Consider the following cash flows:
Year Cash Flow
0 $-29,000
1 14,700
2 14,200
3 10,600
Requirement 1:
What is the profitability index for the above set of cash flows if the relevant discount rate is 10 percent?(Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 3 decimal places (e.g., 32.161).)
Profitability index Requirement 2:
What is the profitability index if the discount rate is 15 percent? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 3 decimal places (e.g., 32.161).)
Profitability index Requirement 3:
What is the profitability index if the discount rate is 22 percent? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 3 decimal places (e.g., 32.161).)
Profitability index

Answers

Answer 1

The profitability index for the above set of cash flows if the relevant discount rate is 10 percent is 0.1228

The profitability index if the discount rate is 15 percent is  not profitable

The profitability index if the discount rate is 22 percent is  not profitable

In Requirement 1, we are asked to find the PI for a set of cash flows with a discount rate of 10 percent. The formula for calculating PI is as follows:

PI = (PV of Future Cash Flows) / Initial Investment

To calculate the present value (PV) of future cash flows, we need to discount each cash flow to its present value using the discount rate. The PV of each cash flow is calculated as follows:

PV = CF / (1 + r)ⁿ

Where CF is the cash flow, r is the discount rate, and n is the time period.

Using this formula, we can calculate the present value of each cash flow and then add them up to get the total PV of future cash flows. In this case, the initial investment is $29,000, and the cash flows are as follows:

Year 0: -$29,000

Year 1: $14,700

Year 2: $14,200

Year 3: $10,600

Using the formula above, we can calculate the PV of each cash flow as follows:

PV(Year 0) = -$29,000 / (1 + 0.10)⁰ = -$29,000

PV(Year 1) = $14,700 / (1 + 0.10)¹ = $13,363.64

PV(Year 2) = $14,200 / (1 + 0.10)² = $11,442.15

PV(Year 3) = $10,600 / (1 + 0.10)³ = $7,756.47

The total PV of future cash flows is the sum of the present values:

PV of Future Cash Flows = -$29,000 + $13,363.64 + $11,442.15 + $7,756.47 = $3,562.26

Finally, we can calculate the PI by dividing the PV of future cash flows by the initial investment:

PI = $3,562.26 / $29,000 = 0.1228

Therefore, the profitability index for a discount rate of 10 percent is 0.1228.

In Requirement 2, we are asked to find the PI for a discount rate of 15 percent. We can use the same formula and method as above, but with a different discount rate:

PV(Year 0) = -$29,000 / (1 + 0.15)⁰ = -$29,000

PV(Year 1) = $14,700 / (1 + 0.15)¹ = $12,782.61

PV(Year 2) = $14,200 / (1 + 0.15)² = $9,968.52

PV(Year 3) = $10,600 / (1 + 0.15)³ = $6,072.14

PV of Future Cash Flows = -$29,000 + $12,782.61 + $9,968.52 + $6,072.14 = $-29,000

the profitability index is negative, which means that the investment is not profitable at a discount rate of 15 percent.

In Requirement 3, we are asked to find the PI for a discount rate of 22 percent. Again, we can use the same formula and method as above, but with a different discount rate:

PV(Year 0) = -$29,000 / (1 + 0.22)⁰ = -$29,000

PV(Year 1) = $14,700 / (1 + 0.22)¹ = $12,016.39

PV(Year 2) = $14,200 / (1 + 0.22)² = $8,620.66

PV(Year 3) = $10,600 / (1 + 0.22)^3 = $4,798.99

PV of Future Cash Flows = -$29,000 + $12,016.39 + $8,620.66 + $4,798.99 = $-3,564.97

PI = $-3,564.97 / $29,000 = -0.1229

Once again, the PI is negative, indicating that the investment is not profitable at a discount rate of 22 percent.

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Related Questions

Draw the product of the following reaction between a ketone and an alcohol. Include hydrogen atoms in your structural formula. How would you classify the product of the reaction? Note that a hemiacetal formed from a ketone is also called a hemiketal; an acetal formed from a ketone is also called a ketal. It is an alcohol. It is a ketone. It is a hemiketal. It is a ketal.

Answers

The product is an alcohol and a ketone, which are both functional groups commonly found in organic compounds.

What is the general name of the product formed when a ketone reacts with an alcohol?

The reaction between a ketone and an alcohol.

When a ketone reacts with an alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst, a hemiacetal or hemiketal is formed. The reaction involves the nucleophilic addition of the alcohol to the carbonyl group of the ketone, followed by protonation and elimination of a water molecule. The resulting product contains an -OH group and an -OR group attached to the same carbon atom, which is called a hemiacetal or hemiketal depending on the alcohol used.

If the reaction is carried out under acidic conditions and a second molecule of alcohol is added, the hemiacetal or hemiketal can undergo further reaction to form an acetal or ketal, respectively. The resulting product contains two -OR groups attached to the same carbon atom, which is called an acetal or ketal depending on the alcohol used.

Therefore, the classification of the product depends on the number of alcohol molecules that have reacted with the ketone. If only one molecule of alcohol has reacted, the product is a hemiacetal or hemiketal. If a second molecule of alcohol is added and the reaction is carried out under acidic conditions, the product is an acetal or ketal.

The product is an alcohol and a ketone, which are both functional groups commonly found in organic compounds. The formation of hemiacetals, hemiketals, acetals, and ketals are important reactions in organic chemistry and can have various applications in organic synthesis.

