Answer:
"Hold the crutches on your unaffected side when preparing to sit in a chair."
Explanation:
When getting ready to recline in a chair, hold the crutches in your unaffected side. Option C is appropriate because the nurse will give this guidance when a client utilizes axillary crutches for the first time.
What are axillary crutches?A patient with a lag injury is given axillary crutches, which shift weight from the legs to the arms and shoulders without tiring the user out.
The customer using axillary crutches needs to remember the following:
Justification: When getting ready to recline in a chair, the crutches must be held on the side that is not affected.
False justification: To help with balance, the crutches should be held 6 inches in front of and to the side of each foot and should be made so that the client's arms are flexed at the elbows by about 30 degrees when holding onto hand grips.
As a result, when getting ready to recline in a chair, the client should hold the crutches on their unaffected side, hence option C is correct.
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The given question is incomplete, so the most probable complete question is,
A nurse in an emergency department is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a knee injury and will be using a pair of axillary crutches for the first time. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. "Lean on the crutches to support your body weight when standing."
B. "Fully extend your arms when holding onto the hand grips."
C. "Hold the crutches on your unaffected side when preparing to sit in a chair."
D. "Hold the crutches 9 inches in front of and to the side of each foot."
A patient with persistent, frequent asthma exacerbations asks a nurse about a long-acting beta2-agonist medication. What will the nurse tell this patient
A nurse is questioned about a long-acting beta2-agonist drug by a patient who experiences persistent, recurrent asthma exacerbations. As prophylactic, the glucocorticoid is used to stop exacerbations.
Asthma is a chronic respiratory disease that affects a lot of people. In wealthy nations, it is viewed as a major cause of morbidity and a major contributor to the high cost of healthcare. The two main pathogenic characteristics of asthmatics' airways are inflammation and hyperresponsiveness. Treatment for asthma should be intensified gradually in order to regulate the condition, both for symptom relief and to avoid exacerbations. This methodical approach, which begins with low dose inhaled corticosteroids and progresses, if necessary, to inhaled corticosteroids combined with long-acting -agonists, will control the majority of instances of asthma.learn more about asthma here: https://brainly.com/question/17481521
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The nurse is providing care for a newborn who is prescribed ampicillin in the treatment of meningitis. The newborn’s current weight is 8 lbs. The hospital formulary recommends a dose range of 200–400 mg/kg/day. The NNP prescribes 240 mg for the newborn for administration every 4 hours.
The dosage of ampicillin that would be given to the newborn who was prescribed ampicillin is = 3,744mg.
Calculation of drug dosageDrug calculation is an important procedure during the administration of drugs to patients.
This procedure usually carried out by the health personnel that is taking care of the patient to avoid miscalculation.
The correct dosage of drug is usually calculated from the patient age, weight and duration for taking of the drugs.
The weight of the newborn is = 8 lbs.
Convert 8 lbs to kilogramme = 8/2.205= 3.6kg
The dose prescribed by the NNP = 240mg
But 240 mg is within the range given by hospital formulary recommended dose range.
1 kg = 240mg
3.6 kg = xmg
make xmg the subject of formula,
xmg = 2.6×240/1
xmg= 624mg
This is to be given every 4 hours in a day, which is 24/4 = 6 times daily.
Therefore the dosage of ampicillin that the newborn will take for the day = 624 × 6
= 3,744mg.
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which is the most important prerequisite for measuring health care quality delivered in the hospital
The most important prerequisite for assessing the quality of health care delivery system is to collect the medical records of the patients admitted and discharged from the hospital.
Change it up a bit <3
Collect the medical records , admit and discharge the patient from the hospital is the most important prerequisite for assessing the quality of health care.
What is the role of health care system ?Health care system includes doctors, nurses, therapists, medical administrators, and other staff members who serves different responsibilities.
The role of doctors to provide medical treatment by analyzing the medical conditions.
Nurses assist the doctors during treatment of patients in order to ensure a smooth recovery.
The administrative staff fulfill the duties such as maintain the tracks of all medical appointments, other financial records etc.
A physician assistant provides support to physicians, doctors, and other medical experts for management.
Health Counselors have an important role as they deal with patient's emotional trauma or mental illnesses.
Personal assistants in health care system serves an important role as they provide direct patient care by working in different roles.
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A/an ____________________ is a small, raised, red lesion that is less than 1/2 centimeter in diameter.
A vesicle is a small, raised, red lesion that is less than 1/2 centimeter in diameter.
