All of space is flat. The universe is centred on the earth. Either plants nor animals make up all living things.
It contains a summary of the findings, a determination of whether the hypothesis was confirmed, the importance of this study, and suggestions for further investigation. What exactly is a test? It is a thorough process intended to verify a hypothesis. If a new or revised theory explains all the old concept did and then some, scientists are inclined to accept it. All of space is flat. The universe is centred on the earth. Either plants nor animals make up all living things. Data analysis is the act of figuring out what the results of an experiment indicate, identifying patterns in that data, and speculating on the significance of those patterns.
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can all genetic mutations be observed with a karyotype and explain
Answer:
Yes.
Explanation:
Karyotypes can reveal changes in chromosome number associated with aneuploid conditions, even such as chromosome abnormalities and diseases.
Imagine two genes, C and D, that are unlinked. A diploid individual with genotype CD/cd makes gametes with no errors in meiosis. What percent of that individual's gametes are expected to be CD?
O 25O 24O 22O 26
If genes are unlinked, all four test cross offspring types, also with a and b/b, might equal 25%. In this case, making a mistake by adding the total number of dominating creatures first from two groups and utilizing that data to get the result.
How can the quantity of eggs and sperm that a genotype produces be calculated?The method 2n, where n is the number of distinct variants represented in the genotype, can be used to determine how many eggs and sperm are generated by a particular genotype. One predominant genotype, Ab, and two discrete alleles, Bb and Cc, make up the polymorphism in this case.
What does it mean when it says "two genes are related" in relation to meiosis?Genes are referred to as related if they share a chromosome. Unless they are separated by crossing over, the alleles for these genes usually remain together throughout meiosis. During meiosis, sibling dna strands exchange genetic material in a process known as crossing over.
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identify the stimulus, sensor, effector, and response of the aldosterone feedback loop based on the information in the above question. each worth 0.5pt
Juxtaglomerular cells serve as a sensor for the stimuli of low blood sodium levels. Aldosterone is effector. In response, the kidneys should absorb more sodium.
The kidneys release the hormone renin, which starts the aldosterone feedback loop, in response to a drop in blood volume and/or an increase in sodium levels. Angiotensin-converting enzyme then catalyzes the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by renin (ACE). The hormone aldosterone is subsequently stimulated by the release of angiotensin II into the bloodstream, where it binds to receptors in the adrenal cortex. The increase in sodium reabsorption caused by aldosterone's action on the kidneys and other tissues leads to the restoration of blood volume and sodium balance. Additionally, it promotes potassium ion release from the kidneys, which helps with sodium absorption.
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Which of the following diseases that cause childhood deaths or disabilities are now prevented with successful vaccination? Check all that apply.a. Measlesb. Pertussisc. Upper respiratory tract infectionsd. Chlamydiae. Paralytic poliomyelitisf. Diphtheria
The diseases that cause childhood deaths or disabilities that are now prevented with successful vaccination are: a. Measles, b. Pertussis,f. Diphtheria
Measles, pertussis, and diphtheria are all vaccine-preventable diseases that can cause severe illness and even death in children. Upper respiratory tract infections and Chlamydia are not vaccine-preventable diseases. Paralytic poliomyelitis can be prevented with a vaccine, but it is now very rare due to successful vaccination programs.Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that is spread through coughing and sneezing. The disease can cause high fever, cough, runny nose, red eyes, and a rash that covers the entire body.Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is a bacterial infection that causes severe coughing fits that can make it hard to breathe.
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Robert Paine studied sea stars in the intertidal zone along the northern Pacific coast. When he removed sea stars from a study area, their prey, two mussel species, increased exponentially. This crowded out other species, and the overall biodiversity of the community was greatly reduced.
What role in the community did the sea star play?
a. Pathogen
b. Keystone species
c. Producer
d. Prey species
The role in the community the sea star plays is of keystone species, thus the correct option is (b).
A species is said to be a keystone species if it has a significant impact on the dynamics of several other members of its community. The significance of a keystone species is more than we might anticipate from its sheer abundance. In other words, rather than merely relying on its dominance or large population size, a keystone species needs to exercise its effect based on the significant interactions it has with the community. One famous keystone species in the maritime ecosystems of Oregon and Washington is the sea star, Pisaster ochraceus. It feeds on a variety of mussel species, such as Mytilus californianus. There is fierce competition among mussel species for spots to adhere on intertidal rocks.
