[o[2]. [2] A parachute opens during the spacecraft’s descent through the atmosphere.

Figure 2 shows the parachute—spacecraft system, with the open parachute displacing

the atmospheric gas. This causes the system to decelerate.

Figure 2

_--» displacement of gas


parachute — \

direction \

of travel \


/
. . ——~ spacecraft

displacement of gas

Explain, with reference to Newton's laws of motion, why displacing the atmospheric

gas causes a force on the system and why this force causes the system to

decelerate.

[4 marks]

Answers

Answer 1

Consider a moment during the motion of the parachute. It travels down and the atmospheric gas is in contact with it all the time.

Those layers of air that come into contact with the parachute are stationary compared to their behavior just after contacting with the parachute as they are moved \displaced at the speed of the parachute.This action on the gas make their momentum to change.Change in momentum (during a lesser time actually) impose a huge force on it. This conforms to the Newton's first lawThis huge force in return, is applied on the parachute at the same magnitude & the opposite direction conforming to the Newton's third law.

That is why displacing air imposes a force on the system.

And why that force puts the system in deceleration is because it acts along the opposite direction to the direction parachute is moving.That force is larger than the sytems's own weight which at the moment acting towards the ground.Then a net force is along upwards.Then conforming to the Newton's second law there is an acceleration generated.But that acceleration is upwards but a deceleration when considered with respect to the system's view\sense.

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[o[2]. [2] A Parachute Opens During The Spacecrafts Descent Through The Atmosphere. Figure 2 Shows The

Related Questions

An object is subjected to a friction force with magnitude 4.50 N, which acts against the object's velocity. What is the work (in J) needed to move the object at constant speed for the following routes? (a) the purple path o to A followed by a return purple path to O ________ J. b) the purple path O to C followed by a return blue path to O ________ J (c) the bluc path O to C followed by a retum blue path to O ________ J.

Answers

The work done (needed to move the object at constant speed for the following routes is (a) the purple path o to A followed by a return purple path to O 0 J, (b) the purple path O to C followed by a return blue path to O 21.67 J, (c) the bluc path O to C followed by a retum blue path to O 43.33 J.

(a) The purple path o to A followed by a return purple path to O.

The work done on an object is given by the product of force acting on the object and the displacement of the object in the direction of the force applied. Therefore, the work done on an object is given by the formula

W = Fd,

where W is the work done, F is the force applied, and d is the displacement of the object.

When an object is moved at a constant speed, its acceleration is zero, which means that the net force acting on the object is zero. Therefore, the force applied to the object is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to the force of friction acting against the motion of the object.

The displacement of the object along the purple path o to A followed by a return purple path to O is zero since the object starts and ends at the same point. Therefore, the work done on the object is zero, which is represented by 0 J.  

(b) The purple path O to C followed by a return blue path to O

The displacement of the object along the purple path O to C is given by the distance between O and C. The distance between two points is given by the formula

d = √((x2 - x1)2 + (y2 - y1)2), where x1 and y1 are the coordinates of the initial point O and x2 and y2 are the coordinates of the final point C.

The coordinates of O are (0, 0), and the coordinates of C are (5, 3). Therefore, the distance between O and C is given by

d = √((5 - 0)2 + (3 - 0)2) = √(25 + 9) = √34 m.

The work done on the object along the purple path O to C followed by a return blue path to O is given by the product of the force and the distance, which is

W = Fd = (4.50 N) × (√34 m) = 21.67 J (rounded to 2 decimal places).

(c) The blue path O to C followed by a return blue path to O.

The displacement of the object along the blue path O to C is given by the distance between O and C. The distance between two points is given by the formula d = √((x2 - x1)2 + (y2 - y1)2), where x1 and y1 are the coordinates of the initial point O and x2 and y2 are the coordinates of the final point C.

The coordinates of O are (0, 0), and the coordinates of C are (5, 3). Therefore, the distance between O and C is given by d = √((5 - 0)2 + (3 - 0)2) = √34 m.

The work done on the object along the blue path O to C followed by a return blue path to O is given by the product of the force and the distance, which is

W = Fd = (4.50 N) × (2√34 m) = 43.33 J (rounded to 2 decimal places).

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A refrigerator absorbs 5.0 kJ of heat from a cold reservoir and releases 8.0 kJ to a hot reservoir.
(a) Find the coefficient of performance of the refrigerator.
(b) The refrigerator is reversible. If it is run backward as a heat engine between the same two reservoirs, what is its efficiency?
______%

Answers

(a) The coefficient of performance of the refrigerator is 0.625, indicating that 5.0 kJ of heat absorbed by the refrigerator produces 8.0 kJ of heat released to the hot reservoir. (b) When run backward as a heat engine between the same two reservoirs, the refrigerator has an efficiency of 37.5%.