What is a vesicle?A vesicle is defined as the cells structure that is surrounded by membrane which is released by most cells due to inflammation or pathological conditions.
The characteristics of vesicles include the following:
The size is usually less than 1/2 centimeter in diameter.They contain specific set of proteins, lipids and nucleic acids due to an on going inflammation or infection.The treatment of vesicles depends on the cause or its origin which may be due to the following:
Insect bites,dermatitisBurns, andTrauma to the skin.Learn more about vesicles here:
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When patients receive a copy of an organization's privacy notice, why are they asked to sign an acknowledgment
When patients receive a copy of an organization's privacy notice, they are asked to sign an acknowledgment because it shows they received it.
When and how can I receive a Notice of Privacy Practices?
Normally, you'll be informed at your first appointment. You should be notified of an emergency as soon as possible after it occurs. A copy of the notification must also be given to anyone who requests one, and it must be displayed in a visible place where patients can view it. An organization must publish the notification on its website if it has one.
You must receive a notice from a health plan during enrolling. It must also remind you that you can request the notification at any time at least once every three years. The "named insured" may receive the notice from a health plan (subscriber for coverage). Additionally, spouses and dependents do not need to get separate notices.
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A patient with a history of daily alcohol abuse was hospitalized at 0200 today. When would the nurse expect withdrawal symptoms to peak
Nurse waits for withdrawal symptoms to peak For people with mild or moderate alcoholism, detox usually begins eight hours after the last drink and lasts between five and seven days. For those with severe alcoholism, withdrawal symptoms may not subside for two weeks or more.
What can alcohol withdrawal cause?In severe alcohol withdrawal, the patient may have even more symptoms, which include:
very high blood pressurefeverbreathing difficultiesextreme agitationconvulsions and hallucinations.What is Alcoholic Hallucinosis?Alcoholic hallucinosis (hallucinations without other impairment of consciousness) follows the abrupt cessation of prolonged and excessive alcohol use, often within 12 to 24 hours. Hallucinations are usually visual.
With this information, we can conclude that Alcohol misuse refers to single episodes during which you might drink excessively. When this occurs repeatedly over time.
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The nurse notes the listed assessment findings in a newborn. Which finding correlates with a glucose level for a newborn is 39 mg/dl (2.16 mmol/l).
Because the glucose level of the infant or baby described is lower than the normal level, following are likely to be observed:
Depression of brain functionOverstimulation of brain functionExcessive sweating.What is normal glucose level for a newborn?Typically, the concentration of glucose in newborn babies' blood ranges from 2.5 mmol/l (45 mg/dl) to 7.0 mmol/l (126 mg/dl).
The condition of glucose deficiency is called Hypoglycemia. This can be prevented by:
Feeding the infants as soon as they are delivered;Ensure that their glucose levels are monitored;For babies at risk, glucose testing should be done 30 minutes after the first meal; andSupplements at a young age for infants who have eating issues.What are the common causes of hypoglycemia in new born?PrematuritySmall for gestational ageMaternal hyperglycemia, and Perinatal asphyxia are risk factors that can predispose an infant to hypoglycemia.It is also important to note that:
Delay in meals.Inadequate glycogen storage and hyperinsulinemia, are the most frequent causes.Other symptoms are:
TachycardiaCyanosisConvulsions, and Apnea.Learn more about glucose level at;
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Health and fitness programs increasingly draw from a more holistic, multidimensional model beyond physical fitness referred to as _________.
Health and fitness programs increasingly draw from a more holistic, multidimensional model beyond physical fitness referred to as wellness.
There are six dimensions physical, emotional, mental, social, spiritual and environment together constitute a multidimensional model of wellness. It is holistic as it refers to the wellness of an individual in every area of his life. Wellness means to change lifestyles and live life to the fullest.
Physical by nurturing your body, emotionally by appreciating and understanding your feelings, building healthy relationships socially, strong beliefs and values spiritually, and connecting with nature for good health.
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One of the most effective strategies for resisting drugs is simply to?
One of the most effective strategies for resisting drugs is simply to avoid situations where drugs and drug users will be present.
What is drug resistance?Drug resistance can simply be defined as the reduction in effectiveness of a medication such as an antimicrobial or an antineoplastic in treating a particulat disease or condition at a given period of time.
Drugs are substances used to treat an illness, relieve a symptom, or modify a chemical process in the body for a specific purpose.
