Someone help me please

Answer:

why?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

..is cereal a soup?

Step-by-step explanation:

is it tho?

Answer:

the answer is 6766 and the percent is 13.2

Step-by-step explanation:

100 on the plato test

Answer:

$38.64

Step-by-step explanation:

to find the percent off of the original price, multiply 48.30 to 20. then, move the decimal over twice.

48.30

x 20

----------

966    --------->       $9.66 off

then subtract that from 48.30.

$38.64 is you answer.

give me brainliest

Answer:

-74+3i

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

(5 + 3i) + (2 - 81)

5 + 3i + 2 - 81

74 + 3i

Step-by-step explanation:

x²/(x²-9) + 1/(x-3) = 1/(4x-12)

4x² + 4(x+3) = 1

4x² + 4x + 11 = 0

Since the discriminant is negative, there are no real solutions.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Hhhh

Answer: 19

Step-by-step explanation:

Did it

Answer:

Please check the explanation.

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that when 'y' varies directly with 'x', the equation becomes

y ∝ x

y = kx

where 'k' is called the constant of proportionality.

From the table, it is clear that 'y' varies directly with 'x'

Let us check the value of k for all the points

k = y/x

For the point (130, 9.10)

For the point (145, 10.15)

For the point (150, 10.50)

For the point (185, 12.95)

Thus, the value of proportionality constant is same.

i.e. k = 0.07

Determining the cost of 21 feet of the wire

21 feet = 252 inch

Using the equation

y = kx

Thus, the cost of 252-inch wire will be:

y = kx

substituting k = 0.07, and x = 252

y = 0.07 × 252

y = 17.64 Dollars

Thus, the cost of 21 feet wire will be: 17.64 Dollars

Determining the cost of 15 yards of the wire

15 yards = 540 inches

Using the equation

y = kx

Thus, the cost of 15 yards of wire will be:

y = kx

substituting k = 0.07, and x = 540

y  =  0.07 × 540

y = 37.8 Dollars

Thus, the cost of 15 yards of wire will be: 37.8 Dollars

Answer:

5th

Step-by-step explanation: because its the half and the closest area of the figure

Answer:

y=1/7.50x+40

Step-by-step explanation:

I doubled checked myself on desmos and it worked. You start at 40$ because you pay that no matter what. For each one they buy the price goes up by 7.50$.

Answer:

145°

Step-by-step explanation:

As per the given information: quadrilateral ABCD is a parallelogram.

[tex] m\angle B + m\angle DCB =180\degree \\[/tex]

(adjacent angles of a parallelogram)

[tex] 110\degree + m\angle DCB =180\degree \\

m\angle DCB =180\degree - 110\degree \\

m\angle DCB =70\degree\\

m\angle DCG=\frac{1}{2} m\angle DCB \\(\because GC \: bisects \: \angle DCB) \\

m\angle DCF=\frac{1}{2}\times 70\degree... (\because C-G-F) \\

m\angle DCF=35\degree\\

m\angle BFC = m\angle DCF = 35\degree\\ (Alternate \: \angle s) \\\\

m\angle BFC + m\angle CFA = 180\degree\\ (straight \: line \: \angle s) \\\\

35\degree + m\angle CFA= 180\degree\\

m\angle CFA = 180\degree-35\degree \\\\

m\angle CFA= 145\degree \\\\

\huge\purple {\therefore m\angle GFA = 145\degree} \\(\because C-G-F) \\[/tex]

Answer:

d = 1/2

General Formulas and Concepts:

Pre-Algebra

Order of Operations: BPEMDAS

Equality Properties

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Define

5/6 = 1/3 + d

Step 2: Solve for d

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Perimeter=2(10+7)

=2(17)

=34cm

Answer:

$1,519

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that :

Balance = principal = $520

Time (t) = 6 years

Annual. Interest rate (r) = 18% = 0.18

Using the compound interest formula:

A = P(1 + r/n)^nt

n = number of times interest is applied per period ; A = final amount

Since interest is compounded monthly, n = 12

A = 520(1 + 0.18/12)^(12 * 6)

A = 520(1 + 0.015)^72

A = 520(1.015)^72

A = 520(2.9211579)

A = 1519.0021

Hence, final amount = $1519

Answer:

8c+8m

Step-by-step explanation:

c tickets are $8 a piece and m tickets are also $8 a piece. as an expression, the equation is not completed and cannot be completed until we know the value of the missing variables. to find the total, you must add the total amount of tickets Chris bought for 8 dollars and add that to the total of tickets Michele bought for 8 dollars

Answer:

8 pies and 2 coffees

Step-by-step explanation:

10 men bought pie or a cup of coffee.

x=pie

y=coffee

x+y=10

0.6x+0.5y=5.8

0.6x+0.6y=6

0.1y=0.2

y=2

x=8

Hope this helps plz hit the crown :D

Answer:

D. ∆XVW ≅ ∆XBC

Step-by-step explanation:

Angle X = Angle X (vertical angles are congruent)

Angle V = angle B (corresponding angles are congruent)

Angle W = angle C (corresponding angles are congruent)

The three angels in ∆XVW are congruent to the three corresponding angles in ∆XBC.

