Describe the slope of the line.
The slope is
Find the slope.
m =
help please

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  (a) A : B = $9000 : $6000

  (b) $1260

  (c) A : S : J = $1050 : $2250 : $1200 = 7 : 15 : 8

Step-by-step explanation:

(a) The investment ratio is ...

  Angela : Barbara = 24000 : 16000 = 3 : 2

The profit of 15,000 goes 3/(3+2) = 3/5 to Angela, and 2/5 to Barbara:

  Angela's share: (3/5)($15,000) = $9,000

  Barbara's share: (2/5)($15,000) = $6,000

__

(b) We can multiply the ratio by $140 to see the larger amount:

  4 : 9 = ($140)(4) : ($140)(9) = $560 : $1260

The larger share is $1260.

__

(c) Sian gets (1/2)($4500) = $2250. Anesha gets $1050. So  Joanne gets ...

  $2250 -1050 = $1200

Then the shares are ...

  i. Sian: $2250

  ii. Joanne: $1200

  iii. Ratios: A : S : J = 105 : 225 : 120 = 7 : 15 : 8

The answer will be 7.45628

Answer:

10 feet 5 inches long

Step-by-step explanation:

12 inches = 1 foot

11 inches + 6 inches = 17 inches = 1 foot 5 inches

1 foot 5 inches + 5 feet + 4 feet = 10 feet 5 inches

Therefore, the walking board is 10 feet 5 inches long

Answer:

you're answer is negative 15

Answer:

3/8 or 0.375

Step-by-step explanation:

0.75/2 = 3/8

Answer:

It is the last one

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

the answer is 30. you will get 30 for your answer

Answer:

[tex]x = 9.7[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

The attached triangle

Required

Find x

Using law of sine, we have:

[tex]\frac{a}{sin A} = \frac{b}{Sin B}[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]\frac{x}{sin 32} = \frac{18}{Sin 100}[/tex]

Make x the subject

[tex]x = \frac{18 * sin 32}{Sin 100}[/tex]

[tex]x = \frac{18 * 0.5299}{0.9848}[/tex]

[tex]x = 9.685[/tex]

[tex]x = 9.7[/tex] -- approximated

Answer:

42 - 6 - 6 - 6 - 6 - 6 - 6 - 6 = 0

or

42 - 7 - 7 - 7 - 7 - 7 - 7 = 0

Answer:False

Step-by-step explanation: a circle has infinite lines of symmetry an oval has two

Answer:

P = 4 / ( 4 + 3 +1 )

= 4 / 8

= 4 / 8 =  1 / 2

Hope it helps

Please mark me as the brainliest

Thank you

The probability that it is red is 1/2.

Probability refers to potential. A random event's occurrence is the subject of this area of mathematics.

The range of the value is 0 to 1. Mathematics has incorporated probability to forecast the likelihood of various events.

The degree to which something is likely to happen is basically what probability means.

Given:

A bag with 8 marbles

4 red marbles,

3 blue marbles,

and 1 yellow marble.

So, the probability that it is red

= 4 / ( 8)

= 1/2

Hence, the probability that it is red is 1/2.

Learn more about probability here:

https://brainly.com/question/11234923

#SPJ2

Answer:

the second to last one!!!

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps

Answer:

Current, I = 4.47 Amperes.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the following data;

Inductance = 24H

Energy stored, Eind = 240J

To find the current;

The energy stored in an inductor is given by the formula;

Eind = ½LI²

240 = ½*24*I²

Cross-multiplying, we have;

480 = 24I²

I² = 480/24

I² = 20

Taking the square root of both sides, we have;

Current, I = 4.47 Amp

Answer:

blue and red

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helped

Answer:

Lyndsay charges a better deal

Step-by-step explanation:

With Lyndsay charging $100 for 4 hours you get $20 off because 4 hours with Margaret charges $120.