So therefore, one of the most effective and simplest strategies for resisting drugs is simply to avoid situations where drugs and drug users will be present.
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Which nutrient should all women of childbearing age consume in adequate amounts to reduce the risk of birth defects
All women of childbearing age should consume folic acid in adequate amounts to reduce the risk of birth defects.
Folic acid should be taken in adequate amounts along with food during childbearing age. Folic acid helps in the prevention of some major neural tube defects of the baby, mainly those defects of the baby's spine or brain.
Anencephaly can be caused in which the formation of baby's skull and brain does not take place correctly. Spina bifida is also a serious birth defect in which the formation of the spine does not occur correctly.
Women of childbearing age should consume 400 micrograms of folic acid each day in order to remain healthy and thereby reduce the risk of birth defects.
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If two drugs are taken together and the effect equals the sum of the individual drug's’ actions, what type of drug interaction has occurred?
Answer:
synergism refers to the effect caused when exposure to two or more chemicals at one time results in health effects that are greater than the sum of the effects of the individual chemicals.
Dr. K's sister asks her to prescribe antibiotics to her minor child. Dr. K does not believe that antibiotics are indicated, but her sister is insistent so Dr. K writes the prescription. Is this a violation of the Medical Practice Act or Board rules
This is typical violation of the Medical Practice Act.
What is Medical Practice Act?Medical Practice Act is are rules and regulations that are governing and monitoring the practice of medicine in a particular state or country.
The are different types of medical practices that is being governed by this act and they Include:
Private PracticeGroup practiceLarge HMOHospital Based andLocum.The prescription of drugs should not depend on what the patient wants but on what would actually cure the health needs of that patient.
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a nurse is preparing to administer a unit of fresh frozen plasma, which of the following actions hsould the nurse plan to take prior to the transsusion
The plan by the nurse will be to thaw it in a water bath at 30 to 37 Celsius over 20 to 30 minutes.
What is Plasma?This is referred to the liquid part of the blood which contains blood clotting cells.
It is best to administer fresh frozen plasma immediately after thawing for best results.
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In a routine examination, some blood is taken and analyzed. The results show a high IgM titer for the mumps virus but a low IgG anti-mumps titer. This would indicate the person Group of answer choices has just recovered from mumps. is allergic to mumps. is immune to mumps. was recently infected with mumps.
In a routine examination, some blood is taken and analyzed. The results show a high IgM titer for the mumps virus but a low IgG anti-mumps titer. This would indicate the person was recently infected with mumps.
This is the most common antibody. It is in the blood and other body fluids and protects against bacterial and viral infections. It may take time for IgG to form after infection or immunization. The presence of detectable IgG class antibodies indicates previous exposure to mumps virus through infection or immunization. Individuals who test positive are considered immune to the mumps virus. People with a history of mumps vaccination may not have detectable mumps IgM antibodies regardless of the timing of sample collection. IgG test results are usually positive and elevated at the initial blood draw.
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Shoulder and cervical symptoms can be sometimes difficult to distinguish. Question 1 options: True False
It is a true statement that Shoulder and cervical symptoms can be sometimes difficult to distinguish.
What is a shoulder pain?In most cases, a patient could feel a sharp pain around the shoulder and this pain may be connected to a disorder around the cervix because a muscle runs through the both areas.
Thus, it is a true statement that Shoulder and cervical symptoms can be sometimes difficult to distinguish.
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Effectiveness of antiplatelet drugs for the prevention of diabetic nephropathy: A meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials
Diabetic neuropathy is a chronic condition which can be developed by type 1 and type 2 diabetes patients. Its type of nerve damage is caused by long-term exposure to high blood glucose levels.
The common symptoms of diabetic neuropathy include numbness or pain in the feet, nausea, indigestion, vomiting, difficulty in coordination while walking, dizziness and inability to sense low blood sugar.
There are four different types of diabetic neuropathy, they are peripheral neuropathy, autonomic neuropathy, proximal neuropathy and focal neuropathy.
Another reason for the progression of this condition is slow blood circulation which can be rectified by anti-platelet drugs. For instance, aspirin is a commonly prescribed drug.
Disclaimer: The question is incomplete.
'Effectiveness of antiplatelet drugs for the prevention of diabetic nephropathy' explain with a meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials.
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The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with acute pericarditis. Which assessment finding would cause the nurse to immediately contact the health care provider
Jugular venous distention (JVD) to jaw level would cause the nurse to immediately contact the health care provider for a client diagnosed with acute pericarditis.