Therefore, the statement that indicates both triangles are congruent is:

∆XVW ≅ ∆XBC

Answer: x = 28

Step-by-step explanation:  

Trust me :)

Step-by-step explanation:

0.33 so says my mother bc she divide

Answer:

The probability of drawing a different marble is 0.25. The probability of drawing a red marble = 0.5

I do not know if this is correct please forgive me if I am wrong.

If I am right hope this helps!

Answer:

-5x+4???

Step-by-step explanation:

I DON'T KNOW I'M SORRY

Answer:

-5x - 4

Step-by-step explanation:

3x - (8x + 4)

3x -8x -4

-5x - 4

Answer:

V = 167.55

Step-by-step explanation:

V = pir^2 h/3

V = pi(4)^2 (10/3)

The approximate volume of water in Anuj's cup is 42 cubic cm.

Volume is a measure of capacity that an object holds.

Formula for finding the volume of cone

volume of cone = [tex]\frac{1}{3} \pi r^{2} h[/tex]

where,

r is the radius of cone

h is the height of cone

π = 3.14

According to the given question

paper cups are of the shape of cone.

and,

diameter = 8cm

⇒ radius = [tex]\frac{8}{2}[/tex] = 4cm

the approximate volume  of water in cup = [tex]\frac{1}{3} \pi r^{2} h[/tex]

=[tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex]×[tex]2^{2}[/tex]×π×10

=[tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex]×4×3.14×10

= 41.86 = 42 cubic cm.

Hence, the approximate volume of water in Anuj's cup is 42 cubic cm.

Learn more about the volume of cone here:

https://brainly.com/question/1984638

#SPJ2

Answer:

27

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

If you graph both the focus and the directrix you will see that the directrix is below the focus...12 units below to be exact. The focus is on the vertical line x = 4, so the vertex also has an x coordinate (which is actually h since h and k represent the vertex) of 4. The vertex is exactly halfway between the focus and the directrix, so that means that the vertex is at (4, 0). h = 4, k = 0. The standard form for this parabola (we know it opens upwards since the parabola ALWAYS wraps itself around the focus and is directed away from the directrix) is:

[tex](x-h)^2=4p(y-k)[/tex]

p is the number of units between the focus and the vertex, or the vertex and the directrix (which is the same number of units since the vertex is smack dab in the middle of them!). That means that p = 6. Filling in 6 for p, 4 for h, and 0 for k we have:

[tex](x-4)^2=4(6)(y-0)[/tex] and simplify to

[tex](x-4)^2=24y[/tex] which is the first choice you're given.

The equation that shows the parabola when parabola has the focus at (4, 6) and the directrix y = –6 should be considered as the (x – 4)2 = 24y.

In terms of mathematics, a parabola represent the plane curve  in which there is the mirror-symmetrical and should be made of U-shaped.

Since there has the focus at (4, 6) and the directrix y = –6

So the first equation should be considered.

Learn more about parabola here: https://brainly.com/question/8063993

Answer:

241/81 cm^2

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]2\: lenghts = wide\\\\lenght=x\\\\2x=wide\\\\Perimeter = 2(wide+lenght)\\\\P=2(2x+x)\\\\P=2(3x)\\\\P=7\frac{1}{3}\\\\\frac{22}{3}=6x\\\\x=\frac{22}{3*6}\\\\x=\frac{11}{9}\\\\width = 2x=2(\frac{11}{9})=\frac{22}{9}[/tex]

[tex]Area = lenght\times width\\\\Area = \frac{11}{9}\times\frac{22}{9}\\\\A=\frac{11*22}{9*9}\\\\A=\frac{242}{81}cm^2[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]2\frac{80}{81}[/tex] cm²

Step-by-step explanation:

