It measure the degree of accuracy of the sample mean as an estimate of the population mean​

The probability that 15 people must be asked for Arya to find 5 people who voted for Frey is 0.0610.

a. The distribution of the random variable Z is Negative Binomial distribution. It has the support {5, 6, 7, ... } which represents the total number of trials until the fifth success. b. Let p = probability of success = 0.4 and q = probability of failure = 0.6Then, mean of Z, μ = 5/p = 5/0.4 = 12.5and variance of Z, σ² = (1-p)/p² = (0.6)/(0.4²) = 3.75So, standard deviation of Z, σ = √3.75 = 1.9365 (approx)

Therefore, the mean and standard deviation of Z are 12.5 and 1.9365 respectively.c. The probability that 15 people must be asked for Arya to find 5 people who voted for Frey is P(Z = 15).Using the Negative Binomial probability formula,P(Z = k) = (k-1)C(r-1) p^r q^(k-r)where k is the number of trials, r is the number of successes required,

p is the probability of success and q is the probability of failure.P(Z = 15) = (15-1)C(5-1) (0.4)^5 (0.6)^(15-5)= 14C4 (0.4)^5 (0.6)^10= (14!/4!10!) (0.4)^5 (0.6)^10= 1001 (0.01024) (0.00060466176)≈ 0.0610

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The new position of arrowhead graph ABCD is A'B'C'D' as shown in the below graph.

Graph rotation refers to the process of rotating a graph, which involves changing the orientation of the edges or nodes in the graph while preserving the relationships between them.

From the given arrowhead graph as below; the points labelled are

A (-2, 2), B (0, 5), C (2, 2) and D (0, 3)

On rotating the graph through 90° anticlockwise around the origin (0, 0), the new positions of the points are:

A (-2, 2)  ⇒  A' (-2, -2)

B (0, 5)   ⇒  B' (-5, 0)

C (2, 2)   ⇒  C' (-2, 2)

D (0, 3)   ⇒  D' (-3, 0)

Therefore, the new position of arrowhead graph ABCD is A'B'C'D' as shown in the below graph.

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It pays to purchase the information for any value of c less than $13.25 then we buy the information for a price less than $13.25, we can increase our expected payoff above a loss of $1.

To calculate it Let C1 be the event that the first coin is selected and C2 be the event that the second coin is selected. Then, we have:

P(C1) = P(C2) = 1/2 (since one of the two coins is randomly chosen)

P(H|C1) = 0.6 (probability of getting heads when the first coin is flipped)

P(H|C2) = 0.3 (probability of getting heads when the second coin is flipped)

Let's consider the case when we do not buy the insider's information. Then, our expected payoff can be calculated as follows:

E(X) = P(C1) * P(H|C1) * (10) + P(C1) * P(T|C1) * (-10) + P(C2) * P(H|C2) * (10) + P(C2) * P(T|C2) * (-10)

= (1/2) * (0.610 - 0.410 + 0.310 - 0.710)

= -1

Therefore, if we do not buy the insider's information, our expected payoff is a loss of $1.

Now, let's consider the case when we buy the insider's information for an amount c.

If we buy the information, we will know which coin was selected and we can bet accordingly to maximize our expected payoff.

If we know that the first coin was selected, we should bet on heads since it has a higher probability of occurring. If we know that the second coin was selected, we should bet on tails since it has a higher probability of occurring.

Therefore, if we buy the insider's information, our expected payoff can be calculated as follows:

E(X|buying information) = P(C1) * P(H|C1) * (10-c) + P(C1) * P(T|C1) * (-c) + P(C2) * P(H|C2) * (-c) + P(C2) * P(T|C2) * (10-c)

= (1/2) * (0.6*(10-c) - 0.4c + 0.3(-c) - 0.7*(10-c))

= -0.2c + 1.5

To find the values of c for which it pays to purchase the information, we need to solve the inequality:

E(X|buying information) > E(X)

-0.2c + 1.5 > -1

Solving for c, we get:

c < 13.25

Therefore, it pays to purchase the information for any value of c less than $13.25. If we buy the information for a price less than $13.25, we can increase our expected payoff above a loss of $1.

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Answer: $22.50

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x be the cost per pound of the secret-formula coffee beans.

The total cost of the secret-formula beans is 12x dollars.

The total cost of the other beans is 15 × 18 = 270 dollars.

The total cost of the mix is (12 + 15) × 20 = 540 dollars.