The fluid-filled bag surrounding your heart becomes inflamed when you have acute pericarditis, a painful illness. Infections, cancer, or cardiac surgery can all cause this. It normally doesn't pose a threat on its own, but it exhibits heart attack-like symptoms.The JVD suggests that the patient may have experienced cardiac tamponade and may require quick care to keep their cardiac output at a healthy level. The problems of pericarditis would not be associated with hypertension, and the patient's blood pressure is not high enough to warrant contacting a medical professional right away. 8 mm Hg of pulsus paradoxus is considered typical. Level 6–10 chest pain that requires medical attention yet is common in cases of pericarditis.DISCLAIMER
Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse when assessing a patient with acute pericarditis should be reported immediately to the health care provider?
a. Pulsus paradoxus 8 mm Hg
b. Blood pressure (BP) of 168/94
c. Jugular venous distention (JVD) to jaw level
d. Level 6 (0 to 10 scale) chest pain with a deep breath
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When teaching diaphragmatic breathing to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which information should the nurse provide
The stomach, abdominal muscles, and diaphragm are all fully engaged during "belly breathing," also known as diaphragmatic breathing. This entails actively drawing the diaphragm downward with each inhalation. Diaphragmatic breathing facilitates more effective lung filling in this way.
What is the goal of diaphragmatic breathing?The goal of diaphragmatic breathing is to assist you in properly using your diaphragm while breathing. Your body will get various advantages from using this breathing technique, including decreased blood pressure, a slower heartbeat, and increased relaxation.
What information should nurse provide about diaphragmatic breathing?Nurse should provide following information:
Lie on your back with your knees bent and your head propped up. Place a pillow under your knees, to support your legs.Put one hand right below your ribs and the other on your upper chest. This will enable you to sense the movement of your diaphragm during breathing.Slowly inhale through your nose to cause your stomach to expel, which will raise your hand. Keep the hand on your chest as still as you can.As you exhale through pursed lips, tighten your stomach muscles so that your stomach moves in and your hand falls. Keep the hand on your upper chest as still as you can.learn more about diaphragmatic breathing- https://brainly.com/question/8946243
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Which possible outcome would be a major disadvantage of any pain relief method that also affects awareness of the mother
The possible outcome would be a major disadvantage of any pain relief method that also affects awareness of the mother is that the mother may have difficulty working effectively with contractions.
Epidural :
The epidural is one of the most efficient ways to relieve pain during childbirth and delivery, and it has little side effects on both the mother and the newborn. During lengthy surgical operations, such as a C-section delivery, or while recovering from specific treatments, an epidural can offer continuous pain relief.
Some of the disadvantage of using pain relief :
The blood pressure may drop suddenly after receiving an epidural. Shivering, fever, or itching are a few adverse symptoms that some women report. One can experience nausea or vertigo after having the epidural removed, along with back pain and soreness where the needle was inserted. With an epidural, some women report having more trouble giving birth. The likelihood of requiring interventions like forceps, drugs, or a C-section may rise significantly.Learn more about childbirth here :
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Physical fitness: is the ability of the body to adjust to the demands of physical effort limits the amount of physical activity that can be performed is thought to be a measure of one's physical health
All the given options are correct about physical fitness. So the answer is option d.
Physical fitness is the ability of the body to work efficiently through properly coordinating all organ systems and performing routine activities with less effort.
a) Is the ability of the body to adjust to the demands of physical effort is a true statement because physical fitness provides the physical and muscular strength that allows the person to adjust to the demands of physical effort required for various activities.
b) limits the amount of physical activity that can be performed is also a true statement because a person can perform physical activities that are allowed by their level of physical fitness.
c) is thought to be a measure of one's physical health is a true statement because a person cannot be considered physically healthy if he/she is not physically fit.
Hence, all the options are correct.
Note: Your question is incomplete, but most probably your complete question is "Which of the option is correct about physical fitness:
a) is the ability of the body to adjust to the demands of physical effort
b) limits the amount of physical activity that can be performed
c) is thought to be a measure of one's physical health
d) all of the above "
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Answer:
All the given options are correct about physical fitness. So the answer is option d.
Physical fitness is the ability of the body to work efficiently through properly coordinating all organ systems and performing routine activities with less effort.
a) Is the ability of the body to adjust to the demands of physical effort is a true statement because physical fitness provides the physical and muscular strength that allows the person to adjust to the demands of physical effort required for various activities.
b) limits the amount of physical activity that can be performed is also a true statement because a person can perform physical activities that are allowed by their level of physical fitness.
c) is thought to be a measure of one's physical health is a true statement because a person cannot be considered physically healthy if he/she is not physically fit.