(a) The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is given by the ratio of the heat absorbed from the cold reservoir to the work input. Here, the heat absorbed is 5.0 kJ and the heat rejected to the hot reservoir is 8.0 kJ. Therefore, the work input is:

Work input = Heat rejected - Heat absorbed

= 8.0 kJ - 5.0 kJ

= 3.0 kJ

So, the coefficient of performance is:

Coefficient of performance = Heat absorbed / Work input

= 5.0 kJ / 3.0 kJ

= 1.67

Therefore, the coefficient of performance of the refrigerator is 1.67.

(b) The efficiency of a heat engine is given by the ratio of the work output to the heat input. In this case, the refrigerator is run backward as a heat engine between the same two reservoirs. So, the heat input to the engine is 8.0 kJ and the work output is the same as the work input of the refrigerator, which is 3.0 kJ. Therefore, the efficiency of the heat engine is:

Efficiency = Work output / Heat input

= 3.0 kJ / 8.0 kJ

= 0.375

So, the efficiency of the heat engine is 37.5%.

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A horizontal force of magnitude 35.0N pushes a block of mass 4.00kg across a floor where the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.600. (a) how much work is done by the applied force on the block-floor system when the block slides through a displacement of 3.00m across the floor? (b) during that displacement the thermal energy if the block increases by 40.0J. what is the increase in thermal energy of the floor? (c) what is the increase in the kinetic energy of the block?

Answers

Answer to following (a) , (b) and (c) question are: 63.00 J, 40.0 J, 63.00 J

(a) The work done by the applied force on the block-floor system when the block slides through a displacement of 3.00m across the floor can be calculated by multiplying the applied force (35.0 N) and the displacement (3.00 m), with a coefficient of kinetic friction (0.600) for the system. Thus, the work done is 35.0N * 3.00m * 0.600 = 63.00 J.

(b) The increase in the thermal energy of the floor during the displacement of 3.00m is equal to the thermal energy of the block (40.0 J), since the total thermal energy of the block-floor system remains constant. Therefore, the increase in thermal energy of the floor is 40.0 J.

(c) The increase in the kinetic energy of the block is equal to the work done by the applied force, i.e., 63.00 J.

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a ping fails when performed from router r1 to directly connected router r2. the network administrator then proceeds to issue the show cdp neighbors command. why would the network administrator issue this command if the ping failed between the two routers?

Answers

The network administrator might issue the "show cdp neighbors" command after a ping fails between two directly connected routers (in this case, from R1 to R2) to obtain more information about the neighbors of each router.

The Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is a proprietary protocol used by Cisco devices to share information about neighboring devices on the network. By issuing the "show cdp neighbors" command on Router R1, the network administrator can view information about the directly connected devices, including Router R2. The command will display information such as the device ID, local interface, and the platform of the neighboring device. This information can help the network administrator to determine if the neighboring device is correctly identified and if there are any connectivity issues with the neighboring device. If the "show cdp neighbors" command shows that Router R2 is not identified as a neighbor of Router R1, the network administrator may need to check the physical connectivity between the two devices or check if there is an issue with the configuration of either router. On the other hand, if Router R2 is identified as a neighbor, the network administrator may need to investigate further to determine the root cause of the ping failure.

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a thin spherical metallic shell of radius 2.31 cm is has a charge of -3.1 uc uniformly distributed on its surface. what direction does the electric field point at a distance of 4.2 cm from the origin? a. there is no electric field b. radially outward c. tangential to the surface d. radially inward

Answers

The electric field's direction is radially inward because the charge is negative. Hence, the correct option is (d)

The given electric charge is -3.1uc, uniformly distributed over a thin spherical metallic shell with a radius of 2.31cm.

The electric field direction at a distance of 4.2cm from the origin can be found using Gauss's law.

The electric field is proportional to the electric charge enclosed by the spherical metallic shell within a closed surface.

The electric flux is defined as the electric field passing through the closed surface divided by the electric field.

For instance, The electric flux through a closed surface is proportional to the electric charge enclosed by that surface.

E is the electric field,

ΦE is the electric flux, and

Qenc is the electric charge enclosed by the surface in Gauss's law.

Here, the Gaussian surface is a sphere with a radius of 4.2cm.

We can calculate the electric field direction using the same formula as before, which is given by;

E = Qenc/4πε0r², where r = 4.2cm

Let's substitute the values and simplify = (-3.1 x 10⁻⁶)/(4π x 8.85 x 10⁻¹² x (4.2 x 10⁻²)²)E = -5.82 x 10⁴ N/C

Therefore, radially inward. The electric field is a vector field that exists around charged objects.

The field is proportional to the charge and inversely proportional to the distance between the charges.

A positive charge will emit electric field lines, whereas a negative charge will attract them. The electric field is represented by the letter E and is calculated in units of newtons per coulomb (N/C).

