For aerobic respiration, a variety of substances must be in a state of influx across the inner membrane. Assuming a brain cell in which glucose is the sole energy source, indicate for each of the following substances whether you would expect a net flux across the membrane and if so, how many molecules will move in which direction per molecule of glucose catabolized.

- electrons
-pyruvate
-oxygen
-ATP
-ADP
-Acetyl CoA
-Glyceral-3-phosphate
-NADH
-FADH2
-Oxaloacetate
-Water
-Protons

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

electrons inflow

pyurvate inflow

oxygen inflow

ATP Outflow

ADP Inflow

Acetyl CoA no net change

Gluceral-3-phosphate no net flow

NADF inflow

FADH2 outflow

Oxaloacetate no net flow

water outflow

proton outflow

Explanation:

Aerobic respiration is the process in which cell get oxygen from within. There is no inflow of oxygen and the movement is minimum. The membrane covering the cell releases the excess oxygen if the initial storage is more than the requirement. This is in the form of outflow in ATP.


Related Questions

The Sanger method of DNA sequencing requires which of the following to be in the reaction tube? Choose one: O A. template DNA O B. deoxyribonucleotides O C. dideoxyribonucleotides O D. A, B, and C are correct. O E. Only A and B are correct. O F. Only A and Care correct.

Answers

D. A, B, and C are correct regarding DNA sequence. A technique for figuring out the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called Sanger sequencing, commonly referred to as the chain termination method.

Frederick Sanger, a two-time Nobel laureate, and his colleagues invented the technique in 1977; hence, the Sanger Sequence. DNA template, DNA sequence primer, thermostable DNA polymerase, nucleotides (dNTPs), dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs), buffer, and dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) are needed for Sanger sequencing. Sanger sequencing is a technique for DNA analysis that uses electrophoresis and is based on DNA polymerase's haphazard incorporation of chain-terminating dideoxynucleotides during in vitro DNA replication. It is frequently used to check for known familial variations, to validate NGS results, and in rare cases, for single gene sequencing.

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A 5.0-μm strand of DNA carries charge +e per nm of length.Treating it as a charged line, what's the electric field strength 25 nm from the DNA,not near either end?

Answers

The electric field near an infinite line charge can be calculated and formulated such that

E= 2kλ/d

Here, k is the Coulomb constant and

λ is the line charge density, and d is the distance from the line charge.

Putting all the values in the given formula,

E= 1.15×10^8 N/C

What do you find DNA?

In organisms called eukaryotes, DNA is found inside a special area of the cell called the nucleus. Because the cell is very small, and because organisms have many DNA molecules per cell, each DNA molecule must be tightly packaged. This packaged form of the DNA is called a chromosome.

Who discovered DNA?

The molecule now known as DNA was first identified in the 1860s by a Swiss chemist called Johann Friedrich Miescher. Johann set out to research the key components of white blood cells part of our body's immune system. The main source of these cells was pus-coated bandages collected from a nearby medical clinic.

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It is possible to compute and express the electric field at an infinite line charge such that E= 2k/d. In this case, d is the distance from the line charge, k is the Coulomb constant, and is the density of the line charge.

E= 1.15×10^8 N/C

Why does DNA matter?

In eukaryotic organisms, the nucleus is a particular area of the cell where DNA is found.

Who made DNA possible?

Although the cell is fairly small, each creature's cell contains several DNA molecules. In the 1860s, a Swiss scientist named Johann Friedrich Miescher discovered the original discovery of the DNA molecule. Johann set out to look into the fundamental components of the white blood cells that make up our bodies' immune systems.

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18. Which of the following organisms do NOT produce gametes?
Spiders
Bacteria
Humans
Giraffes

Answers

Bacteria for sure bby

Which of the following statements regarding the cell cycle are true?
It has three cell cycle checkpoints.
It is regulated by cyclins and CDKs.
Different levels of cyclins are observed at different cell cycle stages.
It can be "paused" by the action of p53.
All of the answer options are true.

Answers

All of the answer options regarding the cell cycle are true.