Hence, all the options are correct.
Note: Your question is incomplete, but most probably your complete question is "Which of the option is correct about physical fitness:
a) is the ability of the body to adjust to the demands of physical effort
b) limits the amount of physical activity that can be performed
c) is thought to be a measure of one's physical health
d) all of the above "
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Schulte MT, Hser Y-I. Substance Use and Associated Health Conditions throughout the Lifespan. Public Health Rev. 2014;35(2).
Substance use disorder is a serious health condition
What is substance use disorder?To improve general health and well-being, age-appropriate methods to address substance use disorders (SUDs) and related health issues must take into account a person's stage of life. Adolescence, maturity, and elder adulthood were the three main life phases examined in the current assessment of the literature.
Continual, heavy drug and/or alcohol use causes a number of grave health issues. To successfully affect overall health, SUDs must be addressed from a life stage perspective with assessment and treatment techniques embracing co-occurring disorders.
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The clinic nurse gathers data from the parent of an adolescent client with suspected bulimia nervosa. Which of the following communications by the parent support this diagnosis
The following communications by the parent which support this diagnosis of is suspected bulimia nervosa include the following:
“My child ate a large container of chocolate ice cream in one evening.”“My child frequently leaves the table during meals to go to the bathroom".“The dentist informed me that my child’s tooth enamel is wearing away".What is Bulimia nervosa?This is referred to an eating disorder which is characterized by acts of binging. This usually leads to weight gain as a result of the intake of a high number of calories by affected individuals.
The individual will most likely eat a lot of junk foods or snacks such as chocolate etc which is why the options above are the most appropriate choices for its diagnosis in this type of scenario.
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An acidic urinary ph significantly increases the risk for what type of urinary stone formation?
The acidic urinary pH increases the formation of uric acid or cysteine crystals. Therefore, kidney stones are very much influenced by urinary pH. More acidic urine and a higher frequency of uric acid stones have been associated with patients with inadequate ammonium excretion of metabolic syndrome.
Kidney stone disease results from deficiencies in urinary acidification, which result in the excretion of improperly alkaline or acidic urines, respectively. Patients with uncommon mendelian kidney stone variants have mutations in several enzymes, transporters, receptors, or channels. Numerous of these alterations either result in an increase in the excretion of chemicals that can crystallise or stone, a change in the composition of the urine that promotes crystal formation, or both.
Kidney stones can occur as a result of a variety of variables
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/comparison-of-the-effectiveness-of-proprioceptive-neuromuscular-facilitation-exercises-and-shoulder-mobilization-patients-with-subacromial-impingement-syndrome-a-randomized-clinical-trial
The study compared the effects on Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (PNF) activities with shoulder mobilization (SM) in addition to traditional physiotherapy on patients with Subacromial Impingement Syndrome's discomfort, range of motion (ROM), functioning, and muscle strength (SIS).
What is Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation (PNF)?You can increase your range of motion by using the stretching technique known as proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF). After an accident or surgery, PNF is frequently used by therapists to assist patients restore their range of motion. Athletes and dancers can also utilize it to increase their flexibility.
Methods for doing this are-
In three groups of forty-four patients each, traditional physiotherapy (control group; n = 14), traditional physiotherapy plus PNF activities (PNF group; n = 15), plus conventional physiotherapy plus SM procedures (SM group; n = 15), conventional physiotherapy was randomly assigned to. The VAS (Visual Analog Scale), goniometer, push-pull dynamometer, Steady score, and DASH (Disabilities of the Arm, Shoulder, and Hand) score were used to assess pain, range of motion (ROM), muscular strength, and functionality. 20 sessions (four weeks) of therapy were provided to the patients. At the baseline, weeks 2, four, and sixteen, assessments were made.Therefore, patients with SIS may benefit better from PNF or SM in addition to traditional physiotherapy in terms of pain relief and functional improvement.
To sustain the ROM increase obtained with SIS therapy after treatment, it is advised to add SM and PNF to traditional treatment. This treatment should also be used for 4 weeks to build muscular strength.
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The correct question is-
Comparison of the effectiveness of proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation exercises and shoulder mobilization patients with Subacromial Impingement Syndrome: A randomized clinical trial.