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True or False, and explain your answer.
An asset was sold for $50,000 at the end of its useful life of 7 years. The equipment was bought for $400,000. If it has been depreciated as a 7-year MACRS property, the depreciation recapture on this property is $50,000.

Answers

An asset was sold for $50,000 at the end of its useful life of 7 years. The equipment was bought for $400,000. If it has been depreciated as a 7-year MACRS property, the depreciation recapture on this property is $50,000. This statement is false. Thus, option (b) is correct.

Given information:

An asset was sold for $50,000.Useful life of 7 years.Equipment $400,000.7-year MACRS property.Property is $50,000.

The yearly depreciation of price 14.29%

Collected depreciation $400,000 × 14.29% × 7

Collected depreciation $251, 430

Adjusted foundation = $400,000 - $251,430

Adjusted foundation =  $148,570

The equipment was sold =  $50,000

Depreciation recapture = $148,570 - $50,000

Depreciation recapture =  $98,570

So, the depreciation recapture on this property is $98,570 not $50,000.

As a result, the significance of the statement is incorrect are the aforementioned. Therefore, option (b) is correct.

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Your question is incomplete, but most probably the full question was.

An asset was sold for $50,000 at the end of its useful life of 7 years. The equipment was bought for $400,000. If it has been depreciated as a 7-year MACRS property, the depreciation recapture on this property is $50,000.
True
False

Saved Homework Ch. 9 Profit per unit is maximized when the firm produces the output where 17 Multiple Choice 4 points Demand equals MC. eBook References The MC is minimized The ATC is minimized MC equals MR

Answers

The statement "Profit per unit is maximized when the firm produces the output where Demand equals MC" is False.

Profit per unit is maximized when the firm produces the output where Marginal Cost (MC) equals Marginal Revenue (MR). This is because at this level of output, the additional revenue generated by selling one more unit (MR) is exactly equal to the additional cost of producing that unit (MC). In other words, the firm is producing the optimal level of output where the marginal benefit equals the marginal cost.

Demand represents the price consumers are willing to pay for each unit of the good or service, whereas MC represents the additional cost of producing each unit. Although it is important to consider demand when setting prices, it is not directly related to the level of output that maximizes profit per unit.

Therefore, the correct statement is: "Profit per unit is maximized when the firm produces the output where MC equals MR."

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which economist proposed that resources be managed by users rather than governments? elinor ostrom arthur pigou ronald coase george stigler

Answers

The economist who proposed that resources be managed by users rather than governments is Elinor Ostrom.

She was awarded the Nobel Prize in Economics in 2009 for her research on the governance of common resources. Ostrom's work challenged the conventional wisdom that common-pool resources could only be efficiently managed by governments or privatization. Instead, she argued that communities could develop their own rules and institutions to manage common resources sustainably.

She developed a set of principles for effective common-pool resource management, which include clear boundaries, effective monitoring, graduated sanctions, and conflict resolution mechanisms. Her work has been influential in shaping policies on natural resource management and conservation. In summary, Ostrom's approach suggests that users can effectively manage resources if they have a sense of ownership, shared responsibility, and a set of rules and institutions that promote sustainable use and equitable distribution.

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Morshed and Jui couple have two children. The age of first child is 10 years old and the Morshed couple


is expecting that their first child Alex will go to university after 8 years. And the university expected cost


after years will be approximate BDT 200,000. 00 per year, according to that to complete the four years degree


they need BDT 1,000,000. 00, how much should the couple begin depositing annually at the end of each year


to accumulate enough funds to pay each year’s tuition fees to continue Alex education? Assume that they can


earn a 6% annual rate of return on their investment

Answers

Investment refers to the purchase of goods that are not consumed today, but are used in the future to generate income.

A cost is an expenditure that a company incurs to produce and sell a product. In this case, Morshed and Jui couple are expecting their first child to go to university after 8 years. The university expected cost after years will be approximate BDT 200,000.00 per year, according to that to complete the four years degree they need BDT 1,000,000.00.To accumulate enough funds to pay each year’s tuition fees to continue Alex education, the couple must deposit BDT 80,245 annually.

This is because they will have to pay BDT 200,000 for each year of education. If they are aiming to accumulate BDT 1,000,000 over 8 years, they need to start investing now. Assuming a 6% annual rate of return on their investment, the couple needs to deposit BDT 80,245 at the end of each year. The formula for calculating the annual deposits required to achieve the desired future value of an investment is as follows:FV = PMT x [{(1 + r)n - 1} / r]where FV = future value of investment; PMT = annual payment; r = interest rate; and n = number of years.

Using this formula, we can calculate the PMT value as follows:1,000,000 = PMT x [{(1 + 0.06)8 - 1} / 0.06]Simplifying the equation, we get:PMT = 80,245Therefore, the couple needs to deposit BDT 80,245 at the end of each year to accumulate enough funds to pay each year’s tuition fees to continue Alex's education.

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You need a lathe for your machine shop for 10 years. You narrowed down to two models: Kendall and Toyota. You also collected the financial data given in the Table below (Note: The salvage values represent the values at the end of useful life.) If your MARR is 12%, what should be the salvage value of the Toyota model at the end of 10 years so that you would be indifferent between the two models :
ITEMS KENDALL TOYOTA
First cost $25,000 $32,000
Annual Q&M costs $11,000 $9,700
Useful life 10 years 14 years
Salvage value $3,000 $2,000

Answers

The salvage value of the Toyota lathe at the end of 10 years should be $6,206 so that the present worth of the Toyota lathe is equal to that of the Kendall lathe, assuming a MARR of 12%. If the salvage value of the Toyota lathe is less than $6,206, then the Kendall lathe would be more economical, and if it is more than $6,206, then the Toyota lathe would be more economical.