The cell cycle consists of a series of steps in which chromosomes and other cellular material are replicated to create two copies. The cell then divides into her two daughter cells, each receiving a replicated copy of the substance. The cell cycle is completed when each daughter cell is surrounded by its own outer membrane.

The cell cycle consists of interphase (G 1 , S, and G 2 phases) followed by mitotic phases (mitosis and cytokinesis) and G 0 phases.

The cell cycle can be viewed as the life cycle of a cell. In other words, the sequence of growth and development steps by which a cell undergoes its “birth”, i.e. formation and reproduction by division of the mother cell, dividing to produce two new daughter cells.

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What type of glial cell is responsible for filtering blood to produce CSF at the choroid plexus? a. ependymal cell
b. astrocyte c. oligodendrocyte d. Schwann cell

Answers

Ependymal cell is the type of glial cell is responsible for filtering blood to produce CSF at the choroid plexus.

The central canal of the spinal cord and the ventricles of the brain are lined by ependymal cells, which produce cerebral spinal fluid (CSF). These cuboidal to columnar cells circulate and absorb CSF with the help of cilia and microvilli on their surfaces.

Ependymal cells have a role in the distribution of hormones and neurotransmitters related to the central nervous system, depending on their location. Additionally, the ependymal cells' microvilli have the ability to absorb CSF, control its flow, and allow specific chemicals to enter and exit the brain. The ependyma, like most glial cells, helps to osmotic homeostasis in the brain by regulating glucose and ions.

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6.
Which of the following BEST describes the function of mRNA?
A.it stays in the nucleus and is copied by DNA
B.it carries amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain
C.it makes up the ribosomes and provides the site for protein synthesis
D.it is transcribed from the DNA and carries the information to the ribosome

Answers

Answer:

D.it is transcribed from the DNA and carries the information to the ribosome

Explanation:

Answer BreakdownChoice D is the best answer. mRNA or messenger RNA transfers genetic information from genes to ribosomes to synthesize proteins. Choice A is incorrect. hnRNA or the pre-mRNA transcript stays in the nucleus and is copied by DNA. These kinds of mRNA serve as precursors for mRNAs and other types of RNA.Choice B is incorrect. tRNA or transfer RNA carries amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain. Choice C is not the best answer. rRNA or ribosomal RNA makes up the ribosomes and provides the site for protein synthesis

Please help!!
Choose the set of organisms that would most likely be considered to be one family.

Answers

According to phylogenetic tree, the organisms of 5 and 15 would most likely be considered to be one family.

What are the characteristics of phylogenetic tree?

A phylogenetic tree is a branching diagram or a tree showing the evolutionary relationships among various biological species or other entities based upon similarities and differences in their physical or genetic characteristics.

A phylogenetic tree, also known as a phylogeny, is a diagram that depicts the lines of evolutionary descent of different species, organisms, or genes from a common ancestor.

Phylogenetics is a powerful approach in finding evolution of current day species. By studying phylogenetic trees, scientists gain a better understanding of how species have evolved while explaining the similarities and differences among species.

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ILL GIVE BRAINLIEST Question 3 of 5
What is one way that poor air quality can create problems for humans in the
United States?
A. The loss of trees damages the surrounding ecosystem.
B. Some people lose their vision.
C. The process leads to algal blooms in rivers, streams, and lakes.
D. Some people develop allergies or breathing issues.

Answers

Some people develop allergies or breathing issues is one way that poor air quality can create problems for humans in the United States.

What level of air quality is safe?

The level of poor air quality and the resulting health risk increase with increasing AQI values. An AQI value of 50 or less, for instance, suggests clean air, even though one of over 350 indicates polluted air.

How does the quality of the air influence you?

Poor air quality can aggravate asthma and related disorders, irritate ones eyes, nose, & throat, induce shortness of breath, and have negative effects on the heart and circulatory system. Long-term exposure to contaminated air can result in more severe issues.

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Refer to the life cycles illustrated in the figure below to answer the following question. Which of the life cycles is typical for animals? O I only O ll only O III only O I and III

Answers

I only referes the life cycles, that is typical for animals.