Since the barista mixed 12 pounds of the secret-formula beans with 15 pounds of the other beans, the total weight of the mix is 12 + 15 = 27 pounds.

We can set up an equation based on the total cost of the mix:

12x + 270 = 540

Subtracting 270 from both sides:

12x = 270

Dividing both sides by 12:

x = 22.5

Therefore, the barista's secret-formula coffee beans cost $22.50 per pound.

He bought 4.29 Kilos of fruit.

4+0.29=4.29

Luke bought 4.29 kilograms of fruit in all

Step-by-step explanation:

Simple addition will be used to find the total fruit Luke bought.

Given

Amount of apples he bought  = 4 kilograms

Amount of oranges he bought = 0.29 kilograms

so the total fruit will be:

[tex]\text{total fruit}=\text{Apples}+\text{oranges}[/tex]

[tex]=4+0.29[/tex]

[tex]=4.29[/tex]

So,

Luke bought 4.29 kilograms of fruit in all

Keywords: Measurement, addition

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a) For this experiment, the event that represents a "success" is: Adults not working during summer vacation. (Option a)

b) x is (approximately) a binomial random variable because the experiment consists of identical trials, there are only two possible outcomes on each trial (works or does not work), and the trials are independent. Therefore, (option B) is correct.

c) The value of p for this binomial experiment is 0.2, which is the probability of success (i.e., an adult not working during summer vacation) on a single trial.

d) P(x≥4) is approximately 0.121.
e) the probability that 2 or fewer of the 10 adults do not work during summer vacation is approximately 0.6777.

Probability is a measure of the likelihood or chance of an event occurring, expressed as a number between 0 and 1, with 0 indicating impossibility and 1 indicating certainty.

So with regards to the above:

a) For this experiment, the event that represents a "success" is: Adults not working during summer vacation. (Option a)

b) x is (approximately) a binomial random variable because the experiment consists of identical trials, there are only two possible outcomes on each trial (works or does not work), and the trials are independent. Therefore, (option B) is correct.

c) The value of p for this binomial experiment is 0.2, which is the probability of success (i.e., an adult not working during summer vacation) on a single trial.

d)  To find P(x≥4), we need to use the binomial probability formula:

P(x≥4) = 1 - P(x<4)

P(x<4) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2) + P(x=3)

Using the binomial probability formula, we can calculate:

P(x=0) = (10 choose 0) * (0.2)⁰ * (0.8)¹⁰ = 0.1074

P(x=1) = (10 choose 1) * (0.2)¹ * (0.8)⁹ = 0.2684

P(x=2) = (10 choose 2) * (0.2)² * (0.8)⁸ = 0.3019

P(x=3) = (10 choose 3) * (0.2)³ * (0.8)⁷ = 0.2013

Therefore,

P(x<4) = 0.1074 + 0.2684 + 0.3019 + 0.2013 = 0.879

And,

P(x≥4) = 1 - P(x<4) = 1 - 0.879 = 0.121

Hence, P(x≥4) is approximately 0.121.

e. To find the probability that 2 or fewer of the 10 adults do not work during summer vacation, we need to calculate P(x≤2). We can use the same formula as in part (d), but only sum up the probabilities for x=0, 1, and 2.

P(x=0) = 0.1074

P(x=1) = 0.2684

P(x=2) = 0.3019

Therefore,

P(x≤2) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2) = 0.1074 + 0.2684 + 0.3019
= 0.6777

Hence, the probability that 2 or fewer of the 10 adults do not work during summer vacation is approximately 0.6777.

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The probability that the patients with a toothache has a cavity is 0.3073.

Probability is the extent to which an event is likely to occur.

The probability that the patient has a toothache given that they have a cavity is equal to the percentage of patients with cavities that have toothaches. So, it can be calculated as:

P(toothache | cavity) = 71% = 0.71

Also, the probability that a patient has a cavity is equal to the ratio of patients with cavities to total patients, which is given to be 1 in 23. So,

P(cavity) = 1/23 = 0.04347

The probability that the patient has a toothache can be determined from the fact that 1 in 10 patients have a toothache. So,

P(toothache) = 1/10 = 0.1

The probability that a patient has a toothache and a cavity is calculated as:

P(toothache and cavity) = P(toothache | cavity) * P(cavity) = 0.71 * 0.04347 = 0.0308

The probability that the patient has a toothache given that they have a cavity can be calculated using Bayes' theorem:

P(cavity | toothache) = P(toothache | cavity) * P(cavity) / P(toothache)= 0.71 * 0.04347 / 0.1 = 0.3073

Therefore, the probability that patients with a toothache have a cavity is 0.3073 or about 30.73%.