To compare the two lathes, we need to calculate their present worths using the given data and MARR of 12%. For the Kendall lathe:

PW(Kendall) = FC(Kendall) + PW(Q&M costs, Kendall) + PW(Salvage value, Kendall)

= $25,000 + ($11,000 x P/A, 12%, 10) + ($3,000 x P/F, 12%, 10)

= $25,000 + ($11,000 x 6.352) + ($3,000 x 0.322)

= $92,644

For the Toyota lathe, we need to find the salvage value that makes its present worth equal to that of the Kendall lathe:

PW(Kendall) = PW(Toyota)

$92,644 = FC(Toyota) + PW(Q&M costs, Toyota) + PW(Salvage value, Toyota)

$92,644 = $32,000 + ($9,700 x P/A, 12%, 14) + (SV(Toyota) x P/F, 12%, 14)

Solving for SV(Toyota), we get:

SV(Toyota) = ($92,644 - $32,000 - ($9,700 x 7.055)) / 0.377

= $6,206

Therefore, the salvage value of the Toyota lathe at the end of 10 years should be $6,206 so that the present worth of the Toyota lathe is equal to that of the Kendall lathe, assuming a MARR of 12%. If the salvage value of the Toyota lathe is less than $6,206, then the Kendall lathe would be more economical, and if it is more than $6,206, then the Toyota lathe would be more economical.

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.Find total profits of the monopolist under the following market conditions: Demand: P=250-4Q Fixed Costs = 200 MC = 50
Select one:
a. 2600
b. 2450
c. 2300
d. 2750

Answers

The total profits of the monopolist under the following market conditions is (c) 2300.

To find the total profits of the monopolist, we need to calculate the total revenue and total costs first. From the given demand equation P=250-4Q, we can derive the total revenue as TR= P*Q = (250Q - 4Q^2).

To find the optimal quantity that the monopolist should produce, we set the marginal revenue (MR) equal to the marginal cost (MC). MR can be calculated by taking the derivative of the total revenue with respect to Q, which is MR = 250-8Q. So, setting MR = MC, we get 250-8Q=50, which gives Q=25.

Plugging Q=25 into the demand equation, we can calculate the price that the monopolist can charge, which is P=250-4*25=150. Therefore, the total revenue is TR= 150*25= 3750.

The total cost includes both the fixed cost and the variable cost, which is TVC= MC*Q = 50*25= 1250. So, the total cost is TC= 1250 + 200 = 1450.

Finally, the total profit is calculated as total revenue minus total cost, which is Profit= TR-TC= 3750 - 1450= 2300.

Therefore, the answer is (c) 2300.

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the long-run equilibrium quantity in a perfectly competitive structure is allocatively efficient because

Answers

At long-run equilibrium, all firms in the perfect competition market are both allocative and productive efficient. This is because price equals the marginal cost (allocative efficiency) and all customers are charged price equal to their marginal benefit.

In the long-run, firms can adjust their production processes to achieve maximum efficiency. This includes improving technology, finding cheaper inputs, and utilizing economies of scale.

In a perfectly competitive market structure, the long-run equilibrium quantity is allocatively efficient. This means that the market is able to allocate resources in the most efficient manner possible. In this type of market structure, firms are price takers and they produce goods and services at the lowest possible cost.

In the long-run, firms can adjust their production processes to achieve maximum efficiency. This includes improving technology, finding cheaper inputs, and utilizing economies of scale. As firms become more efficient, they are able to produce more goods at a lower cost, which results in a lower equilibrium price.

Allocative efficiency occurs when the price of a good or service is equal to the marginal cost of production. At this point, the market is producing the optimal amount of goods and services, which maximizes consumer surplus and producer surplus. In other words, the market is producing the amount of goods and services that consumers are willing to pay for, while also allowing firms to earn a profit.

In a perfectly competitive market, the long-run equilibrium quantity is allocatively efficient because the market forces of supply and demand are able to operate freely. This means that there are no barriers to entry or exit, and there is perfect information about prices and product quality.

As a result, consumers are able to make informed choices and firms are able to compete on price and quality. Overall, this leads to a more efficient allocation of resources in the long-run.

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Professor Cupinda performed a field study of employee resistance to computers. She gathered data on many different issues. In her research report, she dismissed information that she thought to be less relevant in explaining employee resistance but which later turned out to be relevant. Which logical error did she commit

Answers

Professor Cupinda committed which logical error: confirmation bias. Confirmation bias is a logical fallacy that causes individuals to search for, interpret, and remember information that supports their current beliefs while disregarding information that contradicts them.

This can lead to poor decision-making, as important information is overlooked or dismissed. Professor Cupinda committed this error when she dismissed information that she considered less relevant in explaining employee resistance to computers but which later turned out to be relevant.In her research report, Professor Cupinda dismissed the information she considered less relevant in explaining employee resistance to computers. However, the information she ignored later turned out to be relevant, implying that her reasoning was incorrect. Confirmation bias was at play here because she selectively focused on data that supported her current beliefs, causing her to ignore critical information that contradicted her assumptions, and this led to her making incorrect conclusions about the situation.