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the force applied to the cart in the above question by spring scale fa is still 10.5n. the cart now moves toward the right with an acceleration also toward the right of 1.75m/s2. what is the magnitude of friction force (in n)? 1.0

Answers

The frictional force acts opposite to the relative motion between two surfaces in contact. The magnitude of the frictional force (in N) acting on the cart is 41.16 N.

According to the given question, the force applied to the cart by the spring scale, Fa = 10.5 N. The cart is moving towards the right with an acceleration of 1.75 m/s2 towards the right. We need to find out the magnitude of the friction force (in N) acting on the cart.

We know that the frictional force (Ff) opposes the relative motion between two surfaces in contact. Hence, it acts in the opposite direction of motion or impending motion.

In this case, the cart is moving towards the right with an acceleration of 1.75 m/s2 towards the right. Therefore, the direction of frictional force will be towards the left, i.e., opposite to the direction of motion.

We can use the formula to find the magnitude of the frictional force:

Ff = μk x N

Where μk is the coefficient of kinetic friction and N is the normal force.

Since the cart is moving, we can consider that the frictional force acting on it is kinetic friction. Therefore, we can use the coefficient of kinetic friction to calculate the magnitude of the frictional force.

Now, we need to find the normal force, N.

N = m x g

Where m is the mass of the cart and g is the acceleration due to gravity.



We do not know the mass of the cart. However, we can find it using the force applied to it by the spring scale.

Fa = m x a

Where a is the acceleration of the cart.

Substituting the given values, we get:

10.5 N = m x 1.75 m/s2
m = 6 kg

Now, we can find the normal force:

N = m x g
N = 6 kg x 9.8 m/s2
N = 58.8 N

We have found the normal force, N. Now, we can use the coefficient of kinetic friction to find the magnitude of the frictional force.

The coefficient of kinetic friction can vary depending upon the nature of the surfaces in contact. Here, it is not mentioned, so let us assume a value for it. The coefficient of kinetic friction for rubber on concrete is approximately 0.7.

Therefore, the magnitude of the frictional force is:

Ff = μk x N
Ff = 0.7 x 58.8 N
Ff = 41.16 N

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In a P-N-P transistor application, the solid state device is turned on when the
base is negative with respect to the emitter.
A P-N-P transistor conducts between the emitter and collector (is turned on) when a small amount of current flows into the base. This current flows when the emitter-base junction is forward biased. It is forward biased when the base is negative with respect to the emitter.

Answers

A P-N-P transistor is turned on when the base is negative with respect to the emitter.

How the transistor is turned on when the base is negative with respect to the emitter

The operation of a P-N-P transistor is based on the principle of a semiconductor diode. When a small current is applied to the base, it causes a larger current to flow through the emitter and collector. This is because the base-emitter junction is forward-biased, allowing electrons to flow from the emitter to the base. At the same time, the collector-base junction is reverse-biased, allowing holes to flow from the base to the collector.

This flow of electrons and holes produces a current gain. The amount of current gain depends on the type of transistor and the amount of current applied to the base.

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which of the four maxwell equations explains how a magnetic stripe credit card reader works? group of answer choices gauss's law for electric fields. gauss's law for magnetic fields. ampere's law. faraday's law.

Answers

The Maxwell equation that explains how a magnetic stripe credit card reader works is Faraday's law.

Faraday's law states that a changing magnetic field will induce an electromotive force (EMF) in a conductor. In a magnetic stripe credit card, the stripe contains small magnetic particles that are arranged in a particular pattern.

As the card is swiped through the reader, the magnetic field in the reader's head changes, causing a corresponding change in the magnetic field of the stripe. This change in magnetic field induces an EMF in the conductor, which is then read by the reader and used to extract information from the card.

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a bar magnet falls under the influence of gravity along the axis of a long copper tube. if air resistance is negligible, will there be a force to oppose the descent of the magnet? if so, will the magnet reach a terminal velocity? explain.

Answers

A bar magnet falls under the influence of gravity along the axis of a long copper tube. If air resistance is negligible, there will be a force to oppose the descent of the magnet. The magnet will reach a terminal velocity. Here's why:

If the magnet falls down a copper tube under the influence of gravity, it generates an electric current that opposes the magnetic field that was created. As a result, a magnetic force is created, which opposes the fall of the magnet. As a result, there is a force opposing the descent of the magnet.The magnet will reach a terminal velocity due to the drag created by the copper tube.

As the magnet falls, it encounters the resistive forces of the copper tube, causing it to slow down. As the speed decreases, the resistive forces decrease until the drag force is equivalent to the force of gravity. The magnet then reaches a steady state called the terminal velocity. This is a state in which the magnet continues to fall, but at a steady pace since the resistive forces are balanced by the gravitational forces.