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The rate at which the value of the computer system is changing 4 years after it was purchased is "Declining at the rate of $8,803.21 per year". The correct option is D.

We can use the exponential decay formula [tex]V(t) = V0 * e^{-kt}[/tex], where V(t) is the value of the computer system after t years, V0 is the initial value, and k is the decay rate.

We know that V(1) = $15,700 and V(0) = $28,000, so we can solve for k:

[tex]$15,700 = $28,000 * e^{-k*1}[/tex]

[tex]e^{-k} = 0.5607[/tex]

-k = ln(0.5607) ≈ -0.5797

k ≈ 0.5797

Therefore, the decay rate is approximately 0.5797 per year.

To find the rate of change of the value of the computer system 4 years after it was purchased, we can take the derivative of V(t) with respect to t:

dV/dt = -k * V0 * [tex]e^{-kt}[/tex]

Substituting t = 4, V0 = $28,000, and k ≈ 0.5797, we get:

dV/dt = -0.5797 * $28,000 * [tex]e^{-0.5797*4}[/tex] ≈ -$8,803.21 per year

Therefore, the value of the computer system is declining at the rate of approximately $8,803.21 per year 4 years after it was purchased.

The correct answer is (D) Declining at the rate of $8,803.21 per year.

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Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

The axis are counting by 2's.

If you start at (0,0) and to one unit to the right and one unit down.  You will be at the point (2,-2).  That point is on the line and in the table.  If you, again, start at (0,0) and go one unit to the lefts and 2 units down, you will be at the point (-2,-4).  Again you are on line line.  This is the only graph that shows those two points on the line.

Helping in the name of Jesus.

Answer: 576

Step-by-step explanation:

134+254+188= 576

the given form of the rate function:[tex]tan² (t) + 1 = sec²[/tex](t)

Therefore, we can write the given function as:c (t) dtUsing integration by substitution, we haveu = tan (t) ⇒ du = sec² (t) dt

Therefore,S [tex]π/t tan (t) sec² (t) dt= S u du= ln |tan (t)| + C[/tex]Thus, the equivalent closed form of the given function is:S π/t 4tan (t) dt= 4 ln |tan (t)| + C

a. S π/π/4 5t+4/t² + 1 dt equivalent closed formThe question demands to find an equivalent closed form for each function. So let's find the equivalent closed form for the given functions:a. S π/π/4 5t+4/t² + 1 dt

Hint: begin by writing as a sum of two functionsNow, we need to write the given function as a sum of two functions. Let's first write the numerator of the function as a sum of two functions.

Using the formula, a²-b² = (a+b)(a-b), we have5t + 4 = (2 + √21)(√21 - 2)Therefore, we can write the numerator of the function as follows:5t + 4 = (√21 - 2)² - 17Using this in the given function,

we haveπ/π/4 [(√21 - 2)² - 17]/t² + 1 dtLet's further simplify the numeratorπ/π/4 [21 + 4 - 4√21 - 17t² + 34t - 17] / (t² + 1) dt= π/π/4 [-17t² + 34t + 8 - 4√21]/(t² + 1) dtLet's now find the closed form of this function using the integration formulaS f(x) dx = ln |f(x)| + C Therefore, the equivalent closed form of the function is:

S π/π/4 5t+4/t² + 1 dt= π/π/4 [-17t² + 34t + 8 - 4√21]/(t² + 1) dt= - π/2 ln |t² + 1| + 34 π/2 arctan (t) - 17 π/2 t + 2 π/√21 arctan [(2t-√21)/ √21] + Cb. S π/t 4tan (t) dt equivalent closed formNow, let's find the equivalent closed form of the second given function.b. S π/t 4tan (t)

dtHint: begin by using a trig identity to change the form of the rate function Let's now use the following trig identity to change

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If the spinner is fair and has an equal chance of landing on each color, then the best prediction possible for the number of times it will land on blue when spun 11 times is 2.

If the spinner is fair, then the probability of it landing on each color is equal. Since the spinner has four colors, the probability of it landing on blue is 1/4 or 0.25.