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Aquaporins are special water channels that allow the bulk transport of water across the hydrophobic plasma membrane. Which of the following is NOT true about them: A.mutations on genes associated with them can lead to certain medical conditions (e.g. diabetes, vision problems, etc.). B.plants use them to not only transport water, but help with metal detoxification. C.All are true. D.they are vital for kidney function in mammals. E.they require the use of ATP to function.
Option E is Correct. Special water channels called aquaporins enable the bulk movement of water across the hydrophobic plasma membrane.
They do not require the consumption of ATP in order to function, which is a false statement about them. The majority of known AQP2 gene mutations result in an erroneous 3-dimensional protein folding of the aquaporin 2 protein. The misfolded protein is entrapped inside the cell, preventing it from moving water molecules to the cell membrane.
Aquaporins efficiently speed up the total rate of water diffusion across the cell membrane due to the slow diffusion of water through the lipid bilayer. Aquaporins (AQP) are essential membrane proteins that act as conduits for the passage of water and, occasionally, tiny solutes.
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fill in the blank. biological perspectives have determined that obsessive-compulsive disorder is characterized by low activity of the neurotransmitter___and abnormal functioning in two key regions of the brain.
Low levels of both the neurotransmitter serotonin as well as aberrant activity in two crucial brain areas are characteristics of compulsive disorder.
What exactly are neurotransmitters?Your body cannot function without chemical messengers called neurotransmitters. They are responsible for transporting chemical messages with one neurons (nerve cell) towards the following target cell. The following target cell may be a gland, muscle, or another nerve cell.
What neurotransmitter has the greatest potency?The most potent excitation neurotransmitter in the central nervous system, glutamate (Glu), works together with GABA to maintain homeostasis. Neurons in the cerebral cortex and several sensory pathways that enter this same central nervous system's neurons express it.
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Interpret the model
(A DNA structure with a green thing in the middle and small red circles floating upwards)
Drag "True" or "False" to the end of each statement.
The blue ovals are hydrophobic. The strings of little red dots represent carbohydrates. The many black lines represent amino acid tails. The model is called a bilayer because there are two main types of molecules present, lipids and proteins. This model shows membrane transport. The blue ovals represent phospholipid heads.
The statement:
The blue ovals are hydrophobic is true.
The strings of little red dots represent carbohydrates is false
The many black lines represent amino acid tails is false
The model is called a bilayer because there are two main types of molecules present, lipids and proteins is true.
This model shows membrane transport is True.
The blue ovals represent phospholipid heads is true.
This model depicts a biological membrane, especially a bilayer. A bilayer is made up of two kinds of molecules: lipids and proteins. The blue ovals in the model are phospholipid heads, which are hydrophilic molecules that compose the outer layer of the membrane. The green molecule in the middle of the figure is encircled by little red circles, which represent carbohydrates. The many black lines indicate hydrogen bonding, which are crucial for the structure and stability of the membrane. This model depicts a membrane transport mechanism in which molecules travel from one side of the membrane to the other. Molecules travel across the membrane by passing through the phospholipid head or being carried by proteins anchored in the membrane. This model depicts how the structure of the bilayer and its constituents promote molecular transport across the membrane.
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Select all the ways that homology is used in studies of evolutionary relationships.
fossil structures can be compared to structures in surviving species
gene sequences can be compared
physical features of modern organisms can be compared
Options fossil structures can be compared to structures in surviving species, gene sequences can be compared and physical features of modern organisms can be compared are all ways that homology is used in studies of evolutionary relationships.
What is homology in evolutionary relationships?The expression homology in evolutionary relationships makes reference to the similarity between sequences or structures due to the common origin, i.e. due to relation to a common ancestor.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that homology in evolutionary relationships is based on the presence of a common ancestor for which these features originated.
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What would happen if a chromosome contains a mutation such that it Cannot bind to the kinetochore complex?
Chromosomes would not be able to bind with the mitotic spindle if a chromosome can not bind to the kinetochore due to mutations.
Mutations are very frequent in the process of gene transfer i.e indirectly with the chromosomal crossover. If a mutation occurs in such a manner that a chromosome can not be bound to a kinetochore then the chromosomes will lose the tendency to adhere to the mitotic spindle.
This failure of attachment will result in the arrest of a metaphase cell cycle. Without such arrest anaphase progression would not take place and thus leading to the failure of chromatids segregation.
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he piece of DNA written below was found by an undergraduate researcher while examining a novel bacteria strain. Show the undergraduate researcher what the doublestranded DNA would look like for this single strand of DNA. Make sure you show all important chemical components that describe DNA orientation.