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What particular appropriate program/application is installed on the system where in the user can utilize and browse educational websites?​

Answers

You may access instructional websites using a web browser like G##gle Chrome, M*Zilla Firefox, Saf#ri, or Micr#soft Edge_.

Users can only access and engage with websites on the internet via a web browser, which is a necessary programme. It is a piece of software that downloads web pages and shows them on the computer or device of the user. Several features, such bookmarks, tabbed browsing, and private browsing, are included in web browsers to make browsing simpler. Users may quickly visit educational websites to study, research, or locate materials on a certain topic by using a web browser like G**gle Chr*me, M*zilla F#refox, S*fari, or Micr#soft Edge_. Moreover, web browsers let users personalise their surfing by enabling extensions or plugins that improve functionality or restrict objectionable information.

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the range of frequencies on the electromagnetic spectrum called by?

Answers

The range of frequencies on the electromagnetic spectrum is known as the electromagnetic spectrum.

The spectrum ranges from radio waves, microwaves, infrared waves, visible light, ultraviolet rays, x-rays, and gamma rays. Each type of wave has a specific frequency range, ranging from hertz (Hz) to exahertz (EHz). The lowest frequency waves, such as radio waves, range from 3 kHz to 300 GHz, while the highest frequency waves, such as gamma rays, range from 300 GHz to 3 EHz.
The electromagnetic spectrum is divided into several sections, including radio waves, microwaves, infrared radiation, visible light, ultraviolet radiation, x-rays, and gamma rays. Each type of wave has its own properties and uses in different applications. Radio waves are used for communication, microwaves are used in satellite communication and imaging, infrared radiation is used in medical imaging, visible light is used to see our environment, ultraviolet radiation is used in sun protection and sterilization, x-rays are used in medical imaging and treatment, and gamma rays are used in medical treatment and research.

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In the classroom demonstration shown to the left, a rubber ball is dropped from Position 1. The ball bounces as shown. At which of these positions does the ball have both the greatest kinetic energy and the least potential energy? (6.8A)Position 1Position 2Position 3Position 4

Answers

The rubber ball has both the greatest kinetic energy and the least potential energy at position 3.

According to the conservation of energy, the total mechanical energy of a system remains constant. There are two forms of energy - potential energy and kinetic energy.Potential energy (PE) is the energy that an object possesses due to its position or shape. It has the potential to do work when it moves.Kinetic energy (KE) is the energy an object possesses when it moves. It's given by the equation KE = 1/2mv².In the image shown, when the ball is at Position 1, it has potential energy and no kinetic energy. The ball has zero speed at this position.

As the ball falls to the ground, its potential energy is converted to kinetic energy. At position 3, the ball has the most kinetic energy and the least potential energy. At this point, the ball is moving at the maximum velocity.When the ball reaches Position 4, it bounces off the ground and loses some of its kinetic energy due to the collision. It bounces back up and begins to gain potential energy again. At position 2, the ball has the least kinetic energy and the most potential energy. The ball stops momentarily at this position before falling again.Hence, the rubber ball has the greatest kinetic energy and the least potential energy at position 3.

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write the expression for the frequency of a mass m on a spring moving vertically. suppose that k is the spring constant. express your answer in terms of some or all of the variables k , m , g .

Answers

Answer:

ω = (k / m)^1/2        ω is proportional to the spring constant and inversely proportional to the mass (square root of these quantities)

ω = 2 π f

f = 1 / 2 π (k / m)^1/2       expression for frequency of mass m

how can cepheid verianble stars be used to calculate the distance to far away galaxies or star clusters

Answers

Answer: Cepheid variable stars can be used to calculate the distance to faraway galaxies or star clusters by measuring the period of the star's brightness variation. The period of the variation is directly proportional to the star's intrinsic luminosity.

Explanation:

Cepheid variable stars are pulsating stars with a well-defined relationship between their period of pulsation and their absolute magnitude. These stars are particularly essential because the period-luminosity relation is linear, allowing them to act as standard candles.

Cepheid variable stars can be used to estimate the distances to nearby galaxies by comparing their observed brightness with their known luminosity. Cepheids are particularly useful for determining the distances of galaxies that are too distant for parallax measurements to be made or for which there are no other standard candles available.

Cepheids' pulsation periods are extremely consistent, ranging from a few days to a few months. They're used as yardsticks for measuring the distance to objects in our galaxy as well as in other galaxies.

By comparing the apparent brightness of the Cepheids with their actual brightness, astronomers may use the period-luminosity relationship to determine the distance to the Cepheid, as well as the distance to the galaxy in which it resides.

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Cepheid variable stars can be used to calculate the distance to faraway galaxies or star clusters by measuring the period of the star's brightness variation.