To determine the best prediction possible for the number of times it will land on blue, we can multiply the probability of it landing on blue (0.25) by the total number of spins (11):

0.25 x 11 = 2.75

However, since we cannot have a fractional number of spins, we must round to the nearest whole number. Since 2.75 is closer to 3 than to 2, we might initially think that the best prediction for the number of times it will land on blue is 3. However, since we are looking for the best prediction possible, we need to consider the probabilities of landing on other colors as well. If we predict that the spinner will land on blue 3 times, then we are predicting that it will land on each of the other colors 2 times. This means that our total prediction is:

Blue: 3

Red: 2

Green: 2

Yellow: 2

              Blue: 2

              Red: 3

              Green: 3

              Yellow: 3

This prediction is the best possible because it gets as close as possible to landing on each color 2 times while still being a whole number. Therefore, the best prediction possible for the number of times the spinner will land on blue when spun 11 times is 2.

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The probability of the following parts is: a. 0.33 b. 1.925 c. 0.176 d. 0.67 e. 0.99955416 f. 0.018318006 g. 0.4489

a. To find out the probability that none of the first three people is concerned about their credit scores, we need to find: P(none of the first three is concerned about their credit scores)we have been given the probability that a teenager is concerned about his/her credit score is 0.67. So the probability that a teenager is not concerned about his/her credit score is 0.33. Now we can say that this is a binomial distribution since we are repeating a procedure until success is achieved. So we can use the binomial distribution to find the above probability: P(none of the first three are concerned about their credit scores) = (0.33)^3 = 0.0359375

b. The expected value of X is given by: E(X) = 1/p = 1/0.67 = 1.4925

c. Variance of X is given by: Var(X) = (1-p)/p^2 = (0.33)/(0.67)^2 = 0.176

d. Since X is the number of teenagers we select who are not concerned about their credit scores before we find the first teenager who is concerned. The probability that X = 0 is the probability that the first teenager we select is concerned about his/her credit score, which is given by: P(X = 0) = p = 0.67

e. To find out the probability that X ≤ 4, we can use the complement rule: P(X ≤ 4) = 1 - P(X > 4) = 1 - [P(X = 5) + P(X = 6) + ....... to ∞] = 1 - (1 - p)^5 = 1 - (0.33)^5 = 0.99955416

f. To find out the probability that Y = 6, we need to find: P(Y = 6)We know that for Y = 6, we need to select 7 teenagers such that the first and the second teenager we select are not concerned about their credit scores, and the third to the seventh teenager we select are concerned about their credit scores. The probability that the first and the second teenager we select are not concerned about their credit scores is given by: P(selecting 2 teenagers not concerned about their credit scores) = (0.33)^2 = 0.1089 And the probability that the third to the seventh teenager we select are concerned about their credit scores is:

P(selecting 5 teenagers concerned about their credit scores) = (0.67)^5 = 0.16806957Therefore, P(Y = 6) = P(selecting 2 teenagers not concerned about their credit scores) * P(selecting 5 teenagers concerned about their credit scores) = 0.018318006

g. To find out the probability that Y = 0, we need to select the first two teenagers who are concerned about their credit scores. P(Y = 0) = P(selecting the first two teenagers who are concerned about their credit scores) = (0.67)^2 = 0.4489.

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Answer:

t = 7h

Step-by-step explanation:

lets have the total amount of helmets as t and helmets per box as h. Then it is t = 7h

The correct answer is the triangle

Triangle : 239 yards

Square : 224 yards

1) The length of DA = 4.5 units

2) The length of CB = 8 units

3) The length of XY = 12 units

Since trapezoids ABCD and WXYZ are similar to each other, their corresponding sides are proportional.

1) Since trapezoids ABCD and WXYZ are similar, their corresponding sides AD and WZ are parallel, and their bases AB and WX are parallel. Therefore, we can use the ratios of the corresponding sides to find DA:

DA/XY = AB/WX

DA/9 = 6/12

DA = (9/12) × 6

DA = 4.5 units

2) Similarly, we can use the ratios of the corresponding sides to find CB:

CB/ZY = AB/WX

CB/12 = 6/9

CB = (12/9) × 6

CB = 8 units

3) We can use the ratios of the corresponding sides to find XY:

AB/WX = DC/ZY

6/12 = DC/XY

DC = (6/12) × XY

DC = 0.5XY

Since ABCD is an isosceles trapezoid, DC = AB = 6. Therefore,

0.5XY = 6

XY = 12 units

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The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:

Isosceles trapezoids ABCD and WXYZ are similar to each other. Label the trapezoids with the given side measures AB=6, WX=12, and, ZW=9

Use similar figures and the given side lengths to complete the following prompts. Enter numerical answers only. If necessary, enter decimal numbers rounded to the nearest tenth of a number. Do not enter your answer as a fraction number.

1. DA =

2.CB =

3.XY =

The smallest number of beads we can take so that the conditions for performing inference are met is 40.

Probability:

The probability of an event is a number that indicates the probability of the event occurring. Expressed as a number between 0 and 1 or as a percent sign between 0% and 100%. The more likely an event is to occur, the greater its probability. The probability of an impossible event is 0; the probability of a certain event occurring is 1. The probability of two complementary events A and B - A occurring or B occurring - adds up to 1.

According to the Question:

Given in the question,

Teacher prepares a large container filled with colored beads. She claims that 1/8 beads are red, 1/4are blue, and the rest are yellow. Your class will test the teacher's claim by randomly drawing a simple sample of beads from the container.

Quadrant                     Frequency

      1                                    18

      2                                   22

      3                                   39

      4                                   21

The proportions are 1/8 , 1/4 and 5/8

Here, the smallest probability is 1/8 , thus it would be used to compute the frequency.

Now,

The expected frequencies are calculated as:

E = np₁ = 15 (1/8) = 1.875

E = np₂ = 16(1/8) = 2

E = np₃ = 30(1/8) = 3.75

E = np₄ = 40(1/8) = 5

E = np₅ = 80(1/8) = 10

Here, conditions are fulfilling for 40 and 90 but the smallest sample size is contained by 40. Thus, the correct option is 40.

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The length of the ladder is c = √(x^2 + 64) ft.

The question is asking to find the length of the ladder. We can use the Pythagorean Theorem to solve this problem. Let x be the length of the ladder.

Pythagoras theorem states that “In a right-angled triangle,  the square of the hypotenuse side is equal to the sum of squares of the other two sides“. The sides of this triangle have been named Perpendicular, Base and Hypotenuse.

Here, the hypotenuse is the longest side, as it is opposite to the angle 90°. The sides of a right triangle (say a, b and c) which have positive integer values, when squared, are put into an equation, also called a Pythagorean triple.

Pythagoras theorem is useful to find the sides of a right-angled triangle. If we know the two sides of a right triangle, then we can find the third side.

The Pythagorean Theorem states that a^2 + b^2 = c^2.

Therefore, x^2 + 8^2 = c^2

Solving for c: x^2 + 64 = c^2

Taking the square root of both sides: √(x^2 + 64) = c

Therefore, the length of the ladder is c = √(x^2 + 64).

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0.64 is the probability that a student chosen at random is in the choir or the band or both.

What does a probability simple definition entail?

A probability is a number that expresses the possibility or likelihood that a specific event will take place. Probabilities can be stated as proportions with a range of 0 to 1, or as percentages with a range of 0% to 100%.

  60 are in choir and band, which leaves 50 (110 - 60) in choir and not band, and 180 (240 - 60) in band and not choir, and the remaining 220 (40 - 50 - 180) students don't belong to either. So

    P( choir or band ) = P(choir) + P(band ) - P( choir and band )

                      = 50/450 + 182/450 - 60/450 = 170/450

                      ≈ 0.38

If instead "110 of them are in choir" means 110 students are in choir and NOT in band, and "240 of them are in bad" means 240 students are in band and NOT choir, then

    P( choir or band ) = 110/450 + 240/450 - 60/450

                                  = 0.64

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It is important to be aware that the distribution of sample means x may not match the distribution of the original x values exactly, due to sampling variability.

if the original distribution of x values is known to be normalize size needs to be large, then the sample size does not need to be restricted in order to claim that the distribution of sample means x taken from random samples of a given size is normal. The sample size should still be at least 30, as this is necessary to produce a reliable result.

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Answer:

x=-2.5

Step-by-step explanation:

3 4(2.5-5) = (1/27) 2(-2.5+10)

I hohonestly don't know how to explain it

The required correct answers are [tex]$$H_0: p = 0.08$$[/tex] , [tex]$$H_a: p < 0.08$$[/tex].

Let p be the proportion of residents in the town who are unemployed. The null hypothesis [tex]$H_0$[/tex] is that the proportion of unemployed residents in the town is the same as the national unemployment rate of 8%. The alternative hypothesis [tex]$H_a$[/tex] is that the proportion of unemployed residents in the town is significantly lower than the national unemployment rate.