5 ′
−
GGCGAATCATGCGCTGCCTTGTTTCCACTAGTAGACGCGGGACTTGGTTTCACACATGACGCGT
Deoxyribose and phosphate groups alternately form the backbone of each strand. One of the four bases—adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), or thymine—is joined to each sugar (T).
How many hydrogen bonds, in comparison to C and G, can A and T form?Adenine and Thymine are joined by two hydrogen bonds, but Guanine and Cytosine are joined by three hydrogen bonds.
What kind of bonds make up the double helix?A hydrogen bond between the G-C and A-T base pairs holds the two complementary strands of nucleotides that make up each DNA molecule's double helix together. One DNA strand serves as a template for the creation of a complementary strand, which results in the duplication of the genetic code.
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Help
Analyze the image below. The fossils in each of the layers shown in the image are found in many locations. These organisms lived for a short period of geologic time. To which classification do these fossils belong?
A) range fossils
B) microfossils
C) index fossils
D) trace fossils
Range fossils in each of the layers shown in the image are found in many locations.
What is fossil?
Fossils are the remains or signs of prehistoric life that have been preserved by the forces of nature. Shells, bones, exoskeletons, things preserved in amber, petrified wood, coal, hair, oil, and Genetic traces are a few examples of fossils. Another type of fossil is a skeletal structure.
What is Range fossils ?
The temporal interval between a fossil's first and last occurrences in the rock strata/sediment records serves as the best definition of a fossil range. We can infer when and how long specific species may have existed in the past by comprehending fossil ranges and being able to date rock strata.
Therefore, Range fossils in each of the layers shown in the image are found in many locations.
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The number 12.68 x 102, when expressed in correct scientific notation, becomes ________.
A) 1268 x 104
B) 0.1268 x 100
C) 1.268 x 103
D) 1.268 x 10-3
Technically 12.38 × 10^2 is in scientific notation ; any number expressed in the form a × 10^b is in scientific notation.
However, it is not in normalized scientific notation . In normalized scientific notation, there is exactly 1 non-zero digit to the left of the decimal point in the a term (with an exception being made for zero which in scientific notation is written as 0.0 × 10^1).
In normalized scientific notation, your original value would be written as
1.238 × 10^3
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In response to a muscle being stretched, a muscle spindle initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes what?
Answer: Explanation:
A sudden stretch, such as tapping the Achilles' tendon, causes a reflex contraction in the muscle as the spindles sense the stretch and send an action potential to the motor neurons which then cause the muscle to contract; this particular reflex causes a contraction in the soleus-gastrocnemius group of muscles.
The allele for yellow seeds masks the allele for green seeds in pea plants. A
true-breeding pea plant with yellow seeds is crossed with a true-breeding pea
plant with green seeds. Which statement reflects evidence of the law of
segregation in the offspring?
A. The F₁ generation will have only plants with green seeds, but the
F2 generation is likely to include both plants with yellow seeds and
plants with green seeds..
B. The F₁ generation will have only plants with yellow seeds, but the
F2 generation is likely to include both plants with yellow seeds and
plants with green seeds.
C. The F₁ generation will include more plants with green seeds than
the F2 generation.
D. The F₁ and F₂ generations are likely to have equal ratios of green
seeds to yellow seeds.
The correct statement is B. The F₁ generation will have only plants with yellow seeds, but the F2 generation is likely to include both plants with yellow seeds and plants with green seeds.
The law of segregation states that the two alleles for a trait separate during gamete formation and end up in different gametes. In the F1 generation, the yellow allele masks the green allele, so all of the plants will have yellow seeds. However, in the F2 generation, the offspring will receive one allele from each parent during fertilization, so some offspring will have yellow seeds and some will have green seeds, reflecting the separation of the alleles.
true/false. pattern where phenotypes of both homozygous parents are produced in heterozygous offspring so that both alleles for a gene are equally expressed.
The given statement is false. Because the pattern where phenotypes of both homozygous parents are produced in heterozygous offspring so that both alleles for a gene are equally expressed is known as codominance.
In codominance, neither allele is dominant or recessive, and both are expressed equally in the phenotype of the heterozygous individual.
An example of codominance is the ABO blood group system in humans, where the A and B alleles are codominant and both are expressed in the phenotype of individuals with the AB blood type. In contrast, in incomplete dominance, the phenotype of the heterozygous individual is an intermediate between the two homozygous parents.