Cepheid variable stars are pulsating stars with a well-defined relationship between their period of pulsation and their absolute magnitude.

Cepheid variable stars can be used to estimate the distances to nearby galaxies by comparing their observed brightness with their known luminosity.

Cepheids are particularly useful for determining the distances of galaxies that are too distant for parallax measurements to be made or for which there are no other standard candles available.

By comparing the apparent brightness of the Cepheids with their actual brightness, astronomers may use the period-luminosity relationship to determine the distance to the Cepheid, as well as the distance to the galaxy in which it resides.

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hydroelectric, wind, geothermal, and parabolic solar collection all rely on spinning turbines (connected to a generator) to produce electricity. explain how each provides the force to do so.

Answers

Hydroelectric energy is generated by capturing the energy of flowing water. As water flows through a turbine, the blades of the turbine spin and generate electricity.

How does the different energies provide force?

Wind energy is generated by capturing the kinetic energy of the wind. As wind passes through the turbine, the blades spin and generate electricity.

Geothermal energy is generated by harnessing the natural heat of the Earth’s core. Heat from the Earth’s core is used to generate steam, which is then used to spin a turbine and generate electricity.

Parabolic solar collection is a method of collecting the sun’s energy using large reflective mirrors. The mirrors focus the sunlight onto a central point, which is then used to spin a turbine and generate electricity.

Thus, all of these power sources rely on spinning turbines connected to a generator to produce electricity.

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A 2 kg object is released from rest near the surface of a planet such that its gravitational field is considered to be constant. The mass of the planet is unknown. The

object's speed after falling for 3 sis 75 m/s. Air resistance is considered to be negligible, Calculate the weight of the 2 kg object on the planet of unknown mass.

2N

B

25 N

50N

D

75 N

Answers

The Answer is 50N .

An object is propelled along a straight-line path by a force. If the net force were doubled, the object's acceleration would be? a) half as much b) twice as much c) the same d) none of these. e) four times as much.

Answers

An object is propelled along a straight-line path by a force. If the net force were doubled, the object's acceleration would be b. twice as much.

Force is a vector quantity that measures the interaction between two objects, it is described by its magnitude and direction. If there is no opposing force, the force will cause the object to accelerate. Acceleration is the rate at which the velocity of an object changes. The acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the force applied to it. So, if the net force acting on an object is doubled, the acceleration of the object will also double.

An object's acceleration is directly proportional to the net force acting on it, if the net force acting on an object doubles, the acceleration of the object will double as well. Force is a vector quantity that describes the interaction between two objects. The force is proportional to the product of the mass of an object and its acceleration. As a result, if the mass of an object is constant, the acceleration of the object will be directly proportional to the force applied to it. The relationship between force and acceleration is expressed in Newton's second law, which states that force equals mass times acceleration.

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which measurement is the most accurate measure of the density of platinum?

Answers

The most accurate measure of the density of platinum would be obtained through the measurement of its mass and volume, and then calculating its density using the formula: Density = Mass / Volume.

Platinum's density can be determined most precisely by measuring its mass and volume, then applying the formula Density = Mass / Volume to determine both of those quantities. It is crucial to employ the most precise and accurate tools available to guarantee the highest level of accuracy in these measurements. Accurate measurements could be taken using the following methods: Calculate the platinum sample's mass using an analytical balance that has a high degree of accuracy. To prevent any loss or contamination, the balance should be calibrated before use, and the sample should be handled carefully. The volume of the platinum sample should be measured using a method like water displacement or a volumetric flask.

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which of the following actions will cause the relative humidity of an air parcel to increase? select all that apply
a. Keep the parcel’s temperature constant and increase the parcel’s dew point
b. Decrease the parcels temperature and increasethe parcels dew point
c. Keep the parcel’s temperature constant and keep the parcels dew point constant
d. Increase the parcels temperature and increase the parcels dew point
e. Keep the parcels dew point constant and increase the parcels temperature

Answers

The relative humidity of an air parcel will increase if any of the following actions are taken:

Keep the parcel’s temperature constant and increase the parcel’s dew pointDecrease the temperature of the parcel and increase the parcels dew pointIncrease the temperature of the parcel and increase the parcels dew pointKeep the parcels dew point constant and increase the temperature of the parcel

What is relative humidity?

To understand this further, we can look at the formula for relative humidity, which is the amount of water vapor in the air divided by the amount of water vapor that can exist at a particular temperature. When the temperature is kept constant and the dew point increases, the amount of water vapor in the air increases, resulting in an increase in relative humidity.

The followings are the given options and the actions they will take that will cause the relative humidity of an air parcel to increase:

Option A: Keep the parcel's temperature constant and increase the parcel's dew point. This action would increase the RH of the air parcel because it will increase the quantity of water vapor in the air parcel. As the parcel's temperature is constant, the ability of the air to hold water vapor also remains constant.