A = lw

P = 2(l + w)

~~~~~~~~~~~

l = 2w

2(2w + w) = [tex]7\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

2(3w) = [tex]\frac{22}{3}[/tex]

3w = [tex]\frac{11}{3}[/tex]

w = [tex]\frac{11}{9}[/tex]

l = [tex]\frac{22}{9}[/tex]

A = [tex]\frac{22}{9}[/tex] × [tex]\frac{11}{9}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{242}{81}[/tex] = [tex]2\frac{80}{81}[/tex] cm²

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:    

The equation of the damped vibrating spring is y" + by' +2y = 0

(a) To convert this 2nd order equation to a system of two first-order equations;

let y₁ = y

y'₁ = y' = y₂

So;

y'₂ = y"₁ = -2y₁ -by₂

Thus; the system of the two first-order equation is:

y₁' = y₂

y₂' = -2y₁ - by₂

(b)

The eigenvalue of the system in terms of b is:

[tex]\left|\begin{array}{cc}- \lambda &1&-2\ & -b- \lambda \end{array}\right|=0[/tex]

[tex]-\lambda(-b - \lambda) + 2 = 0 \ \\ \\\lambda^2 +\lambda b + 2 = 0[/tex]

[tex]\lambda = \dfrac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^2 - 8}}{2}[/tex]

[tex]\lambda_1 = \dfrac{-b + \sqrt{b^2 -8}}{2} ; \ \lambda _2 = \dfrac{-b - \sqrt{b^2 -8}}{2}[/tex]

(c)

Suppose [tex]b > 2\sqrt{2}[/tex], then  λ₂ < 0 and λ₁ < 0. Thus, the node is stable at equilibrium.

(d)

From λ² + λb + 2 = 0

If b = 3; we get

[tex]\lambda^2 + 3\lambda + 2 = 0 \\ \\ (\lambda + 1) ( \lambda + 2 ) = 0\\ \\ \lambda = -1 \ or \ \lambda = -2 \\ \\[/tex]

Now, the eigenvector relating to λ = -1 be:

[tex]v = \left[\begin{array}{ccc}+1&1\\-2&-2\\\end{array}\right] \left[\begin{array}{c}v_1\\v_2\\\end{array}\right] = \left[\begin{array}{c}0\\0\\\end{array}\right][/tex]

[tex]\sim v = \left[\begin{array}{ccc}1&1\\0&0\\\end{array}\right] \left[\begin{array}{c}v_1\\v_2\\\end{array}\right] = \left[\begin{array}{c}0\\0\\\end{array}\right][/tex]

Let v₂ = 1, v₁ = -1

[tex]v = \left[\begin{array}{c}-1\\1\\\end{array}\right][/tex]

Let Eigenvector relating to  λ = -2 be:

[tex]m = \left[\begin{array}{ccc}2&1\\-2&-1\\\end{array}\right] \left[\begin{array}{c}m_1\\m_2\\\end{array}\right] = \left[\begin{array}{c}0\\0\\\end{array}\right][/tex]

[tex]\sim v = \left[\begin{array}{ccc}2&1\\0&0\\\end{array}\right] \left[\begin{array}{c}m_1\\m_2\\\end{array}\right] = \left[\begin{array}{c}0\\0\\\end{array}\right][/tex]

Let m₂ = 1, m₁ = -1/2

[tex]m = \left[\begin{array}{c}-1/2 \\1\\\end{array}\right][/tex]

∴

[tex]\left[\begin{array}{c}y_1\\y_2\\\end{array}\right]= C_1 e^{-t} \left[\begin{array}{c}-1\\1\\\end{array}\right] + C_2e^{-2t} \left[\begin{array}{c}-1/2\\1\\\end{array}\right][/tex]

So as t → ∞

[tex]\mathbf{ \left[\begin{array}{c}y_1\\y_2\\\end{array}\right]= \left[\begin{array}{c}0\\0\\\end{array}\right] \ \ so \ stable \ at \ node \ \infty }[/tex]

Answer:

will i think that's true

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps you

Answer:

I think that it is yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helped have an amazing day!

Given,

Rate of free fall = 216 km/h

Solution,

km/h to m/s is converted as follows :

[tex]216\ \dfrac{km}{h}=216\times \dfrac{1000\ m}{3600\ s}\\\\=60\ m/s[/tex]

So, the rate of fall is 60 m/s.

If t = 20 s

Assume, initial velocity = 0

It will move under the action of gravity.

Using equation of motion,

[tex]h=ut+\dfrac{1}{2}gt^2\\\\h=0+\dfrac{1}{2}\times 10\times 20^2\\\\h=2000\ m[/tex]

Hence, this is all for the solution.

Answer:

$42.75

Step-by-step explanation:

18.80+23.95=$42.75

Answer:

he can make 4 packages hope this helps