An example of incomplete dominance is the pink flowers produced by a cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant in which neither allele is dominant and the resulting phenotype is a blend of the two.
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Which of the following is a plausible reason that explains why extreme halophiles can tolerate high salt conditions?
A. they can accumulate compatible solutes, such as glycerol and sucrose, in their cytoplasm
B. they can prevent the entrance of protons in their cytoplasm
C. they have less porins or transport proteins, which makes them less permeable to solutes
D. they have more saturated fatty acids in their membranes than unsaturated fatty acids
E. they have more unsaturated fatty acids in their membranes than saturated fatty acids
The correct answer is option E: Halophiles have more unsaturated fatty acids in their membranes than saturated fatty acids is a plausible reason that explains why extreme halophiles can tolerate high salt conditions.
Extreme halophiles can tolerate high salt conditions due to their membranes which contain more unsaturated fatty acids than saturated fatty acids.
Unsaturated fatty acids are more rigid, which allows them to resist the osmotic pressure that higher salt levels bring. Additionally, these unsaturated fatty acids reduce permeability, which allows the extreme halophiles to resist the entry of solutes into their cytoplasm.
The other options are not correct because they do not refer to the membrane composition of extreme halophiles.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. an onion is an example of a _____, an underground stem surrounded by leaves also modified for storage. question 10 options: tuber rhizome cladophyll bulb
An example of a bulb is an onion, which is a modified underground stem surrounded by leaves for storage.
A type of modified stem is a bulb. These short, mostly fleshy, leaf-like stems serve as food storage by being made of stems.
An underground stem known as a bulb contains roots on the lower side of the fleshy leaf that develops into a new plant. Example: Lily and the onion (Allium cepa) (Lilium bulbifera).
Like in ginger and turmeric, rhizomes are modified stems that grow horizontally at a specific depth and can store food.
As in colocasia and saffron, a corm is an underground adaptation of a stem made for storage.
A modified stem known as a tuber swells up from the buildup of starch and protein, much like a potato.
So "Bulb" is the appropriate response.
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Describe translation.
Answer:
Translation is the process of changing information contained in nucleic acids into amino acids. It also pertains to the manner in which proteins are made from mRNA templates. The nucleotide sequence on the RNA is translated into the amino acid sequence of proteins during the translation process.
Explanation:
44) gene s controls the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus. cacti with the dominant allele, s, have sharp spines, whereas homozygous recessive ss cacti have dull spines. at the same time, a second gene, n, determines whether or not cacti have spines. homozygous recessive nn cacti have no spines at all. if cacti heterozygous for both traits, ssnn, were allowed to self-pollinate, the offspring would segregate into which of the following phenotype ratios?
a. all sharp-spined progeny.
b. 25% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined, 25% spineless progeny
c. 50% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined progeny.
d. all spineless progeny
e. It is impossible to determine the phenotypes of the progeny.
All of the offspring will be sharp-spined (sN) and heterozygous for both genes. Therefore, the answer is A. all sharp-spined progeny.
As per the question given,
The genotype of the parent cacti is ssnn. When these cacti self-pollinate, the gametes produced will each have one allele from each gene.
For gene s, the parent cacti are heterozygous, so they can produce two types of gametes: one with the dominant allele (s) and one with the recessive allele (s).
For gene n, the parent cacti are homozygous recessive, so they can only produce gametes with the recessive allele (n).
Therefore, the possible gametes produced by the parent cacti are:
s n
s n
s n
s n
When these gametes combine in the offspring, we can determine the phenotypes using a Punnett square:
sn sn sn sn
sN sNsn sNsn sNsn sNsn
sN sNsn sNsn sNsn sNsn
sN sNsn sNsn sNsn sNsn
sN sNsn sNsn sNsn sNsn
From this Punnett square, we can see that all of the offspring will be sharp-spined (sN) and heterozygous for both genes. Therefore, the answer is:
a. all sharp-spined progeny.