Option B: Decrease the parcel's temperature and increase the parcel's dew point. This action would also increase the RH of the air parcel. As the temperature of the parcel decreases, the amount of moisture that the air can contain also decreases. When the dew point is raised, the quantity of water vapor in the air parcel rises relative to the amount it can carry.

Option C: Keep the parcel's temperature constant and keep the parcel's dew point constant. In this case, there will be no increase in RH because the quantity of water vapor in the air parcel will remain the same as the ability of the air to hold water vapor remains constant.

Option D: Increase the parcel's temperature and increase the parcel's dew point. Increasing the parcel's temperature will raise the ability of the air to hold water vapor, but it will not increase the amount of water vapor in the air parcel. As a result, the RH of the air parcel will decrease.

Option E: Keep the parcel's dew point constant and increase the parcel's temperature. This action will also decrease the RH of the air parcel as it will increase the amount of moisture that the air can hold. Thus, the relative humidity will decrease.

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Write down the method for the verification of Newton's second law of motion

Answers

We can verify the Newton's second law of motion mathematically by using the momentum impulse relation.

The rate of change of a body's momentum is directly proportional to the applied force and occurs in the direction in which the force operates, according to Newton's Second Law of Motion. where F is the applied force, M is the body's mass, and A is the resulting acceleration.

One way to state Newton's second law of motion is as follows:

Force is inversely correlated with change in momentum and time.

Now, F is directly proportional to mv-mu t or m(v-u) t [where (v-u) represents the acceleration, or change in velocity].

As a result, we discover that F is inversely proportional to m.

By using a constant k, this relationship F is directly proportional to ma can be transformed into an equation.

Thus, F=kma (where k is constant)

The preceding equation is now F=ma or Force= Mass*Acceleration because the value of k in SI units is 1.

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When you increased the pulley diameter in part 2 of the lab, which statement best describes what happened? A. The time for 5 revolutions decreased because the force got larger and rotational inertia stayed the same. B. The time for 5 revolutions increased because the torque remained unchanged, but the rotational inertia decreased. C. The time for 5 revolutions decreased because the lever arm got larger, and rotational inertia stayed the same. D. The time for 5 revolutions increased because the torque remained unchanged, but the rotational inertia increased. E. The time for 5 revolutions increased because the air resistance was less.

Answers

The statement (D) "The time for 5 revolutions increased because the torque remained unchanged, but the rotational inertia increased." best describes what happened when the pulley diameter was increased.

Rotational inertia is the capacity of a rotating object to oppose a modification in its rotational motion. The larger the rotational inertia of an object, the more force must be added to accelerate it. Rotational inertia is determined by an object's mass distribution and the way it rotates around an axis.

In part 2 of the lab, the time for 5 revolutions increased because the torque remained unchanged, but the rotational inertia increased. When the pulley diameter increased, the pulley's moment of inertia increased as well, implying that the rotational inertia of the system increased. As a result, more torque was required to rotate the pulley, and the time for 5 revolutions also increased.

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2.2 VECTORS IN TWO 120 N bearing 70° and 160 N bearing 40°

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Assuming you want to find the resultant vector of the two given vectors:

We can use the graphical method or the component method to find the resultant vector. Here, I will demonstrate the component method:

Step 1: Convert the given vectors into their component form (i.e., horizontal and vertical components).

Vector 1: 120 N bearing 70°

Horizontal component = 120 cos(70°) ≈ 38.23 N

Vertical component = 120 sin(70°) ≈ 113.41 N

Vector 2: 160 N bearing 40°

Horizontal component = 160 cos(40°) ≈ 122.15 N

Vertical component = 160 sin(40°) ≈ 103.08 N

Step 2: Add the horizontal components and vertical components separately to get the components of the resultant vector.

Horizontal component of resultant vector = 38.23 N + 122.15 N ≈ 160.38 N

Vertical component of resultant vector = 113.41 N + 103.08 N ≈ 216.49 N

Step 3: Use the Pythagorean theorem to find the magnitude of the resultant vector.

Magnitude of resultant vector = √(160.38 N)^2 + (216.49 N)^2 ≈ 268.15 N

Step 4: Find the direction of the resultant vector.

Direction of resultant vector = tan^-1(216.49 N / 160.38 N) ≈ 53.12°

Therefore, the resultant vector of the two given vectors is approximately 268.15 N at a bearing of 53.12°.

one electron collides elastically with a second electron initially at rest. after the collision, the radii of their trajectories are 0.00 cm and 3.00 cm. the trajectories are perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.0350 t. determine the energy (in kev) of the incident electron.

Answers

The energy of the incident electron is 26.3 keV. The energy is calculated from the conservation of energy which states that the initial energy is equal to the final energy of the electrons. Total energy is sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of the electrons.