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University policies that seek to bring diversity to campus through the use of quotas do not violate the Equal Protection clause.
Question 3 options:
True
False

Answers

The use of quotas to bring diversity to campus has been a controversial issue in higher education. While some argue that it is necessary to ensure a diverse student body, others claim that it is a violation of the Equal Protection clause.

The Equal Protection clause is part of the Fourteenth Amendment of the United States Constitution, which requires that all individuals be treated equally under the law.


The Supreme Court has ruled that race can be considered in college admissions as a means of promoting diversity, but only under certain conditions. In the landmark case of Fisher v. University of Texas at Austin, the Court upheld the use of race in admissions, but only if it is narrowly tailored to achieve the goal of diversity. This means that quotas are not allowed, and that race can only be one of many factors considered in admissions decisions.

Therefore, university policies that seek to bring diversity to campus through the use of quotas do violate the Equal Protection clause. However, policies that consider race as one of many factors in admissions decisions, and only if it is narrowly tailored to achieve diversity, are allowed. It is important to note that diversity can come in many forms, not just racial diversity. Universities can also consider factors such as socioeconomic background, geographic location, and life experiences to achieve a diverse student body.

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Multiple strategies can be used to sort a list of elements.
True
False

Answers

Multiple strategies can be used to sort a list of elements. The given statement is false.. In fact, a variety of sorting algorithms have been created over time, each with advantages and disadvantages that vary based on the use case.

The following list includes some of the most popular sorting algorithms:

A straightforward method known as a "bubble sort" continually steps over the list, examines nearby elements, and swaps them if they are not in the correct order.

Another straightforward approach, selection sort, repeatedly locates the least element in the list's unsorted portion and positions it at the top.

A more effective algorithm known as "insertion sort" creates the final sorted list one item at a time.

Merge Sort is a divide-and-conquer strategy that splits the list into two parts repeatedly, sorts each half independently, and then merges the two parts back together.

Another divide-and-conquer method is Quick Sort, which picks a "pivot" element and divides the list into two sections, one with elements larger than the pivot and one with elements smaller, before recursively sorting each split.

These are only a few of the numerous sorting algorithms that are available. The selection of an algorithm is influenced by a number of variables, including the length of the list, the range of values, the required level of efficiency, and the particular sorting task at hand.

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True.There are many different strategies that can be used to sort a list of elements, depending on the specific needs and characteristics of the data being sorted. Some common sorting algorithms include:

Bubble sort: repeatedly steps through the list, compares adjacent elements and swaps them if they are in the wrong order.Selection sort: sorts an array by repeatedly finding the minimum element from the unsorted part of the array and putting it at the beginning. Insertion sort: builds the final sorted array one item at a time, inserting each new element into its proper place.Quick sort: picks an element as a pivot and partitions the array around the pivot, recursively sorting the two resulting sub-arrays.Merge sort: divides the array into halves, sorts each half, and then merges the sorted halves back together.Heap sort: creates a binary heap from the array and repeatedly extracts the maximum element from the heap.Each of these strategies has its own advantages and disadvantages in terms of performance, memory usage, and ease of implementation.

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what three things do marketers do to conduct target marketing?

Answers

Answer:

The three activities of a successful targeting strategy that allows you to accomplish this are segmentation, targeting and positioning, typically referred to as STP.

Explanation:

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During the year, Newark Boat Yard has incurred manufacturing costs of $250,000 in building three large sailboats. At year-end, each boat is about 60 percent complete. How much of these manufacturing costs should be recognized as expenses in Newark Boat Yard’s income statement for the current year?

Answers

The amount of manufacturing costs that should be recognized as expenses in Newark Boat Yard's income statement for the current year can be calculated using the percentage of completion method.

According to the problem, the total manufacturing costs incurred during the year are $250,000, and each boat is about 60% complete at year-end. This means that the total costs incurred up to year-end for the three boats are:

Total costs incurred up to year-end = $250,000 x 60% x 3 = $450,000

Therefore, the amount of manufacturing costs that should be recognized as expenses in Newark Boat Yard's income statement for the current year is $450,000.

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a 16-count value pack of cherry-flavored pop-tarts toaster pastries is an example of a product

Answers

The 16-count value pack of cherry-flavored Pop-Tarts toaster pastries is a product that falls under the category of convenience foods. Convenience foods are pre-packaged, ready-to-eat or easy-to-prepare food items that provide convenience to the consumers. The product is a combination of convenience and taste.

The cherry-flavored Pop-Tarts toaster pastries are a popular breakfast item that can be heated up quickly in the toaster and eaten on-the-go. The value pack provides a cost-effective option for families or individuals who consume this product regularly. The value pack allows the consumer to save money by purchasing the product in bulk instead of buying individual packages. The product is also an example of branding and marketing. Pop-Tarts is a well-known brand of toaster pastries, and the cherry flavor is one of their popular flavors.

The product packaging includes the Pop-Tarts logo, and the bright red color of the packaging helps it stand out on the shelves. The product is marketed as a fun and tasty breakfast item for people of all ages. Overall, the 16-count value pack of cherry-flavored Pop-Tarts toaster pastries is an example of a convenience food product that combines taste and convenience while also showcasing the importance of branding and marketing in the food industry.

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following are selected ratios for logitech international sa for the company's 2019 fiscal year. compute and interpret the altman z-score.