During the meiotic process, a single cell divides twice, producing four cells with only half the original genetic material. The sex cells in males and females are the sperm and eggs, respectively.

After one round of DNA replication in the cells of the male or female repoductive organs of animals, meiosis starts. Meiosis I and meiosis II, the two meiotic divisions, are divided into different phases of the process. Meiosis II mimics mitosis, whereas meiosis I is a unique type of cell division that only happens in germ cells.

Complete question:

Refer to the life cycles illustrated in the figure below to answer the following question. Which of the life cycles is typical for animals?

a)I only

b)  ll only  

c)III only

d) I and III

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Altruistic behavior in animals may be a result of kin selection, a theory maintaining that:
a) genes promote the survival of copies of themselves when behaviors by animals possessing those genes assist other animals that share those genes.
b) aggression within sexes increases the survival and reproduction of the fittest individuals.
c) companionship is advantageous to animals because, in the future, they can recognize those that have helped them and provide help to those individuals.
d) aggression between the sexes increases the survival and reproduction of the fittest individuals.
e) companionship is advantageous to animals because, in the future, they can recognize those that have helped them and request help once again.

Answers

Kin selection, which contends that genes are more likely to survive within a population when they result in actions that benefit other animals who share those genes, may be the cause of altruistic behavior in animals.

What is the kin selection theory in animal behavior?

According to the kin selection theory, animals are more likely to show altruistic behavior toward their relatives than toward other members of their species. Furthermore, data suggests that the stronger the bond, the greater the degree of altruism.

What does altruistic behavior theory entail?

When a person's actions are driven by a desire to help another person for that person's sake rather than their own, that behavior is typically referred to as altruistic. The phrase is used to contrast with being "self-interested" or "selfish."

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What has happened to atmospheric carbon dioxide level and global temperature since the graph in the interactive, which was created in the year 2014?

Answers

There has been a rise in the atmospheric carbon dioxide level and global temperature since 2014.

What is Temperature?

This is referred to as the degree of hotness or coldness of a substance or body and its SI unit is Kelvin.

Carbon dioxide has been on the rise due to it being formed from the combustion of fossil fuel burning thereby leading to global warming.

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Question- forests provide a habitat for many organisms in addition they reduce the amount of dioxide in the atmosphere and produce oxygen what does it mean to say that forests must not only be managed but they must be managed in a sustainable way.


A Quiz: Impacts on Land
on Land
savvasrealize.com
OB. They should be protected from floods.
OC. Trees should be cut in large numbers at a time.
OD. They should be kept usable by future generations.
Savva
Forests provide a habitat for many organisms. In addition, they reduce the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere and produce oxygen. What de
not only be managed, but they must be managed in a sustainable way?
OA No trees should be cut down at all.

Answers

forests provide a habitat for many organisms in addition they reduce the amount of dioxide in the atmosphere and produce oxygen. it mean to say that They should be kept usable by future generations.

Describe a forests.

The most effective ecosystem in nature is a forest, where a high level of photosynthesis has an impact on both the animal and plant systems in a web of intricate biological interactions.

Why are forests significant?

The importance of forests cannot be overstated. We rely on trees for everything we need to thrive, including the oxygen we breathe and the lumber we use. Forests provide more than simply a place for animals to live and a way for people to survive. They decrease the consequences of climate change, safeguard soil erosion, and safeguard watersheds.

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carbohydrates and lipids

Answers

Answer: what about carbohydrates and lipids you're asking about?

Explanation:

which of the following combinations could be linked together to form a nucleotide?

Answers

A nucleotide is made up of the  three components: a nitrogenous base, a five-carbon sugar (ribose or deoxyribose), and one or more phosphate groups.

The nitrogenous bases found in nucleotides are adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), and guanine (G). The sugar found in the RNA is ribose and the sugar found in DNA is deoxyribose.

So, to form a nucleotide, you would need to combine one of the nitrogenous bases (A, T, C, or G) with a sugar (ribose or deoxyribose) and one or more phosphate groups. For example, adenine + ribose + phosphate would form the nucleotide adenosine.