The initial energy of the incident electron can be determined using the following equation:

[tex]E_{initial}= \Delta K + E_{final} + U[/tex]

where ΔK is the change in kinetic energy, [tex]E_{final}[/tex] is the final energy, and U is the potential energy.

Here, the second electron is initially at rest, and after the collision, the trajectories of the two electrons are at 90° to a uniform magnetic field. The magnetic force is perpendicular to the direction of motion, and hence, there is no work done. The potential energy U is, therefore, zero.

Initially, only the incident electron has energy, and hence, its initial energy is equal to its kinetic energy.

[tex]E_{initial} = \Delta K + E_{final}[/tex]

But, [tex]E_{final} = \frac{1}{2}mv_f^2[/tex]

Therefore,

[tex]E_{initial} = \Delta K + \frac{1}{2}mv_f^2[/tex]

The change in kinetic energy ΔK can be calculated using the following equation:

[tex]\Delta K = K_f - K_i[/tex]

But, [tex]K_i = \frac{1}{2}mv_i^2[/tex] where, [tex]v_i[/tex] is the initial velocity of the incident electron.

Therefore,

[tex]\Delta K = K_f - K_i= \frac{1}{2}mv_f^2 - \frac{1}{2}mv_i^2[/tex]

Substituting the given values,

[tex]\Delta K = \frac{1}{2}(9.11 \times 10^{-31} kg)(4.24\times 10^5 m/s)^2 - \frac{1}{2}(9.11\times10^{-31} kg)(3\times10^8 m/s)^2\\= -4.22\times10^{-15} Joules[/tex]

The energy of the incident electron can be converted to keV by dividing it by the charge of an electron and then multiplying by 1000.eV .

Therefore,

[tex]E_{initial} = 4.22 \times 10^{-15} J / (1.602 \times 10^{-19} C/eV)\\ = 26.3 keV[/tex]

Thus, the energy of the incident electron is 26.3 keV.

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the concentration of which component of the atmosphere varies the most?

Answers

The concentration of water vapor varies the most in the atmosphere.

The atmosphere is a thin layer of gas that surrounds the Earth. The atmosphere is composed of roughly 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, with trace amounts of other gases like argon and carbon dioxide. In addition, water vapor and aerosols are also present in the atmosphere.

Water vapor is the atmospheric component that fluctuates the most in concentration. It has a critical role in the planet's climate and is present in varying amounts in all parts of the atmosphere. Water vapor concentration is essential in the Earth's energy balance since it is a greenhouse gas that captures radiation from the sun and heats the planet's surface.

The amount of water vapor in the atmosphere can vary greatly depending on the temperature, location, and other environmental factors. Warm air can hold more water vapor than cold air, and areas with higher humidity can have more water vapor than arid regions. Overall, the concentration of water vapor in the atmosphere is constantly changing and fluctuating.

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If the ammeter has the following reading when set on the 0.5 A scale, what is the current it is measuring? 2A 0.2 A 0.002A 0.02 10A

Answers

If the ammeter readings are greater or lower than the scale's range, the device is either overloaded or unable to measure the current reliably on the 0.5A scale.

The current being measured is more than the scale's range if the ammeter is calibrated for a 0.5 A scale and reads 2A. Alternatively put, If the ammeter is calibrated for 0.5 A and displays 0.2 A, Similarly, if the ammeter registers 0.002A, the current being measured is 0.002A or less and falls within the range of the scale. A reading of 0.02A on the ammeter indicates that the current being measured is 0.02A or less and falls within the range of the scale. If the ammeter reads 10A, the ammeter is overloaded and the current being measured is greater than what the scale can handle.

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A Nichrome wire 75 cm long and 0.25 mm in diameter is connected to a 1.7 volt flashlight battery.
A) What is the electric field inside the wire?
B) Next the Nichrome wire is replaced by a wire of the same length and diameter, and same mobile electron density but with electron mobility 4 times as large as that of Nichrome. Now what is the electric field inside the wire?

Answers

The electric field inside the wire is still about 2.27 V/m, even though the electron mobility is 4 times higher. This is because the resistance of the wire remains the same, and Ohm's law still applies. The higher conductivity only means that a higher current flows through the wire for the same voltage, but the electric field remains the same.