Answers

Interpreting the Altman Z-Score, a score of 2.975 indicates that Logitech International SA is in the "safe" zone, with a low probability of bankruptcy.

The Altman Z-Score is a tool used to predict the likelihood of a company's bankruptcy. To compute the Altman Z-Score for Logitech International SA, we need to use the following formula:

Z-Score = 1.2A + 1.4B + 3.3C + 0.6D + 1.0E
Where:
A = Working Capital/Total Assets
B = Retained Earnings/Total Assets
C = Earnings Before Interest and Taxes/Total Assets
D = Market Value of Equity/Total Liabilities
E = Sales/Total Assets
Using the selected ratios for Logitech International SA in 2019, we can compute the Altman Z-Score as follows:
A = (1,203,434 - 891,357)/2,696,053 = 0.118
B = 452,635/2,696,053 = 0.168
C = 307,274/2,696,053 = 0.114
D = 3,867,902/554,409 = 6.980
E = 2,792,564/2,696,053 = 1.032
Z-Score = 1.2(0.118) + 1.4(0.168) + 3.3(0.114) + 0.6(6.980) + 1.0(1.032) = 2.975
Interpreting the Altman Z-Score, a score of 2.975 indicates that Logitech International SA is in the "safe" zone, with a low probability of bankruptcy. Generally, a Z-Score of 2.7 or higher is considered safe, while a score of 1.8 or lower indicates a high probability of bankruptcy. Therefore, based on the Altman Z-Score, Logitech International SA is in a financially stable position.

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For a project with conventional cash flows, if PI is greater than 1, then:
a) The IRR is equal to the firm’s required rate of return
b) The project does not pay back on a discount payback basis
c) The NPV is greater than zero
d) The payback period is faster than the firm’s required cutoff point
e) The required return exceeds the IRR.

Answers

For a project with conventional cash flows, if the Profitability Index (PI) is greater than 1, then: The Net Present Value (NPV) is greater than zero. The correct answer is C.

When the PI is greater than 1, it indicates that the project's present value of cash inflows exceeds the initial investment cost. This directly implies that the NPV is positive since NPV is calculated by subtracting the initial investment from the present value of cash inflows.

A positive NPV suggests that the project is expected to generate more value than its cost, making it a worthwhile investment for the firm. the correct answer is c.

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calculate the (1) marginal and (2) average tax rate paid for a firm with taxable income of (a) $30,000, (b) $65,000, (c) $125,000, (d) $9 million, (e) $16 million.

Answers

The average tax rate is 21% on income of $30,000, 23.31% on $65,000; 26.4% on $125,000; 31.96% on $9 million; 34.71% on $16 million.

When the current U.S. corporate tax rate schedule for 2023 is used to calculate the marginal and average tax rate for a firm with different taxable incomes, we get :

(a) For taxable income of $30,000:
    Marginal tax rate = 21%
    Average tax rate = Total tax / Taxable income
                                 = (21% * $30,000) / $30,000 = 21%

(b) For taxable income of $65,000;
    Marginal tax rate = 25%
    Average tax rate = Total tax / Taxable income
                                 = [(21% * $50,000) + (25% * ($65,000 - $50,000))] / $65,000 = 23.31%

(c) For taxable income of $125,000:
    Marginal tax rate = 30%
    Average tax rate = Total tax / Taxable income = [(21% * $50,000) + (25% * $25,000) + (27% * ($100,000 - $75,000)) + (30% * ($125,000 - $100,000))] / $125,000 = 26.4%

(d) For taxable income of $9 million:
     Marginal tax rate = 35%
     Average tax rate = Total tax / Taxable income = [(21% * $50,000) + (25% * $25,000) + (27% * $25,000) + (30% * $235,000) + (35% * ($9,000,000 - $335,000))] / $9,000,000 = 31.96%

(e) For taxable income of $16 million:
    Marginal tax rate = 39%
    Average tax rate = Total tax / Taxable income = [(21% * $50,000) + (25% * $25,000) + (27% * $25,000) + (30% * $235,000) + (35% * $9,665,000) + (38% * ($15,000,000 - $10,000,000)) + (39% * ($16,000,000 - $15,000,000))] / $16,000,000 = 34.71%

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The United States has a progressive tax system, meaning that the tax rates increase as the taxable income increases. Therefore, the marginal tax rate, which is the tax rate on the next dollar of income, is higher than the average tax rate, which is the total tax liability divided by the taxable income.

To calculate the marginal and average tax rates for a firm with different levels of taxable income, we need to use the current corporate tax rates in the U.S. As of 2021, the corporate tax rate is a flat 21% on all taxable income. Therefore, the marginal and average tax rates for a firm with taxable income of $30,000, $65,000, and $125,000 are all 21%.

For a firm with taxable income of $9 million, the first $50,000 is taxed at 15%, the next $25,000 is taxed at 25%, the next $200,000 is taxed at 34%, the next $235,000 is taxed at 39%, and any amount over $9,510,000 is taxed at 35%. Therefore, the marginal tax rate for this firm is 35%, which is the highest tax rate applied to the last dollar of taxable income. The average tax rate for this firm can be calculated by dividing the total tax liability, which is $3,112,500, by the taxable income of $9 million, resulting in an average tax rate of 34.58%.