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Roy’s doctor recommend that he watch his blood cholesterol level because his of reading of 200 milligrams per deciliter although Roy’s cholesterol was not excessively high his doctor advised him to improve his eating and exercise habits because of genetic disposition to the heart disease which of the oils below would be the best choice for Roy if you wanted to reduce his intake of saturated fats 

Answers

The best oil choice for Roy would be a polyunsaturated fat, such as olive oil or canola oil. These oils are lower in saturated fat than other fats and can help reduce cholesterol levels.

What is Polyunsaturated Fat?

Polyunsaturated fat is a type of dietary fat found in many nuts, seeds, and vegetable oils.

It is one of the two main types of unsaturated fat, along with monounsaturated fat.

Polyunsaturated fat is considered to be a healthier alternative to saturated fats, and can help to reduce levels of bad cholesterol in the body.

Salmon, vegetable oils, some nuts and seeds, as well as other plant and animal foods including nuts and seeds, contain polyunsaturated fat.

Since cholesterol and trans fats raise your risk of heart disease and other health issues, it is beneficial for your health to consume modest levels of polyunsaturated (and monounsaturated) fat.

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At present, which hypothesis regarding white-nose syndrome seems to be supported by the most evidence?
Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button.
Answer choices

opportunistic hypothesis

viral spread hypothesis

novel pathogen hypothesis

mutation hypothesis

Answers

The majority of the evidence appears to support the novel pathogen hypothesis for white-nose syndrome.

Unknown respiratory pathogens: what are they?

There may be cause for concern if a newly discovered respiratory pathogen, often known as an emerging and novel respiratory pathogen, causes severe acute respiratory illnesses.

What's the point of it?

In literary language, a book is a lengthy narrative work. Both entertainment and story-telling are goals of narrative prose. A group of characters, a location, and an outcome are all described in the description of a series of events. Depending on the genre, the majority of publishers favor novels that are between 80,000 and 120,000 words long.

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Select the description of sensory receptors.


1. A group of neuron cell bodies located in the CNS
2. Organs of the PNS that conduct impulses toward the CNS
3. Cells that detect changes in the body or external environment
4. The axon terminals of efferent fibers that synapse with muscle fibers

Answers

3....................

Scientists sometimes say that we know less about the oceans than the far side of the Moon. Why is it so difficult to learn about the oceans?

Answers

We know more about the moon because we have more tools to get there and when it comes to the ocean we don't have to tools to get there yet to even learn about it.

In the early 1900s, cities such as Philadelphia reduced the incidence of typhoid fever by
A) isolating human carriers.
B) using tertiary water treatment systems.
C) filtering municipal drinking water through sand-bed filters.
D) requiring residents to boil drinking water.
E) mass vaccination of residents.

Answers

In the early 1900s, cities like Philadelphia reduced the incidence of typhoid fever by filtering the city's drinking water through sand bed filters.

In 1906-07, the largest typhoid fever epidemic in history occurred. The infection was due to Emsworth oysters whose oyster beds had been contaminated with raw sewage. The most notorious carrier of typhoid fever, but by no means the most devastating, was Mary Her Marron, also known as Typhoid Her Mary.

Ultimately, Philadelphia adopted a defense that worked well in Europe. That was to clean the water supply with a filtration system. After the construction of filter systems in the early 20th century, the incidence of typhoid fever dropped dramatically and the incidence of the disease was eventually eliminated entirely.

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.

Answer the question stated

Answers

Answer:

Methane is formed as a result of Mining of coal

if trans-2-bromocyclohexanol is treated with sodium hydroxide what is the major product?

Answers

Trans-2-cyclohexanol would be the main byproduct of treating trans-2-bromocyclohexanol with sodium hydroxide.

As a strong base, sodium hydroxide (NaOH) interacts with trans-2-bromocyclohexanol to deprotonate the alcohol and produce the appropriate alkoxide ion. Trans-2-cyclohexanol and hydrobromic acid are created when the hydroxide ion displaces the bromine atom in trans-2-bromocyclohexanol.

It's important to note that the reaction of trans-2-bromocyclohexanol with NaOH requires an excess of NaOH to be completely deprotonate the alcohol, and in case there is not enough NaOH, the product may not be the major product, but a mixture of different products.

The specific mechanism of the reaction of trans-2-bromocyclohexanol with NaOH is called an elimination reaction. The reaction begins with the deprotonation of the alcohol by the hydroxide ion. This results in the formation of the alkoxide ion, which is a much better leaving group than the bromine atom.

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A stimulus that does not initially elicit a response in an organism is a(n) ________.
a. unconditioned stimulus
b. neutral stimulus
c. conditioned stimulus
d. unconditioned response

Answers

A stimulus is considered neutral if it first causes only the attention to be focused. When combined with an unconditioned stimulus in classical conditioning, the neutral stimulus turns into a conditioned stimulus.

An organism initially does not react to a neutral stimuli. The word "neutral" denotes objectivity and independence. As a result, no specific response is connected to a neutral input. When the neutral stimulus is presented repeatedly alongside the unconditioned stimulus at the same time, a response known as a conditioned response will start to be elicited.

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In a population there are 400 AA, 400 Aa, and 200 aa individuals. (a) Calculate allele frequencies. f(A) = 0.6 if(a) = 0.4 (b) Calculate predicted HWE genotype frequencies. f(AA) = 0.36 f(Aa) = 0.48 f(aa) = 0.16 (c) Is this population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? Provide a chi-square value and p-value, and your statistical and biological decision. chi-square value = 15.23 X (round up your answer nearest 100th) 0.1 x > p-value > 0.05 IX Statistical decision: reject (reject / fail to reject) Biological decision: This population is not (is / is not) in HWE.

Answers

Based on the chi-square value and p-value, the statistical decision is to reject the null hypothesis that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The biological decision is that this population is not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

Chi-square value: 15.23

P-value: 0.05

Statistical decision: Reject

Biological decision: This population is not in HWE.

Step 1: Calculate allele frequencies

To calculate allele frequencies, we need to know the total number of alleles in the population. In this case, there are 400 AA, 400 Aa, and 200 aa individuals, for a total of 1200 alleles. Since there are two alleles (A and a), we can calculate the frequency of each allele by dividing the total number of each allele by the total number of alleles:

f(A) = 400/1200 = 0.6

f(a) = 800/1200 = 0.4

Step 2: Calculate predicted HWE genotype frequencies

Using the allele frequencies, we can calculate the predicted HWE genotype frequencies using the equation:

f(AA) = f(A)*f(A) = 0.6*0.6 = 0.36

f(Aa) = 2*f(A)*f(a) = 2*0.6*0.4 = 0.48

f(aa) = f(a)*f(a) = 0.4*0.4 = 0.16

Step 3: Calculate chi-square value and p-value

The chi-square value is calculated by comparing the observed and expected frequencies of the genotypes in the population. In this case, the observed frequencies are 400 AA, 400 Aa, and 200 aa individuals, while the expected frequencies are 0.36 AA, 0.48 Aa, and 0.16 aa individuals. The chi-square value is then calculated as follows:

chi-square value = 15.23

The p-value is calculated by comparing the chi-square value to a chi-square table with 1 degree of freedom. In this case, the p-value is greater than 0.05.

Step 4: Make a statistical and biological decision

Based on the chi-square value and p-value, the statistical decision is to reject the null hypothesis that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The biological decision is that this population is not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

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Which of the following is NOT one of the three main types of stressors? a. Catastrophes b. Significant life changes c. Daily hassles d. Loss of personal control

Answers

C. Daily hassles  is NOT one of the three main types of stressors.

Any factor is referred to as a stressor if it causes the release of stress hormones. Physiological (or bodily) and psychological stressors are the two main categories of stressors. When someone has little to no influence over how a situation will turn out, this happens. have obligations that are too heavy for you. Your life isn't busy enough, active enough, or changing enough. You might experience abuse, hostility, or discrimination. Contrarily, anxiety is defined by excessive worry that continues even when there is no stressor.

causes of stress include:

important adjustments in one's life.

Education or employment.

connections that are difficult

concerns with money.

being too preoccupied

a family and kids.

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When is the cell cycle needed/used? Select all that apply.
O Growth for organisms
O Replacing old cells
O Making sex cells
O Repairing damaging cells

Answers

All besides making sex cells

Which phrase describes faults?

Answers

Answer:

socorrates dijo conócete a ti mismo

yo digo conócete a tus usuarios

y adivina que ellos no piensan como tú

Explanation:

conócete primero a ti mismo

please help meeee
1.The greenhouse effect occurs when
a. cooling towers malfunction.
b. radiated heat from the Earth is absorbed by the atmosphere.
c. steam heating systems are used.
d. ultraviolet light is absorbed by the atmosphere.


2. In a radiant electric system, heat is produced from
a. electric resistance in cables or wires.
b. thermostats.
c. heat pumps.
d. packed fiberglass.


3. Which of the following is not part of a cooling system?
a. storage tank
b. refrigerant
c. compressor
d. cooling tower


4. Answer:
A cooling tower
a. is controlled by a thermostat.
b. cools water as it flows through pipes.
c. cools water through insulation.
d. causes thermal pollution.
5. Answer:
In passive solar heating,
a. buildings have pipes to circulate hot water.
b. a heat exchanger is needed.
c. buildings are heated directly by the sun.
d. a solar collector absorbs sunlight.

Answers

The greenhouse effect occurs when radiated heat from the Earth is absorbed by the atmosphere, hence questions 1- b, 2- c, 3- A, 4- C, and 5- B are correct answers.

What is the greenhouse effect?

The greenhouse effect is the process that happens when the energy in the form heats the planet's surface, but greenhouse gases in the atmosphere absorb it and stop some of the heat from returning directly to space and warming the planet.

In a radiant electric system, heat is produced from the heat pump storage tank that is not part of a cooling system, the cooling tower cools water through insulation.

Therefore, the greenhouse effect occurs when radiated heat from the Earth is absorbed by the atmosphere.

 

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Which of the following is a property of salts

Answers

salts don't pass electricity in solid. conduct electricity in aqueous solution

mark brainliest if correct pls

An organism has a haploid chromosome number n = 4. How many tetrads will form during meiosis? A. two. B. three. C. four. D. eight

Answers

Organism with ''haploid chromosome'' number n=4 will form four tetrads during meiosis . Nearly every human cell contains 46 chromosomes, 23 of which come from one of our parents and 23 highly similar chromosomes from the other parent.

Meiosis is a type of cell division in sexually reproducing organisms that reduces the number of chromosomes in gametes (the sex cells, or egg and sperm). In humans, body (or somatic) cells are diploid, containing two sets of chromosomes (one from each parent). To maintain this state, the egg and sperm that unite during fertilization must be haploid, with a single set of chromosomes. During meiosis, each diploid cell undergoes two rounds of division to yield four haploid daughter cells — the gametes.

The appropriate number of chromosomes in a cell is crucial. The number of chromosomes in a cell or the absence of a chromosome can have a significant impact on how that cell works. Meiosis can be conceptualized as the process by which cells meticulously count and divide their chromosomes to ensure that every gamete, or egg or sperm, contains precisely 23 chromosomes. The resultant fertilized egg contains precisely 46 chromosomes when a sperm with 23 chromosomes fertilizes an egg with 23 chromosomes. And every cell of the new human that emerges from that fertilized egg will contain 46 chromosomes.

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What would the genotype of the parent mice need to produce offspring with the genotypes. FF and Ff? (An empty punnet square is provided to show your work)

Show your work

Answers

The genotypes of the parents to produce offspring with the genotypes FF and Ff are FF and Ff.

What is Punnett square?

The Punnett square is a graphical representation used to determine the frequency of a given genotype.

In this case, the Punnett square may be (alternatively, parents can also be heterozygous):

     F     f

F   FF   Ff

F   FF   Ff

In conclusion, the genotypes of the parents are FF and Ff.

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