
The assessment finding which delays the nurse in administering the vaccine is allergy.
What is Allergy?This is referred to the abnormal manner the immune system of an individual reacts to a medication.
The allergies of polio vaccine, although rare include weakness, pain etc which is why allergy test must be done.
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A blood-borne pathogen training class might
include.
A bloodborne pathogen training class might include Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis B virus (HBV), and hepatitis C virus (HCV) they are the most common bloodborne pathogens from which health care workers are at risk
The nurse is assisting with a presentation on protecting clients' privacy and confidentiality. Which of the following incidents does the nurse recognize as a violation of client confidentiality
An oncology nurse reviews the electronic health record of a client in the emergency department who was the victim of a recent mass shooting event, The licensed practical nurse (LPN) leaves the client's report sheet in the cafeteria after lunch and The UAP tells a client that the hospital roommate will return to the room after receiving hemodialysis.
What is oncology?A physician who treats cancer and offers medical attention to someone who has been diagnosed with cancer is known as an oncologist. A cancer specialist is another name for an oncologist. Medical oncology, radiation oncology, and surgical oncology are the three main subfields that make up the oncology sector in terms of treatments.Cancer is studied in oncology. Confirming a patient's initial diagnosis is one of the many procedures that oncologists specialize in performing in order to manage and treat patients throughout the course of the disease.A malignancy must first be diagnosed by an oncologist, who typically uses a biopsy, endoscopy, X-ray, CT scan, MRI, PET scan, ultrasound, or other radiological techniques. Blood tests, tumor markers, and nuclear medicine can all be used to diagnose cancer.Question: The nurse is assisting with a presentation on protecting clients' privacy and confidentiality. Which of the following incidents does the nurse recognize as a violation of client confidentiality? Select all that apply.
1. A family member informs the registered nurse that the client has not been taking the prescribed metformin at home.
2. An oncology nurse reviews the electronic health record of a client in the emergency department who was the victim of a recent mass shooting event.
3. The licensed practical nurse (LPN) leaves the client's report sheet in the cafeteria after lunch.
4. The LPN tells the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is pregnant to not enter the room of a client with toxoplasmosis.
5. The UAP tells a client that the hospital roommate will return to the room after receiving hemodialysis.
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Disclaimer: The question given in the portal is incomplete. Here the complete question.
A nurse is reviewing the medical records of several patients who have had their intraocular pressure (IOP) measured:
The patient the nurse would identify as having an increased IOP suggesting glaucoma is patient D with an Increased IOP greater than 24 mmHg.
What is intraocular pressure?This is known as the fluid pressure of the eye. This is the amount of force the internal fluid is applying inside of the eye.
As pressure is a measure of force per area, IOP is a measurement involving the magnitude of the force exerted by the aqueous humour on the internal surface area of the anterior eye.
Hence, a high IOP greater than 24mmHg in a patient suggests glaucoma, therefore, the correct answer is option D.
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The complete question
A nurse is reviewing the medical records of several patients who have had their intraocular pressure (IOP) measured:
Patient A: IOP 12 mm Hg
Patient B: IOP 15 mm Hg
Patient C: IOP 21 mm Hg
Patient D: IOP 24 mm Hg
Which patient would the nurse identify as having increased IOP suggesting glaucoma?
When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember
It is important to remember the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.
How is the primary assessment done?
Start your clinical evaluation of the patient as you approach. To aid in your assessment and the creation of a treatment plan, keep an eye out for important clinical markers. A crucial aspect of this assessment is identifying the mechanism of injury (MOI) or the nature of the illness (NOI).
Take into account the following instances when determining the MOI for trauma patients:
Environmental circumstancesVehicle damage and speedType of firearm, surface, and height of fallTake into account the following instances when determining the NOI for medical patients:
The presence of prescription drug and alcohol bottlesData from onlookers, family, and caregivers' environmental factorsYou might be able to forecast injury and disease patterns and severity using each of these factors.
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A nurse is providing community teaching regarding prevention of HIV transmission. Identify two (2) points the nurse will share with the client.
Nurse will share points such as:
Using latex condoms to stop the spread of the diseaseUsing prescription medication as directed to lower the chance of transmissionWhat are the causes of HIV and how can it be prevented?The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is the primary cause of the chronic, potentially fatal illness known as acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). HIV interferes with your body's capacity to fight disease and infection by weakening your immune system.
HIV is a sexually transmitted disease/infection (STI). Additionally, it can be transferred through sharing needles, injecting illegal substances, and coming into touch with infected blood. Additionally, it can be passed from mother to kid while she is pregnant, giving birth, or nursing. Without treatment, it can take years for HIV to progressively impair your immune system to the point where you develop AIDS.