Typical side effects of chemotherapy include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Anorexia B. Alopecia C. Stomatitis D. Increased salivation
Answer:
Explanation:
I think so it might be I think so it might be fr
Increased salivation is not a side effect of chemotherapy.
Cancer is a disease caused by the uncontrolled differentiation of the normal cells. To kill the fast growth of the normal cells use of multiple drugs treatment called Chemotherapy is done. This treatment is a primary treatment done to treat cancer patients. Chemotherapy treatment shrinks the cancerous cells so that they can be easily removed by radiation or surgery. This treatment apart from curing the disease also shows side effects like -
Sudden weight loss is known as Anorexia.Hair loss is known as Alopecia.Swelling of the mouth is known as Stomatitis.Learn more about Cancer here,
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The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports being splashed in the eye while emptying urine from the catheter bag of a client with AIDS. The UAP is afraid of becoming infected with HIV and requests immediate testing. What is the nurse's priority action
Direct UAP to eyewash station, flush eyes
Any task nurses assign must be capable of being completed and be licenced. The assignment must even be one that UAP can handle and that your facility identifies as delegatable. A piece that can be delegated is one that doesn't call for nursing discretion. Typically, it involves repetitive tasks, such measuring vital signs and urine output.
What is HIV AIDS ?The virus referred to as HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) targets the immune system of the body. AIDS can develop from HIV if it's not treated (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome).
A virus is the cause of HIV. Sexual contact, sharing needles for illegal drugs or injections, coming into contact with infected blood, or transmission from mother to child during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding are all ways HIV might spreadWhite blood cells called CD4 T cells, which are crucial to your body's ability to fight infection, are destroyed by HIV.Learn more about HIV AIDS here:
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Which of the following is a benefit of static stretching after an exercise session? Reduces muscle soreness Reduces muscle pliability Increases muscle inflammation Reduces muscle length
Static stretching is an activity which is performed after going through an exercise session because this helps to remove muscle tension. This is done by stretching the muscles till the point to which they can be stretched and then that position is held for a few seconds.
Correct answer-
Reduces muscle soreness- This is the correct answer because static exercises reduces the tension in muscles after an exercise session. It also increases the flexibility of muscles.
Incorrect answers-
Reduces muscle pliability- This is incorrect because, muscle pliability increases after performing static exercises. The extent to which muscles can bend increases after tension is reduced by static stretching.Increases muscle inflammation- This is incorrect because muscle inflammation decreases after performing static stretching due to the release of tension. Reduces muscle length- This is also incorrect because muscle length cannot be reduced by stretching.Learn more about static stretching here-
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Mike is a terminally ill patient who stays at home rather than in a hospital. His treatment focuses on the reduction of pain and suffering since any medical treatment would be of little help. This scenario demonstrates _____.
This scenario demonstrates Palliative care.
What is Palliative care?People with serious illnesses can receive specialized medical care called palliative care. Relief from the illness's symptoms and stress is the main goal of this kind of care. The objective is to enhance the patient's and the family's quality of life.
A specifically trained group of physicians, nurses, and other professionals who collaborate with a patient's medical clinicians to offer an additional layer of support provides palliative care. Palliative care is based on the patient's needs rather than their prognosis. At any age or stage of a serious illness, it is suitable, and it can be given in addition to curative care.
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After checking the urinary drainage system for kinks in the tubing, the nurse determines that a client who has returned from the post-anesthesia care has a dark, concentrated urinary output of 54 ml for the last 2 hours. What priority nursing action should be implemented
The priority nursing action that should be implemented after checking the urinary drainage system for kinks in the tubing with a dark, concentrated urinary output of 54 ml for the last 2 hours is to report the findings to the surgeon.
When a patient is critically unwell, fluid resuscitation is sometimes guided by the amount of urine produced as a measure of acute renal impairment. In critically ill patients, neurohormonal variables and functional alterations may affect diuresis and natriuresis even though a decrease in urine production may be linked to a drop in glomerular filtration rate due to a reduction in renal blood flow or renal perfusion pressure. After examining the urinary drainage system for tube kinks with 54 ml of black, concentrated urine produced over the previous two hours, the main nursing step is to inform the surgeon of the results.
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Who may remove extrinsic stains, accretions, and calcareous deposits from teeth; perform gingival curettage and root planning; polish completed restorations; and place pit and fissure sealants?
Answer: Only Dental Hygienists remove extrinsic stains, accretions, and calcareous deposits from teeth.
Explanation: