Natural selection is a process by which organisms that are better adapted to their environment tend toA-increase in sizeB-migrateC-evolve new traitsD-survive

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Answer 1

Natural selection is a process by which organisms that are better adapted to their environment tend to evolve new traits.

In general ,Natural selection is considered as the process through which organisms develop variation in traits, which make them more fit to survive in changing environment survival. Thus , Natural selection primely depends on the environments. Natural selection doesn't depend on the traits that are genetically superior natural trait but they acts on existing heritable variation . These Heritable variation comes from random mutations.

Hence , we can say that Development of genetically modified organisms is  of artificial selection but natural selection come over years of adaptation.

Hence, C is the correct option

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Related Questions

A function ________ eliminates the need to place the function definition before all calls to the function.

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A function prototype eliminates the need to place the function definition before all calls to the function.

The variable that are defined inside the function but not out side the function are local variable and global variable . A static variable that is defined within a function is initialized only once, the first time the function is called. A function prototype is a definition that is used to perform type checking on function calls when the EGL system code does not have access to the function itself. We prototype the function to tell the compiler about the number of arguments and about the required datatypes of a function parameter, it also tells about the return type of the function.

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A ""hot spot"" appears darker than other areas on a bone scan and indicates an area of _________ metabolism.

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A ""hot spot"" appears darker than other areas on a bone scan and indicates an area of increased metabolism.

Nuclear imaging is used during a bone scan to assist identify and monitor various bone diseases. In order to observe internal structures like bones, such as the bones in the body, nuclear imaging uses small amounts of radioactive chemicals (radiotracers), a particular camera that can detect the radioactivity, and a computer. These could be metabolic or other chemical activity levels. Hot spots are regions with higher intensity. These might exhibit high levels of radiotracer concentrations as well as intense chemical or metabolic activity.

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The coagulation pathway that begins with the release of tissue factor iii from damaged tissue is:_______

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The coagulation pathways that begins with the release of tissue factor from damage tissues is Extrinsic pathways. Its is a pathway of blood coagulation activated by endothelial tissue .

The clotting of blood is two pathways - intrinsic and extrinsic pathways.Extrinsic pathway is activated by any external trauma or external injury which causes blood to escape from the tissues.

Coagulation pathways is path which allows for rapid healing of injury and prevent from bleeding or other bacterial infection.coagulation also known as clotting , the process by which blood change into gel from liquid.This mechanism of coagulation involves activation, adhesion and aggregation.

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Parents that are heterozygous for having freckles (dominant) are crossed. Which correctly describes their offspring?
Twenty-five percent have freckles.
Twenty-five percent are Ff.
Seventy-five percent have freckles.
Seventy-five percent are Ff.

Answers

Answer:

Seventy-five percent have freckles

Answer:75% have freckles

Explanation:edgenity 2022

plan an investigation on how temperature affects seed germination. ​

Answers

Answer:

Moisture, hormone production, and enzyme activity. For seeds to germinate, they need to imbibe water. For this to occur, sufficient moisture must be present. A warmer climate may increase evaporation and decrease moisture, which would negatively affect germination.

What happens during prophase of meiosis l?
a) spindle fibers reform and attach to the haploid chromosomes
b) cytokinesis begins, the cells pinch off, forming two cells
c) the spindle fibers are made by centrosomes and are attached to the centromeres of the chromosomes
d) the duplicated homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange their chromatid segments

Answers

During prophase of meiosis l happens the duplicated homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange their chromatid segments.

What is meiosis I stage?

Meiosis I begins with prophase I, a phase marked by the progressive condensation of chromosomes, exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids, formation of the spindle (bundle of microtubules), breakdown of the nuclear envelope and the beginning of the migration of homologous chromosomes towards to the metaphase plate.

In this case, is correct to say that the duplicated homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange their chromatid segments occurs in meiosis I.

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how do adoptions affect a species

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Adaptations are passable traits that improve an organism's capacity to endure and procreate in a given environment. An organism can manage in harsh settings, locate food and water, and protect itself by adapting.

What is adaptation?Three definitions of adaptability are connected. First, natural selection, a dynamic evolutionary process, adapts organisms to their environments, improving their evolutionary fitness. Second, it is a state that the populace has attained throughout that process.Any heritable characteristic that enables a plant or animal to survive and procreate in its environment is referred to as an adaptation.A method by which a species or organism adapts to its surroundings better. Science calls the shift evolution when a group of organisms does this throughout time. Behavior is the manner in which something often a person or other organism conducts itself or acts toward others.Having particular traits or behaviors that allow an animal or plant to survive in its environment is referred to as adaptation.

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Injury to cervical vertebra c 3-c 4 is particularly problematic because ________.
A. part of the brain stem is located hereB. several ganglia are near this region that serve the heartC. the phrenic nerve that serves the diaphragm receives its fibers from hereD. the greater auricular nerve that serve the parotid gland receive there fibers from here

Answers

Injury to cervical vertebra c 3-c 4 is particularly problematic because C) the phrenic nerve that serves the diaphragm receives its fibers from here.

The top portion of the spinal cord, which is made up of the seven cervical vertebrae (C-1 to C-7) in the neck, is located in the cervical region of the spine.Cervical spinal cord injuries are often the most serious kind of spinal cord injury because they affect a bigger area of the body and are closer to the brain. Tetraplegia or quadriplegia, which means there is little to no feeling or movement below the shoulders or neck, will develop from a cervical injury. The cervical spine's middle segment is made up of the C3, C4, and C5 vertebrae. Injuries to the cervical vertebrae C3–C5 are frequently severe because they inflict more harm to the central nervous system.

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What is the prominent red blood cell (rbc) morphologic feature found in lead poisoning (plumbism)?

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The basophilic stippling is a prominent red blood cell, morphologic feature found in lead poisoning (plumbism).

The basophilic stippling is a frequent manifestation of hematologic disease in the peripheral blood, and it is also observable in bone marrow aspirates.

The lead poisoning inhibits the ability to produce hemoglobin by interfering with enzymatic steps in the heme synthesis pathway and reduce red blood cells, which results in the increasing risk of anemia.

The interference of lead in the development of RBCs results as the exposure to a very small amount of lead greatly changes the surface of the red blood cells. The permeability of water gets altered which results in shrinking and so they aren't capable of swelling up like other normal cells.

The hematologic system is involved with lead poisoning where one can find anemia as a result of it.

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In a hardy-weinberg population, 16% of individuals display the homozygous recessive phenotype. What proportion of the population will be heterozygous carriers of the recessive allele?.

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Proportion of the population will be heterozygous is 0.48

Let's start with the basic Hardy-Weinberg equations first.

p + q = 1 and p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1

With "p" being the dominant allele and "q" being the recessive allele

We know that 16% (or 0.16) show the recessive trait. This means that the fraction of the population with the recessive trait, q^2 is 0.16

With the value for q^2, q can be calculated

What follows is that q = 0.4

With this knowledge "p" can be calculated 1 - q= p

which results in "p" being 0.6

This 0.6 is the frequency at which the dominant allele is present in the population

heterozygous = 2pq = 2 (0.6 x 0.4) = 0.48

Hence, proportion of the population will be heterozygous is 0.48

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A student did an experiment with ice. A beaker of ice was placed on a hot plate for 30 minutes and its temperature was recorded after every 5 minutes. The table below represents how the temperature and state of ice changes with time.


Time from start (in minutes) 0 5 10 15 20 25 30
State of matter in beaker ice water P water Q steam steam
Temperature of matter in beaker (in ° C) 0 0 50 80 100 100 142


What do the labels P and Q most likely represent?
both P and Q represent ice
both P and Q represent water
P represents ice and Q represents steam
P represents steam and Q represents ice

Answers

From the table, we can see that  P and Q represent water. (Option B)

What does P and Q represent?

We know that the liquid range of water is 0 - 100 degrees Celsius. Within this temperature range, water exists as a liquid substance.

Looking at the table we can see that the temperatures of P and Q are 50 and 100 degrees Celsius respectively hence both P and Q represent water.

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Reduced microglial immunoreactivity for endogenous NMDA receptor agonist quinolinic acid in the hippocampus of schizophrenia patients

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Postmortem and positron emission tomography have shown that microglial cells play a pathophysiological role in schizophrenia.

Reduced microglial immunoreactivity for endogenous NMDA receptor?

We postulated that the previously mentioned glutamatergic impairments in the hippocampus of schizophrenia patients may be related to the microglial synthesis of quinolinic acid (QUIN), an endogenous N-methyl-d-aspartate receptor (NMDAR) agonist. Reduced microglial immunoreactivity for endogenous NMDA receptor agonist quinolinic acid in the hippocampus of schizophrenia patients. We measured the number of QUIN-immunoreactivity microglial cells in the CA1, CA2/3, and dentate gyrus (DG) regions of the posterior hippocampus formation in schizophrenia patients and matched controls. HLA-DR, a popular microglial surface marker, was further immunostained in nearby histological sections. In the CA1 hippocampus sub region of schizophrenia patients compared to controls, fewer QUIN-immunoreactivity microglial cells were seen (left p=0.028, right p=0.018). In the CA2/3 and DG areas, no notable diagnosis-dependent alterations were seen. Potential confounding factors such as age, disease duration, autolysis time, psychotropic medication, and hippocampus volume were taken into account while analyzing these results. There were no variations in the overall density of microglial cells linked to diagnosis (HLA-DR expression). Our results imply that schizophrenia is related with decreased microglial QIUN content in the hippocampus CA1 region. We surmise that this connection could be a factor in schizophrenia patients' hippocampus' decreased glutamatergic neurotransmission.

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Which three statements provide reasons that scientists are considering renewable sources of energy?

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These are the three explanations that give reasons that scientists are considering renewable source of energy:

1. Renewable sources are assets implies they are old and reliable sources.

2. Most renewable sources are effectively accessible in nature.

3. Renewable resources are cost-effective in contrast with non-renewable resources.

A renewable energy source implies energy that is feasible, that can't run out, or is unending, similar to the sun. It is additionally named 'alternative energy'. These assets are fit for recovery. The recovery of these sources includes a few biological cycles on a time scale. Sun, water, air, and heat from the earth are sustainable sources that we can use to make solar-based, tidal, wind, and geothermal energy. Renewable energy is additionally called green or eco energy.

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Identify the process seen in the picture and write a short note on it.

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The process seen in the image is hay harvesting, which is widely used as fodder.

What is hay for?

Hay is a viable alternative to be used as fodder (for animals to feed in the troughs) if there is not enough pasture or the climate is unfavorable for grazing. It is also used for animals that must be kept in the stable or barn (eg when the females are pregnant).

With this information, we can conclude that Hay is a mixture of mown and dried plants that can be used as fodder.

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Plssss help answer must be two lines

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Answer:

Explanation:

When the chemical 'x' was added to the plant at the time of 5.0, the Chemical (mineral) intake took at a fast pace of .5 sec (as shown in graph).

The Mineral is transported to the whole plant body via Xylem.

a,u

The chemical started to react the plant at 7.5 mins

It is said that "animals do not have plastids, but they depend on them". explain.

Answers

Answer: because this has a relation with the food chain of lower levels like herbivores.

Explanation:

as you know plastids are the main source of food production in plants. As they meet the food requirements in plants but animals don't have it so the lower levels like deer who eat grass depend on these plastids of plants to fulfill the need for food and nutrients as animals cant process or made their food. and carnivores fed on these herbivores for their food consumption. so you can indirectly relate this statement to the food chain. and this is how animals depend on plastids found in plants.

Which statement is true concerning the skeletal system?
There are 600 bones in the human body.
Bile is produced in the bone marrow.
Bones protect vital organs.
Carbohydrates are stored in the bones.
The smallest bone is found in the foot.

Answers

Answer:

bones protect vital organs

Explanation:

there are approx 200+ bones only on average, hence the first is out

bike is produced in the bike duct which acts to break down fats into simpler substance for the body to intake

red blood cells are produced and stored in the bones and not carbohydrates

the smallest bone is found in your ear, hence the last one is out

Is the following statement true or false? the most frequent sign and symptom of a developing pulmonary embolus is tachypnea and dyspnea

Answers

The statement is True.

Dyspnea has a multi-factorial origin, resulting from bronchospasm or vasospasm, disturbances in pulmonary circulation, immobility or diminished respiratory excursion of the diaphragm, atelectasia and/or pulmonary infarction, anoxia, or impairment of cardiac function.

Dyspnea, chest pain, and cough are the most frequent symptoms of Pulmonary Embolism(PE), while fever, tachycardia, abnormal pulmonary signs, and peripheral vascular collapse are the most common physical findings.

Pulmonary embolism (PE) occurs when a blood clot gets stuck in an artery in the lung, blocking blood flow to part of the lung. Blood clots most often start in the legs and travel up through the right side of the heart and into the lungs. This is called deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

Clot in the lung circulation (pulmonary embolus): Breathlessness is usually sudden and associated with rapid breathing and may be accompanied by chest pain.

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If you suspect corrupted system files are causing issues, what command can be run to verify and restore the corrupted files?

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The command can be run to verify and restore the corrupted files SFC /scan now.

Regardless of the reason, it might be, in case you encounter any associated troubles, windows 10 consists of the System File Checker (SFC), a command-line device designed to experiment with the integrity and repair missing or corrupted machine files with running replacements.

Gadget record Checker is an application in Microsoft windows that permits customers to scan for and repair corrupted windows gadget files.

First, log into windows 10. next, click on the quest button on the lowest left, and type the command prompt. while you see the Command set off program indexed, right-click it, then click Run as Administrator. The System File Checker will then begin strolling.

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Which of the following examples can cause gene flow between populations?
A) an increase in predators to a population of zebra
B) a volcanic eruption that kills half of a population of mice
C) bird droppings that contain seeds from a different location
D) a person that sprays a toxin on a group of mosquitoes

Answers

Answer: c. Bird droppings that contain seeds from a different location

C

Gene flow is the process by which certain alleles (genes) move from one population to another geographically separated population.

What two environmental factors influence the shape of a proteins?

What is the term called when the shape of a protein is changed?

What impact does this change in shape have on the proteins ability to function or job?

Make sure to use complete sentences, and write a sentence to answer each question.

Answers

The shape of proteins are affected by temperature and pH.

The change of shape of proteins is known as denaturation.

Denaturation of a protein will make it unable to function.

What factors affect protein functions?

Proteins are large molecules which are found in living organisms.

The shape of proteins are affected by temperature and pH of their environment.

The change of shape of proteins is known as denaturation.

Denaturation of a protein will make it unable to function since protein function depends on its shape.

In conclusion, protein denaturation affects its function.

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How much of the land in the Chesapeake Bay watershed is used for
agriculture?

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Answer:

Across the Chesapeake Bay watershed, 23 percent of the land is used for agriculture and almost 12 percent has been developed. Most of the remaining land is forested.

Under normal conditions, the adult bone marrow produces approximately 70 billion neutrophils. what is the major function of neutrophils?

Answers

Neutrophils is sign of body infection.If you have high neutrophils which is present in human blood then its is known as Neutophilia.

Its a type of white blood cells (WBC) its an important part of immune system which helps body to fights with infection. When micro organisms such as bacteria or viruses are enter in human body then these neutrophils are the first immune cells to respond.

Under normal conditions, the number of neutrophils in healthy person is between 2,500 to 6,000 .If neutrophils are increases of deceases in human body then doctor suggested antibodies.It may eventually go away, or remain as a life - long condition.

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Will the real atomic model please stand up?,” describe what Dalton’s theory states about a molecule of water.

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According to  the Dalton's atomic theory, we can see that there are two atoms that compose the water molecule.

What is the atomic model?

The atomic theory states that matter is made up of small particles called atoms. These atoms are capable of independent existence and can take part in chemical reaction.

From the Dalton's atomic theory, we can see that there are two atoms that compose the water molecule. These atoms are hydrogen atom and the oxygen atom.

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A new animal is discovered that is more sensitive to pain in its toes than its fingers. If we were to examine the brain of this animal we would notice that ________.

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A new animal is discovered that is more sensitive to pain in its toes than its fingers. If we were to examine the brain of this animal we would notice that the parietal lobe would have more brain area devoted to the toes than the fingers.

What is the parietal lobe's primary purpose?

The parietal lobe is one of the major lobes in the brain, roughly located at the upper back area of the skull.It is found on both the left and right hemispheres of the cerebral cortex.

Somatosensory information from the body, such as touch, pain, temperature, and the perception of limb position, is processed by the parietal lobes. The parietal lobes play a role in integrating data from several modalities, just like the temporal lobes do. Parietal lobe houses the primary somatic sensory cortex, a part of the brain that processes information from various parts of the body.

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DNA:_______.
a. is single stranded.
c. directs cellular function.
b. contains six different nucleotide bases.
d. contains the base uracil.

Answers

DNA is single-stranded. There are two types of DNAs, fiber polymer(ssDNA) and double-stranded polymer (dsDNA). Consequently, the polymer binding proteins typically contain fiber DNA-binding proteins (SSBs) and double-stranded DNA-binding proteins(DSBs).

Single-stranded DNA binding proteins (SSBs) and double-stranded DNA binding proteins (DSBs) are two different types of DNA binding proteins that participate in many biological processes.

While SSBs typically serve roles in DNA replication, recombination, and repair, among other processes, DSBs typically operate as transcriptional factors to control the expression of the genes. For the study of protein functions, knowing a DNA binding protein's binding specificity is useful.

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Determine whether the following statement is true or false, and why: "Populations are dynamic, responding to variations in their environment."
A. False, it should read "Populations are static, responding to variations in their environment."
B. False, it should read "Populations are dynamic, they do not respond to variations in their environment."
C. False, it should read "Populations are static, they do not respond to variations in their environment."
D. True

Answers

The is true that populations are dynamic and respond to variations in their environment (option D).

What is a population?

A population is the collection of organisms of a particular species, sharing a particular characteristic of interest and living in a given area.

However, populations of organisms are dynamic in nature, meaning that they can change over time in response to environmental conditions.

Therefore, it is true that populations are dynamic and respond to variations in their environment.

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When your cell makes a new compound, such as glycogen from many glucose molecules, usable energy is needed and is obtained by which action?

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When cells makes a new compound, such as glycogen from many glucose molecules, usable energy is needed and is obtained by removing a phosphate group from ATP, producing energy plus ADP plus phosphate.

What is ATP?

This is referred to as adenosine triphosphate and is the energy currency of the cells.

This is  usually formed from the synthesis of ADP and a phosphate group thereby making it the most appropriate choice.

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The principle of competitive exclusion states that two species cannot __________ Multiple Choice coevolve. have the same carrying capacity. be part of the same food chain. occupy the same niche.

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The principle of competitive exclusion states that two species cannot occupy the same niche.

What is competitive exclusion?Two species cannot coexist in the same ecological niche for very long without one becoming extinct or being driven out because of competition for limited resources.As an illustration of competitive exclusion, the red squirrels in Britain have displaced the grey squirrels.There were fewer red squirrels as a result of diseases, competitive exclusion, and the removal of hazelnuts.Red squirrels were eventually displaced by gray squirrels, who quickly adjusted to their surroundings.Two species with identical niches cannot survive indefinitely, according to the "competitive exclusion principle" (CEP).The competitive exclusion principle states that when two competing living forms attempt to occupy the same niche, only one outcome is possible: One of them will eradicate the other.

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Cardiac triggering monitors cardiac motion by coordinating the rf excitation pulse with the ______ wave of cardiac systole.

Answers

Cardiac triggering monitors cardiac motion by coordinating the rf excitation pulse with the R-wave of cardiac systole.

What is the function of the heart monitor?

A heart monitor is useful for measuring the rate of your beats per minute, especially if you do some physical activity. Continuous monitoring during practice helps to manage the functioning of the organism, visualizing when the heart beats increase and decrease

Through the electrocardiogram (ECG), the multi-parameter vital signs monitor follows the patient's heartbeat, which are captured through the ECG cable that is connected to some points on the patient's chest.

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Which of the following observations poses a challenge to the cultural differences argument? a. ) The premises do not support the conclusion, so the argument is invalid. B. ) Premise 2 is false because moral truths are not always easily discovered. C. ) The premises are true and the argument is valid, but the conclusion is still false. D. ) Premise 1 is false because disagreement does not mean there is no objective truth You are depositing $30 each month in a credit union savings club account. You are getting 0. 7%monthly (8. 4% annually) interest on the account. Write a recursive rule for the nth month. TRUE/FALSE. wait for 500ms; is a valid statement use stokes' theorem to find the circulation of f=2yi 7zj 3xk around the triangle obtained by tracing out the path (5,0,0) to (5,0,2), to (5,3,2) back to (5,0,0). a girl tosses a candy bar across a room with an initial velocity of 8.2 m/s and an angle of 56o. how far away does it land? 6.4 m 4.0 m 13 m 19 m all gram-negative organisms are pyrogenic due to what part of their cell wall? group of answer choices lipopolysaccharides teichoic acids plasma membrane lipoteichoic acid phospholipids when the government increases taxes on individuals, consumption (click to select) and the ad curve (click to select) . consider the reduction of 4tbutylcyclohexanone. if the procedure calls for 149 mg of 4tbutylcyclohexanone, what mass of sodium borohydride should be added? Experimental evidence for the stereospecificity of the bromine addition will be collected by ____________.A. obtaining a GC of the productB. obtaining an IR of the productC. obtaining a melting point of the productD. observing the color of the product In H. J. Muller suggested a genetic test to determine whether a particular mutation whose phenotypic effects are recessive to wild type is a null (amorphic) allele or is instead a hypomorphic allele of a gene. Muller's test was to compare the phenotype of homozygotes for the recessive mutant alleles to the phenotype of a heterozygote in which one chromosome carries the recessive mutation in question and the homologous chromosome carries a deletion for a region including the gene. In a study using Muller's test, investigators examined two recessive, loss-of-function mutant alleles of rugose named and The eye morphologies displayed by flies of several genotypes are indicated in the following table. is a large deletion that removes rugose and several genes to either side of it.a. Which allele is stronger (that is, which causes the more severe mutant phenotype)?b. Which allele directs the production of higher levels of functional Rugose protein?c. How would Muller's test discriminate between a null allele and a hypomorphic allele? Suggest a theoretical explanation for Muller's test. Based on the results shown in the table, is either of these two mutations likely to be a null allele of rugose? If so, which one?d. Explain why an investigator would want to know whether a particular allele was amorphic or hypomorphic.e. Suppose that a hypermorphic allele exists that causes rough eyes due to an excess of cone cells. Could you use Muller's genetic method to determine that the dominant allele is hypermorphic? Explain.f. Suppose an antimorphic allele exists Can you think of a way to determine if a dominant mutation is antimorphic? (Hint: Assume that in addition to the chromosome with a deletion that deletes a chromosome with a duplication that includes the wild-type gene is available.) calculate the atp yield from oxidation of stearic acid, taking into account the energy needed to activate the fatty acid and transport it into mitochondria. 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When setting a two-dimensional character array, how is the size (number of characters) in the second dimension set?Select an answer:The number of elements are equal to the average size of all the strings.To the length of the longest string; you don't need to add one because the first array element is zero.To the length of the longest string, plus one for the null character.The second dimension is equal to the number of strings, plus one. 20N10N40N30N Balanced or Unbalanced? Evaluate the definite integral.e81e49 dx / x/ln x for the reaction 2h2o2(aq) 2h2o(l) o2(g), what mass of oxygen is produced by the decomposition of 100.0 ml of 0.979 m hydrogen peroxide solution? Part A. Utilize recursion to determine if a number is prime or not. Here is a basic layout for your function. 1.) Negative Numbers, 0, and 1 are not primes. 2.) To determine if n is prime: 2a.) See if n is divisible by i=2 2b.) Set i=i+1 2c.) If i^2 n. Why? Take n=19 as an example. i=2, 2 does not divide 19 evenly i=3, 3 does not divide 19 evenly i=4, 4 does not divide 19 evenly i=5, we don't need to test this. 5*5=25. If 5*x=19, the value of x would have to be smaller then 5. We already tested those values! No larger numbers can be factors unless one we already test is to. Hint: You may have the recursion take place in a helper function! In other words, define two functions, and have the "main" function call the helper function which recursively performs the subcomputations l# (define (is_prime n) 0;Complete this function definition. ) Part B. Write a recursive function that sums the digits in a number. For example: the number 1246 has digits 1,2,4,6 The function will return 1+2+4+6 You may assume the input is positive. You must write a recursive function. Hint: the built-in functions remainder and quotient are helpful in this question. 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