We can use Ohm's law to find the electric field inside the Nichrome wire:

V = IR

where

V = 1.7 volts (battery voltage)

I = current

R = resistance of the wire

The resistance of a wire can be calculated using the formula:

R = (ρL) / A

where

ρ = resistivity of the material

L = length of the wire

A = cross-sectional area of the wire

The resistivity of Nichrome is about 1.10 x 10^-6 Ωm, and the cross-sectional area of the wire can be calculated using the formula for the area of a circle:

A = πr^2

where

r = radius of the wire = 0.125 mm = 0.000125 m

So, A = π(0.000125 m)^2 = 4.91 x 10^-8 m^2

Substituting the values, we get:

R = (1.10 x 10^-6 Ωm)(0.75 m) / (4.91 x 10^-8 m^2)

R ≈ 0.017 Ω

Now we can find the current:

I = V / R

I = 1.7 volts / 0.017 Ω

I ≈ 100 amps

The electric field inside the wire can be calculated using the formula:

E = V / L

where

E = electric field

V = potential difference

L = length of the wire

Substituting the values, we get:

E = 1.7 volts / 0.75 m

E ≈ 2.27 volts/meter or 2.27 V/m

So the electric field inside the Nichrome wire is about 2.27 V/m.

Next, we can repeat the calculations for the wire with the higher electron mobility. Since the mobile electron density and the length and diameter of the wire are the same, the resistance of the wire will also be the same as before. However, the higher electron mobility means that the wire will have a higher conductivity, which in turn means that the current will be higher for the same voltage.

Let's assume that the electron mobility is 4 times higher than that of Nichrome. Since the resistivity of the material remains the same, the conductivity will be 4 times higher as well. Therefore, the current will be 4 times higher than before:

I = 4 x 100 amps = 400 amps

Using the same formula as before, the electric field inside the wire can be calculated:

E = V / L

E = 1.7 volts / 0.75 m

E ≈ 2.27 volts/meter or 2.27 V/m

So, the electric field inside the wire is still about 2.27 V/m, even though the electron mobility is 4 times higher. This is because the resistance of the wire remains the same, and Ohm's law still applies. The higher conductivity only means that a higher current flows through the wire for the same voltage, but the electric field remains the same.

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how would you describe the direction of the electric fields for all the points with one simple statement?

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The direction of the electric fields for all the points can be described with one simple statement that states "Electric fields flow from the point of the positive charge to the point of the negative charge".

Positive charges generate electric fields that travel outward from their positions. Negative charges generate electric fields that travel inwards toward their positions. Electric fields are invisible and have no mass or charge.

The direction of the electric field is always perpendicular to the equipotential lines, indicating the direction of the force acting on the charge. When two charges are placed near each other, they will create electric fields. The electric fields will interact with each other, and the resulting force is a product of the interaction of the electric fields.

The electric field generated by the negative charge flows towards the positive charge. The electric field generated by the positive charge flows away from the positive charge.

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how long does it take a tsunami wave to cross the pacific ocean?

Answers

Answer:

Assume that the tsunami wave moves at a constant velocity.

The pacific ocean is approximately 12,300 miles wide, and a tsunami wave moves at roughly 500 mi/h.

12,300/500=24.6h

1) A marble, rolling with speed 20 cm/s, rolls off the edge of a table that is 80 cm high.

(a) How long does it take to drop to the floor?

(b) How far, horizontally, from the table edge does the marble strike the floor?

Answers

The required time to drop the floor is calculated to be 0.4 s.

The distance travelled horizontally from the table for the marble to strike the floor is 8 cm.

The speed of the rolling marble is given as 20 cm/s.

The height of the table is given 80 cm.

The time taken to drop it to the floor is calculated as,

h = u t + 1/2 g t²

u = 0, so, h = 1/2 g t²

g t² = 2 h

t² = 2 h/g

t = √2h/g = √2(0.8)/9.8 = 0.4 s

The horizontal distance travelled by the marble is calculated as,

x = v₀ t = 20 (0.4) = 8 cm

Thus, horizontal distance is calculated as 8 cm.

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A(n) __________ is the attribute in the supertype entity that determines to which entity subtype each supertype occurrence is related.
a. subtype discriminator
b. inheritance discriminator
c. specialization hierarchy
d. entity supertype

Answers

A subtype discriminator is the attribute in the supertype entity that determines to which entity subtype each supertype occurrence is related. Option (a) is correct.

The entity supertype is a concept in a database schema that represents a group of entities that share the same attributes or characteristics. A subtype is a subset of entities that possess specific distinguishing characteristics or attributes that are not present in the supertype. A subtype will have at least one different attribute or relationship, apart from all of the characteristics that the supertype contains.

A subtype is a refinement of a supertype entity. An entity type, known as the supertype, has multiple subtypes that can be derived from it. Subtypes may be exclusive (disjoint) or nonexclusive (overlapping). Exclusive subtypes contain nonoverlapping entities, whereas nonexclusive subtypes have overlapping entities.

Supertype and subtype entities can be used in conjunction with the entity-relationship model. A subtype is a distinct entity that has one or more attributes that are specific to it but not present in its supertype. The subtype of an entity is said to be derived from its supertype by extension or specialization.

Therefore, option (a) is correct.

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