HIV/AIDS has no known cure, however drugs help manage the infection and prevent the disease's progression.
Prevention of HIV are:
You can employ techniques like abstinence, never sharing needles, and consistently using condoms as directed. Additionally, you might be able to benefit from HIV preventive treatments including pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) and post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP).
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A child is recovering from a bout with group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus infection. The child returns to the clinic a week later complaining of decrease in urine output with puffiness and edema noted in the face and hands. The health care provider suspects the child has developed:
The health care provider suspects the child has developed: Acute post infectious glomerulonephritis.
Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN) shows symptoms like infection of the skin or throat and caused by nephritogenic strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococci. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (GN) is a kidney disease that occurs after infection with certain strains of streptococcal bacteria. The kidneys are responsible for removing waste from the body, regulating electrolyte balance and blood pressure, and stimulating the production of red blood cells. A child is recovering from a bout with group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus infection. The child returns to the clinic a week later complaining of decrease in urine output with puffiness and edema noted in the face and hands. So these are the symptoms of Acute post infectious glomerulonephritis.
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Fluorouracil vs gemcitabine chemotherapy before and after fluorouracilbased chemoradiation following resection of pancreatic adenocarcinoma. A randomized controlled trial. J
Gemcitabine has been demonstrated to enhance outcomes in patients with locally advanced metastatic pancreatic cancer when compared to fluorouracil.
The goal of this study is to see if adding gemcitabine to adjuvant fluorouracil chemoradiation (chemotherapy with radiation) improves survival in patients with resected pancreatic adenocarcinoma. Patients with full gross total resection of pancreatic adenocarcinoma with no previous radiation or chemotherapy were included in a randomized controlled phase 3 study at 164 US and Canadian institutions between July 1998 and July 2002, with follow-up until August 18, 2006. Fluorouracil (continuous infusion of 250 mg/m2 per day; n = 230) or gemcitabine (30-minute infusion of 1000 mg/m2 once per week; n = 221) chemotherapy for 3 weeks before to and 12 weeks following chemoradiation treatment.
The addition of gemcitabine to adjuvant fluorouracil-based chemoradiation was related with improved survival in patients with resected pancreatic cancer, albeit this advantage was not statistically significant.
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An important skill for a physical activity specialist, __________, or allied health rehabilitative specialist is to be able to choose the relevant mechanical principles that apply to the movement of interest or to a phenomenon occurring inside the body.
An important skill for a physical activity specialist, Biomechanist, or allied health rehabilitative specialist is to be able to choose the relevant mechanical principles that apply to the movement of interest or to a phenomenon occurring inside the body.
Rehabilitation is a recovery process in the health care sector that provides recovery to the patient physically, psychology, and socially. The rehabilitation services are provided by health care professionals like physiotherapists, optometrists, psychologists, dieticians, audiologists, etc., Biomechanists study the proper movement of the body after physical therapy. It recovers the patient quickly from the injury and increases performance.
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A nurse is caring for a client who needs a stool test for guaiac. The nurse understands the purpose of the test is to check the stool for
When performing a head-to-toe assessment, the nurse has difficulty hearing the client's heart sounds. What should the nurse do to better auscultate the S1 and S2 heart sounds
The patient should sit up for back auscultation and then lean forward to allow auscultation of aortic and pulmonary diastolic murmurs or pericardial rub.
What are the S1 and S2 heart sounds?They are divided into systolic and diastolic children. In most cases, only the first (S1) and second (S2) heart sounds are heard. They are children of high frequency and celebrate the mitral and triple characteristics.
With this information, we can conclude that s1 and s2 are the first (S1) and second (S2) heart sounds are heard
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Which reason is appropriate to take a child that underwent a submersion injury immediately to the hospital
A child who underwent submersion injury needs to be taken to a hospital because the child can suffer from hypoxia, damage to neurons, pulmonary edema, further complications, etc.
Submersion Injury
Submersion injury occurs when the person who is submerged in a liquid aspirates the liquid or has laryngospasm that occurs without the aspiration of the liquid. The former was previously called wet drowning and the latter was called dry drowning. The person must be removed from the liquid as fast as possible and 1st aid must be given after which the person must be taken to the hospital for further treatment.
A child who underwent submersion injury needs to be admitted to a hospital as various complications such as edema, respiratory compromise, hypoxia, etc. Hypoxia can lead to severe damage to various cells including neurons and other cells in the body. Submersion injury also results in the reflex inspiration that can lead to pulmonary edema.
Note: - The question seems incomplete and the missing options could be
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