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fill in the blank. pollen grains develop in the___of both gymnosperms and angiosperms. please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices microphyll microsporangium micropyle megastrobilus megasporangium
Answer: microphyll
Explanation:
the cytoskeleton of a eukaryotic cell plays a major role in organizing the structures and activities of the cell. the cytoskeleton consists of three main types of fibers: microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules. the three types of fiber differ in size, composition, and the functions they perform in the cell.1. In eukaryotic flagella, the fibers that slide past one another due to the activity of dynein proteins are _____2. Many cell organelles, most notably the nucleus, are anchored by which are assembled from a diverse class of proteins _____3. Centrosomes are sites where protein dimers assemble into _____4. The extension of pseudopodia in amoeba is due to the regulated assembly and destruction of _____5. The only cytoskeletal fibers not associated with intracellular movement or whole cell locomotion are the _____6. During muscle contractions, myosin motor proteins move across tracks of _____
Microtubules, intermediate filaments, 3. Microtubules, 4. Intermediate filaments, 5. Microfilaments 6. Microfilaments
What exactly is a cell?The smallest building block of all living things, including human tissues. The membrane protein, the nucleus, and indeed the cytoplasm are the three major components of a cell. The cell membrane encloses the cell and regulates the chemicals that enter and exit the cell.
What are cells, and what do they do?All living things are constructed mostly from cells. There are thousands of billion of cells throughout the human body. They give the body structure, absorb nutrients from meals, transform those calories into energy, and perform certain tasks.
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TRUE/FALSE. To test the smell of a substance, partially fill your lungs with air and, while standing slightly back from the fumes, use your hand to waft the odors gently toward your nose.
To test the smell of substance, partially fill your lungs with air and, while standing slightly back from fumes, use your hand to waft odors gently toward your nose : true.
What is done to test smell of the substance?The correct technique for testing odor is to raise your hand above container then waft air towards your nose and in this way, minimum amount of fumes get inhaled.
When you are in laboratory and take direct sniff of chemicals you are using, you run risk of damaging your mucous membranes or lungs. When it is necessary to smell chemicals in lab, proper technique is to cup your hand above container and waft the air towards the face.
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All viruses are composed of a ____ made of ____ which surrounds the inner core containing ____ or RNA. Some viruses may also posses an external membranous covering that comes from the ___ ___. These viruses are know as ____, whereas viruses without this outer covering are called ____ viruses.
All viruses are composed of a capsid, made of proteins, which surrounds the inner core containing DNA, Some viruses may also posses an external membranous host cell, These viruses are enveloped viruses, this outer covering are called .non-enveloped viruses.
Capsid: This is a protein shell that surrounds and protects the genetic material of the virus. It is made up of many protein subunits called capsomeres.
Proteins: The capsid itself is made up of proteins, but there are also many other viral proteins that are involved in various stages of the viral life cycle, including entry into host cells, replication, and assembly of new viruses.
DNA or RNA: The genetic material of the virus can be either DNA or RNA, but not both. This genetic material contains all the information the virus needs to replicate and produce new viruses.
Host cell: Some viruses, such as the influenza virus, have an outer envelope that is derived from the host cell that they infect.
Enveloped viruses: These are viruses that possess an outer envelope derived from the host cell. Examples include the influenza virus, HIV, and herpes simplex virus.
Non-enveloped viruses: These are viruses that do not possess an outer envelope. Examples include the poliovirus, adenovirus, and norovirus.
Viruses are small infectious agents that consist of genetic material (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat called a capsid. Some viruses have an additional external layer called an envelope, which is made up of lipids and proteins and is derived from the host cell's membrane. Enveloped viruses are typically more susceptible to environmental factors such as heat, detergents, and disinfectants.
Non-enveloped viruses lack this outer layer and are generally more resistant to these factors. Understanding the structure of viruses is important for developing strategies to prevent or treat viral infections, as well as for developing vaccines that can trigger an immune response against specific viral proteins.
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cladistics help to organize organisms based on shared homologous characteristics. which of the following is considered false when looking at a cladogram? responses
A method other than infected persons from parent(s) to child for transferring genetic material by one species to another.
In biology, what exactly is a homologous?Possessing the same conventional arrangement and position. In biology, the term "homologous" can refer to two different anatomical features or behavioral characteristics that developed from a component or characteristic of their shared ancestor organism.
In anatomy, what does the term homologous mean?Identical anatomical traits in an organism's body parts, known as homologous structures, point to a shared evolutionary progenitor or developmental origin. Despite the fact that they could have a similar attribute, their functions are not always the same. Humans and bats both have homologous anatomy for their forelimbs, for instance.
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your colleagues in the legal department are preparing to take a case to trial. to help them, write your description of the process of dna fingerprinting so a jury could understand it.