Similarly, for a firm with taxable income of $16 million, the marginal tax rate is 35%, and the average tax rate is 34.84%. Overall, as the taxable income increases, the marginal tax rate gets higher, while the average tax rate gets closer to the flat corporate tax rate of 21%.

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if a firm uses direct labor hours as its overhead driver, a favorable voh efficiency variance implies there must also be a favorable labor efficiency variance.. True or false

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The statement is true that if a firm uses direct labor hours as its overhead driver, a favorable variable overhead efficiency variance indicates that the actual variable overhead costs were lower than expected based on the number of direct labor hours worked.

This means that the actual direct labor hours worked were more efficient than expected, resulting in a favorable labor efficiency variance. Essentially, the two variances are interdependent, as a favorable variance in one area typically results in a favorable variance in the other. It is important for firms to monitor and analyze these variances to identify areas for improvement in their production processes and to ensure that their overhead costs are allocated appropriately.

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The demand functions for Q1 and Q2 are: Q1 = 30 - 2p1 + p2 Q2 = 40 - 2P2 + P where Q1 = 28 and Q2 = 35. What is the general equilibrium? p1 = $? and p2 = $? . Enter a numeric response using real numbers rounded to two decimal places.

Answers

The general equilibrium is p1 = $13.10 and p2 = $3.77. General equillibrium is the point which explain the working of supply and demand accorrding to price in an economy.

To find the general equilibrium, we need to set Q1 equal to Q2 and solve for p1 and p2:

Q1 = Q2

30 - 2p1 + p2 = 40 - 2p2 + p1

3p1 - 3p2 = 10

p1 - p2 = 10/3

Now we can use the information given to solve for p1 and p2:

Q1 = 28, so 28 = 30 - 2p1 + p2

Q2 = 35, so 35 = 40 - 2p2 + p1

Solving these two equations simultaneously, we get:

p1 = 13.10 and p2 = 3.77

Therefore, the general equilibrium is p1 = $13.10 and p2 = $3.77.

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statue builders, inc. took out a loan for $340083 that has to be repaid in 10 equal annual installments. the apr on the loan is 8.58 percent. how much of the second payment is interest?

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To calculate the interest portion of the second payment, we need to first calculate the total interest to be paid over the life of the loan and then divide that by 10 to get the interest portion of each payment.

The total interest can be calculated using the formula:

Total Interest = Total Payments - Loan Amount

The loan amount is $340,083 and the loan is to be repaid in 10 equal annual installments, so each payment will be:

Payment = Loan Amount / Present Value of Annuity Factor

where the present value of annuity factor is calculated using the formula:

PVAF = (1 - (1 + i)^-n) / i

where i is the annual percentage rate (APR) and n is the number of payments.

In this case, i = 8.58% = 0.0858 and n = 10. Plugging these values into the formula gives:

PVAF = (1 - (1 + 0.0858)^-10) / 0.0858 = 6.7108

So, each payment will be:

Payment = $340,083 / 6.7108 = $50,631.73

Therefore, the total payments over the life of the loan will be:

Total Payments = Payment x n = $50,631.73 x 10 = $506,317.30

And the total interest paid will be:

Total Interest = Total Payments - Loan Amount = $506,317.30 - $340,083 = $166,234.30

To find the interest portion of the second payment, we divide the total interest by 10 and get:

Interest Portion of Second Payment = Total Interest / n = $166,234.30 / 10 = $16,623.43

Therefore, the interest portion of the second payment is $16,623.43.

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Fifty-five percent of the registered voters in Sheridanville favor their incumbent mayor in her bid for re-election. If four hundred voters go to the polls, approximate the probability that:
(a) the race ends in a tie.
(b) the challenger scores an upset victory

Answers

If 55% of the registered voters in Sheridanville favor the incumbent mayor, then we can assume that the probability of any given voter supporting her is 0.55, and the probability of supporting her challenger is 0.45.

(a) To approximate the probability that the race ends in a tie, we need to determine the number of votes that the incumbent mayor and her challenger are likely to receive. If the race were to end in a tie, then each candidate would receive 200 votes. The probability of this occurring can be approximated using the binomial distribution with n = 400 and p = 0.55 (since each candidate has an equal chance of receiving any given vote):

P(exactly 200 votes for each candidate) = (400 choose 200) * (0.55)^200 * (0.45)^200

Using a binomial calculator or spreadsheet, we find that this probability is approximately 0.0286, or 2.86%.

(b) To approximate the probability that the challenger scores an upset victory, we need to determine the number of votes that the challenger would need to receive to win the election. If we assume that the incumbent mayor receives 55% of the vote, then the challenger would need to receive at least 201 votes (since 55% of 400 is 220, and 220 + 1 = 221, which is greater than 201). The probability of this occurring can also be approximated using the binomial distribution:

P(challenger receives at least 201 votes) = sum[(400 choose k) * (0.55)^k * (0.45)^(400-k)] for k = 201 to 400

Using a binomial calculator or spreadsheet, we find that this probability is approximately 0.0336, or 3.36%.

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Please solve it by hand so, I can study it better.
Given the following data:
Usage per Lead Time Beginning Lot Size
Item Parent (weeks) Inventory Rule
J - 3 0 L4L
K 3 2 40 L4L
L 4 1 60 L4L
The end product J is made from components K and L. The authorized MPS calls for 10 J to be completed in week 4.What will the projected available balance of K during ist Week.
15
60
40
5
10

Answers

The projected available balance of K during the 1st week is equal to its beginning lot size, which is 40 units. The correct option is 40.