Using the appropriate notation, the hypotheses can be expressed as:

$H_0: p = 0.08$

$H_a: p < 0.08$

Therefore, the appropriate set of hypotheses for the mayor's significance test are:

[tex]$$H_0: p = 0.08$$[/tex]

[tex]$$H_a: p < 0.08$$[/tex]

Note that this is a one-tailed test since the alternative hypothesis is only considering the possibility of the proportion being lower than the national unemployment rate

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When the function d(x) = -x +(-3), then the value of d(0) is -3

In mathematics, a function is a relationship between two sets of numbers, called the domain and range. A function assigns each element of the domain to exactly one element of the range.

In the given problem, we are given a function d(x)=-x-3. The notation d(0) represents the value of the function d(x) when x = 0.

To find d(0), we need to substitute x = 0 in the function d(x)=-x-3, which gives:

d(0) = -(0) - 3

The first term -(0) is equal to zero, and the second term -3 is a constant value that remains the same regardless of the value of x. Therefore, we can simplify the expression as

d(0) = -3

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X = 22

Y = 15

youre  welcome! Brainliest would be appreciated :)

The given integral is ∫6 to- 6 ∫36 to x^2 ∫36-y to 0 E)dz dX dy.

This integral can be rewritten as equivalent integrals in different orders of integration. Let's rewrite the integral in the following orders: a. dy dz dx b. dy dx dz c. dx dy dz d. dx dz dy e. dz dx dya. dy dz dx:In this case, we first integrate over z and then y and finally x.

Thus, the equivalent integral is ∫6 to- 6 ∫36 to x^2 ∫36-y to 0 dz dy dx= ∫6 to- 6 ∫36 to x^2 ∫0 to 36-y dz dy dx. Hence, the integral can be rewritten as ∫6 to- 6 ∫36 to x^2 ∫0 to 36-y dz dy dx.b. dy dx dz:In this case, we first integrate over z and then x and finally y.

Thus, the equivalent integral is ∫6 to- 6 ∫36 to x^2 ∫36-y to 0 dz dy dx= ∫6 to- 6 ∫0 to 36 ∫0 to y-36 dz dx dy. Hence, the integral can be rewritten as ∫6 to- 6 ∫0 to 36 ∫0 to y-36 dz dx dy.c. dx dy dz

In this case, we first integrate over z and then y and finally x. Thus, the equivalent integral is ∫6 to- 6 ∫36 to x^2 ∫36-y to 0 dz dy dx= ∫0 to 36 ∫-√(36-y) to √(36-y) ∫-√(36-x^2) to √(36-x^2) dz dx dy.

Hence, the integral can be rewritten as ∫0 to 36 ∫-√(36-y) to √(36-y) ∫-√(36-x^2) to √(36-x^2) dz dx dy.d. dx dz dy:In this case, we first integrate over y and then z and finally x.

Thus, the equivalent integral is ∫6 to- 6 ∫36 to x^2 ∫36-y to 0 dz dy dx= ∫0 to 36 ∫-√(36-y) to √(36-y) ∫-√(36-x^2) to √(36-x^2) dy dz dx.

Hence, the integral can be rewritten as ∫0 to 36 ∫-√(36-y) to √(36-y) ∫-√(36-x^2) to √(36-x^2) dy dz dx.e. dz dx dy:

In this case, we first integrate over y and then x and finally z.

Hence Option E is correct.

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Answer:

171.21

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The slope is 5/4 or 1.25

Step-by-step explanation:

You can find the slope by using the equation (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)=Slope

This time it would be (12-7)/(8-4)

Simplified it would be 5/4 or 1.25

The chi-square goodness-of-fit test is not an appropriate procedure for the logging company to use. It is because chi-square distribution checks for overall population distribution and not an individual category.

A chi-square goodness-of-fit test would be used to show that the entire distribution of trees in the forest is different than what the forester reported, not necessarily the individual proportion representing the spruce trees.

A statistical hypothesis test called the Chi-square goodness of fit test is used to examine whether a variable is likely to come from a certain distribution or not. It is frequently used to determine if sample data is representative of the entire population. When we have counts of values for a categorical variable, we can utilise the test. This test is equivalent to the Chi-square test of Pearson. It can be used to determine whether our expectations and the observed distribution of a categorical variable differ.

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Answer:

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