Answer:

Margaret

Step-by-step explanation: Lyndsay charges 25 dollars an hour for tutoring while Margaret only charges 20 dollars an hour for tutoring. Therefore, Margaret has a WAY better deal, Lyndsay charges 5 more dollars then Margaret.

60 divided by 2: 20

100 divided b 4: 25.

              {~} Izzy ∩﹏∩ {~}

Answer:

C.9

Step-by-step explanation:

2 doz =3eggs

4 doz = 6 eggs

6 doz = 9 eggs

Answer: f(x) = 4*cos(pi*(6/8)*x) + 2

Step-by-step explanation:

A generic cosine function is written as:

f(x) = A*cos(w*x + p) + M

where:

A = amplitude

w = angular frequency

p = phase

M = midline.

We know that:

the midline is 2, then  M = 2

the amplitude is 4, then A  = 4

There is no information about the phase, so p = 0.

And we know that the period is 8/3.

The period is written as T, and the relation between the period and the angular frequency is:

T = 2*pi/w

Then we have:

8/3 = 2*pi/w

w = (2*pi)*(3/8) = pi*(6/8)

where pi = 3.14

Then we have:

w =  pi*(6/8)

A = 4

M = 2

p = 0

Then the cosine function is:

f(x) = 4*cos(pi*(6/8)*x) + 2.

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

3(x + 3) = 12

Multiply 3 by both numbers in the parentheses.

3x + 9 = 12

Subtract 9 from both sides of the equation.

3x = 3

Divide 3 from both sides of the equation.

x = 1

Answer:

$6.96 more was the book than the lunch

Step-by-step explanation:

do cost of the book subtract the cost of the lunch forget the decimals and just subtract like normally. then at the end bring down the decimals, hope this helps

Answer:

hi

Step-by-step explanation:

The rope is originally 100 ft. long. The first piece is 32 ft., leaving 100–32, or 68 ft.

Let n be the second piece, and n-30 be the third piece. Then:

n+n-30=68

2n=98

n=49

n-30=19

The second piece is 49 ft. long; the third piece is 19 ft. long ……..

Answer:

all of them are correct

Hiya! :)

Answer:

They are all correct

Hope this helped!!!

1.2297528e+18

There ya go

Answer:

G. 2/5

add the total amount of bows then find out of that much how many are purple

Answer:

4/10 (2/5)

Step-by-step explanation:

Add all the bows together and then add ur number to the fraction.

EX: 1 blue bow, 6 purple bows, 6, pink bows what is the possibility to get a blue bow?

Add them all together, and then the denominator would be 13. So, there is one bow which means 1 in a 13 chance you will get the blue bow.

Answer:

1356545986--&_67ghtyojioftu?fuñt?fufldtuñf

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

6÷[tex]\frac{3}{4}[/tex]

To make it easier, let's write 6 as a fraction.

[tex]6=\frac{6}{1}[/tex]

Now we get:

[tex]\frac{6}{1}[/tex]÷[tex]\frac{3}{4}[/tex]

Flip the numbers of [tex]\frac{3}{4}[/tex] and multiply instead of dividing and we get:

[tex]\frac{6}{1} *\frac{4}{3}=\frac{24}{3} =8[/tex]

Answer: 8

Step-by-step explanation:

6/1 * 3/4

cross multiply

8

Answer:

The expected number of days per week the captain can leave port is 4.05.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the following distribution:

[tex]P(X = 0) = 0.2[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = 0.05[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = 0.05[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 3) = 0.05[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 4) = 0.15[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 5) = 0.1[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 6) = 0.15[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 7) = 0.25[/tex]

What is the expected number of days per week the captain can leave port.

We multiply each outcome by its probability. So

[tex]E = 0*0.2 + 1*0.05 + 2*0.05 + 3*0.05 + 4*0.15 + 5*0.1 + 6*0.15 + 7*0.25 = 4.05[/tex]

The expected number of days per week the captain can leave port is 4.05.

Answer:

72 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1/18

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1/18

Step-by-step explanation:

1/3 / 6/1 =1/3 x 1/6 = 1/18