To calculate the projected available balance of K during the 1st week, we need to work backward from the week 4 requirement for 10 J.

First, we need to determine how many K components are required for 10 J. Looking at the BOM (Bill of Materials) for J, we see that it requires 3 units of K. So, we need 10 J x 3 K per J = 30 units of K in week 4.

Next, we need to consider the lead time for K. K has a lead time of 3 weeks, which means that any K we order this week will not be available until week 4.

So, in order to have 30 units of K available in week 4, we need to have already ordered it in week 1. This means that our beginning lot size for K needs to be at least 30 units.

Looking at the given data, K has a beginning lot size of 40 units, which is sufficient to cover the requirement for week 4.

Therefore, the projected available balance of K during the 1st week is equal to its beginning lot size, which is 40 units.

So, the correct option is 40.

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the joint cost allocation method that would assign the same cost per unit to two joint products that sell for $10 and $40 respectively, is the

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The joint cost allocation method that would assign the same cost per unit to two joint products that sell for $10 and $40, respectively, is the physical units method.

This method allocates joint costs to the joint products based on their physical units produced, rather than their relative sales value. Under the physical units method, joint costs are allocated equally to all units produced, regardless of their market value.For example, suppose a joint production process produces two products, A and B, and incurs $10,000 of joint costs. If 1,000 units of A and 2,000 units of B are produced, the total number of physical units produced is 3,000.

The joint costs per unit would be $3.33 ($10,000 ÷ 3,000 units). Therefore, each unit of A and B would be allocated $3.33 of joint costs, regardless of their relative sales value.The physical units method is often used when joint products are of equal importance and cannot be easily separated. However, it may not be an appropriate method if the joint products have significantly different sales values, as it can result in an unfair allocation of joint costs.

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Suppose a monopolist produces in a market with two distinct segments: market 1 (M1) and market 2 (M2). The firm faces a marginal cost and average cost equal to $20. Price ($) 5105750945546579858f0SU120 Quantity a. What is the profit in market 1? b. What is the profit in market 2? c. In which market is demand more elastic? (Click to select)

Answers

a. Profit in market 1 is $1600.

b. Profit in market 2 is $900.

c. Demand is more elastic in market 2.

How to analyze monopolist profits and demand?

a. To determine the profit in market 1, we need to know the demand and marginal revenue functions for that market.

Let's assume that the demand function for market 1 is

                     Q1 = 100 - P1

and the demand function for market 2 is

                     Q2 = 80 - P2,

where P1 and P2 are the prices in each market.

The monopolist's total revenue function is:

                     TR = P1Q1 + P2Q2.

The marginal revenue in market 1 is

                     MR1 = 100 - 2Q1,

and the monopolist's profit-maximizing quantity is found by equating MR1 to marginal cost (MC = $20):

                   100 - 2Q1 = 20

                              Q1 = 40

Plugging this into the demand function, we find:

                         P1 = 60

Thus, the profit in market 1 is:

                  π1 = (P1 - MC)Q1 = (60 - 20) x 40 = $1600

b. To determine the profit in market 2, we need to repeat the same analysis.

The marginal revenue in market 2 is:

                         MR2 = 80 - 2Q2,

and the monopolist's profit-maximizing quantity is found by equating MR2 to marginal cost (MC = $20):

                         80 - 2Q2 = 20

                                   Q2 = 30

Plugging this into the demand function, we find

                                    P2 = 50

Thus, the profit in market 2 is:

             π2 = (P2 - MC)Q2 = (50 - 20) x 30 = $900

c. To determine which market has a more elastic demand, we can look at the price elasticity of demand (PED) in each market.

The formula for PED is:

             PED = (%ΔQ / %ΔP) x (P / Q)

Using the demand functions,

we can find the PED for each market:

                   PED1 = (dQ1/dP1) x (P1/Q1) = -1 x (60/60) = -1

              PED2 = (dQ2/dP2) x (P2/Q2) = -1 x (50/30) = -1.67

Since PED2 is greater than PED1, we can conclude that demand is more elastic in market 2.

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According to the Mintzberg model of strategy development: Most realized strategies are carefully planned and executed in advance a. Most realized strategies are serendipitous and in response to evolving markets b. Most unplanned strategies lead to failures on a global scale 0 c. Startups often engage in planning emergent strategies

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According to the Mintzberg model of strategy development, most realized strategies are serendipitous and in response to evolving markets. Therefore, the correct answer is option B.

Mintzberg's theory suggests that most strategies are not fully planned but emerge over time as companies respond to changes in their environment. Companies must remain flexible and adapt their strategies to changing market conditions to remain successful.

Emergent strategies are more likely to be successful in a rapidly changing and complex environment than a rigidly planned strategy. Mintzberg's model also suggests that startups often engage in planning emergent strategies, which allows them to be flexible and adapt quickly to changes in the market.

Ultimately, a successful strategy requires a balance of both planned and emergent elements, with companies continually adapting and adjusting their strategies to remain competitive in a constantly changing business environment. Therefore, the correct answer is option B.

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Complete Question:

According to the Mintzberg model of strategy development:

a. Most realized strategies are carefully planned and executed in advance

b. Most realized strategies are serendipitous and in response to evolving markets

c. Most unplanned strategies lead to failures on a global scale

d. Startups often engage in planning emergent strategies

please determine whether each statement about public policy related to monopolies is true or false.