The DNA fingerprinting procedure includes:
Isolation of DNA from skin, hair, or blood cells.The isolated DNA is then cut using restriction enzymes and the fragments of various lengths are analyzed.With the help of gel electrophoresis various DNA fragments are obtained. The gel is then immersed in a NaOH solution which denatures the DNA into single strands.Southern blotting was used to transfer DNA from the gel onto a nitrocellulose membrane. Then, this DNA is hybridized with a radioactive probe.Fraction patterns are considered unique for each individual, which is compared with the suspect.With the help of X-ray films, DNA samples showing radioactivity are compared.DNA fingerprinting is considered as a chemical test, which displays the genetic makeup of a person or other living organism. This method was developed by Alec Jeffrey in 1984. This method is used as a paternity and maternity test, criminal identification, and for personal identification.
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32-year-old woman presents due to several days of vaginal itching & d/c. She also has pain with sexual intercourse. She denies fever, chills, abdominal pain, urinary frequency or dysuria. In the past years she has had 2 new male sexual partners. She takes OCP & uses condoms on most occasions. Patient denies any chronic medical conditions & denies prior surgeries. Denies any other medications. Her LMP was 3 weeks ago. Temp is 36.7C (98F) & BP: 100/60. Pelvic exam shows vulvar & vaginal erythema & a small amount of vaginal d/c with a pH of 4. Which of the following is the most causative organisms?A. Candida albicansB. Chlamydia trachomatisC. Gardnerella vaginalisD. Neisseria gonorrheaeE. Trichomonas vaginalis
Trichomonas vaginalis is the causative agent of vaginal erythema or vulvovaginitis.
The correct option is option E.
Trichomonas vaginalis is basically an anaerobic as well as a flagellated protozoan parasite which is the causative agent of a particular sexually transmitted disease which is known as trichomoniasis. It is basically the one of the most common pathogenic protozoan which happens to infect humans. The infection rates are similar in men as well as women but women are the ones who are mostly symptomatic whereas the infections in men are mostly asymptomatic.
Transmission basically occurs through a direct, skin-to-skin contact with a particular infected individual, which is most often through the vaginal intercourse. Risk factors consist of multiple sexual partners and also not using condoms during sexual intercourse. It causes a genital itching foul-smelling vaginal discharge, and painful urination in women.
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colonomics - predictive models for normal colon gene expression and dna methylation for twas and mwas.T/F
The statement about colonomics - predictive models for normal colon gene expression and DNA methylation for TWAS and MWAS is true.
Thus, the correct answer is true.
What is colonomics?Colonomics is а multi-omics dаtаset thаt includes 250 sаmples: 50 sаmples from heаlthy colon mucosа donors аnd 100 pаired sаmples from colon cаncer pаtients (tumor/аdjаcent). From these sаmples, Colonomics project includes dаtа from genotyping, DNА methylаtion, gene expression, whole exome sequencing аnd micro-RNАs (miRNАs) expression.
The genetic prediction models represent reference imputаtion pаnels for normаl colon tissue methylаtion аnd gene аnd miRNА expression, which аre of high interest for performing TWАS studies for colon-relаted diseаses.
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What structure in the small intestine increase the internal surface area? What advantage is gained by this increase in surface area?
The structure in the small intestine increase the internal surface area are the villi. The advantage gained by this increase in surface area is increases the absorption of nutrients.
The small intestine is a tube-shaped canal consisting of three parts, namely the duodenum, jejenum, and ileum which function to complete the digestion of food by chemical digestion for later absorption. The small intestine is made up of villi, circular muscles, longitudinal muscles, mucous lining, and epithelium.
Villi are mucous membrane projections that protrude into the lumen of the small intestine which are composed of blood vessels, lymph vessels, and goblet cells. The protrusion of the mucous membrane serves to expand the surface of the small intestine so that it can increase the absorption of nutrients in the form of protein and fat that have been digested by the small intestine.
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explain how the epithelium in each of the following regions of the respiratory tract is adapted so its structure follows its function
Epithelial cells that have ciliated surface features line the upper portion of the respiratory tract. Toxins, particulate materials, and microbes that enter the airway are assisted by cilia in their capturing, sweeping, and expulsion.
What kind of epithelium lining the respiratory tract is there?Six different cell types make up the pseudostratified ciliated epithelium that makes up the respiratory epithelium. 90% of the cells population is made up of three of these: basal cells, ciliated cells, and goblet cells.
What is the airway epithelium's structure?In the large airways, the airways epithelium is pseudostratified, while in the tiny airways, it becomes columnar and cuboidal. Ciliated, columnar, undifferentiated, secretory, and basal cells are the main cell types.
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