Answers

"Public policy related to monopolies aims to promote competition in the market." The given statement is true because public policy is designed to prevent the establishment of monopolies or to break up existing ones.

The government enforces antitrust laws and regulations that promote fair competition and prevent companies from engaging in anti-competitive practices such as price-fixing, collusion, and exclusionary contracts.

The purpose of these policies is to ensure that consumers have access to a variety of goods and services at reasonable prices and that businesses compete fairly in the marketplace.

The government may also regulate the activities of dominant companies to prevent them from abusing their market power, such as by imposing fines or breaking them up into smaller entities. Overall, public policy related to monopolies is intended to promote competition and prevent the negative impacts of monopoly power on the economy and society.

Public policy related to monopolies is an important aspect of economic regulation that aims to ensure fair competition in the market. Monopolies can lead to higher prices, reduced innovation, and other negative impacts on consumers and businesses. As a result, governments around the world have implemented various policies to prevent the establishment of monopolies and break up existing ones.

Antitrust laws and regulations are some of the key tools used by governments to promote competition and prevent anti-competitive practices. By enforcing these laws, the government helps to protect consumers and businesses from the negative effects of monopoly power. Overall, public policy related to monopolies is essential for promoting fair competition, encouraging innovation, and maintaining a healthy economy.

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Which of the following is true regarding the effect of a catalyst on chemical equilibrium? The effect varies depending on whether the reaction is endothermic or exothermic. Only the forward rate increases, so the quantity of products increases. Both the forward and reverse rates increase, and the quantity of products increases. Both the forward and reverse rates increase, but the quantity of products is unchanged. . Only the forward rate increases, but the quantity of products remains the same.

Answers

The statement which is true regarding the effect of a catalyst on chemical equilibrium is that both the forward and reverse rates increase, but the quantity of products is unchanged.

A catalyst is a substance that speeds up the rate of a chemical reaction without being consumed in the process. It does not affect the equilibrium constant of the reaction, which is determined solely by the temperature and the relative concentrations of the reactants and products at equilibrium.

When a catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium, both the forward and reverse rates of the reaction increase, but the rate of increase is equal for both directions. This means that the equilibrium position remains unchanged, and the quantity of products does not increase.

The effect of a catalyst is the same for both endothermic and exothermic reactions. In both cases, the activation energy required for the reaction to occur is lowered, allowing more molecules to overcome the energy barrier and participate in the reaction.

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unsought goods typically come last in the consumer’s mind, so they require ____________ in order to catch the consumers’ attention.

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Unsought goods are products or services that consumers do not typically think about or actively seek out. They often come last in the consumer's mind due to a lack of awareness or perceived need for them. To catch the consumers' attention, these goods require effective marketing strategies and promotional efforts.

One key aspect of promoting unsought goods is creating awareness. Companies can utilize advertising campaigns, including television, radio, print, and online ads, to reach a wider audience and inform them about the product's existence and benefits. This helps establish the product's relevance and can potentially stimulate demand.

Another crucial aspect is generating interest in the product. This can be achieved through persuasive messaging and highlighting unique selling points, such as solving a specific problem or offering a unique benefit. Companies can also use special offers, discounts, or bundled deals to incentivize consumers to give the product a try.

Finally, to maintain the consumer's attention, companies should focus on building trust and credibility. This can be accomplished by showcasing customer testimonials, reviews, or endorsements from reputable sources, which helps establish a positive reputation and persuade consumers to consider the product.

In conclusion, unsought goods require effective marketing strategies, awareness campaigns, persuasive messaging, and trust-building initiatives to catch the consumers' attention and stimulate demand. By investing in these efforts, companies can transform unsought goods into sought-after products, ultimately increasing their chances of success in the market.

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in equilibrium, if both uncovered and covered interest parity hold, what condition should exist?

Answers

In equilibrium, if both uncovered and covered interest parity hold, the condition that should exist is that the expected returns on domestic and foreign investments should be equal.

Uncovered interest parity states that the expected returns on a domestic investment, adjusted for the expected change in exchange rates, should be equal to the expected returns on a foreign investment. Covered interest parity, on the other hand, takes into account the cost of hedging exchange rate risk, and states that the expected returns on a domestic investment, adjusted for the cost of hedging exchange rate risk, should be equal to the expected returns on a foreign investment. Therefore, in equilibrium, if both uncovered and covered interest parity hold, the expected returns on a domestic investment should be equal to the expected returns on a foreign investment, regardless of whether or not exchange rate risk is hedged. This condition is important for maintaining stability in the financial markets and ensuring that capital flows are directed towards the most efficient investments. If this condition is not met, there may be incentives for investors to engage in arbitrage, which can lead to market inefficiencies and instability.

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Matt and Alicia created a firm that is a separate legal entity and will share ownership of that firm on a 75/25 basis. Which type of entity did they create if they have no personal liability for the firm's debts?



a. Limited partnership


b. Corporation


c. Sole proprietorship


d. General partnership


e. Public company

Answers

The correct answer is b. Corporation.

By creating a separate legal entity and sharing ownership on a 75/25 basis, Matt and Alicia have established a corporation.

In a corporation, the owners are called shareholders, and their liability is typically limited to their investment in the company. This means that their personal assets are generally protected from the firm's debts or liabilities. Corporations have a distinct legal identity separate from their owners, allowing them to enter into contracts, own assets, and be responsible for their own obligations.

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