What is the difference between physical dependence and addiction?

Answers

Answer 1

Physical dependence and addiction are related but distinct concepts in the context of substance use.

Physical dependence refers to the body's adaptation to a substance, such that if the substance is abruptly stopped, withdrawal symptoms can occur. Withdrawal symptoms can vary depending on the substance and can include nausea, sweating, tremors, anxiety, and seizures. Physical dependence can develop as a result of repeated use of a substance, even if the substance is being used as directed by a doctor.

Addiction, on the other hand, is a behavioural disorder characterized by compulsive drug seeking and use despite negative consequences. Addiction involves a complex interplay of genetic, environmental, and psychological factors. People with addiction have a strong urge to use a substance and have difficulty controlling their drug use. They may continue to use a substance even when it causes harm to themselves or others, and they may experience cravings, tolerance, and withdrawal.

While physical dependence can develop in the context of substance use, it is not the same as addiction. Addiction involves a more comprehensive set of symptoms and behaviours, and it can lead to serious health, social, and occupational problems. Addressing addiction requires a comprehensive and individualized approach, including therapy, support groups, and medication-assisted treatment, when appropriate.

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What is the ICD-10 code for bloody stool?

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The ICD-10 code for bloody stool is K62.5. This code falls under the category of "Diseases of the digestive system".

The medical condition "Hemorrhage of sphincter ani and rectum" is denoted by the ICD-10 code K62.5. It is a specific code used to classify diagnoses and symptoms related to haemorrhages. In the ICD-10 classification system, this code is part of the "Diseases of the Digestive System" chapter (K00-K95).

The International Classification of Diseases (ICD-10) is a medical classification system used for coding diagnoses and procedures. The code for bloody stool is K92.2, which falls under the category of "Diseases of the digestive system" in the ICD-10.

A variety of factors can cause sphincter ani and rectum haemorrhage, including constipation, trauma, infections, tumours, inflammatory bowel disease, or vascular disorders. Rectal bleeding, pain, discomfort, or a sense of incomplete bowel evacuation are all possible symptoms.

A physical examination, medical history, and diagnostic tests such as colonoscopy, sigmoidoscopy, or barium enema are typically used to make the diagnosis of anus and rectum haemorrhage.

The treatment for anus and rectum haemorrhage is determined by the underlying cause and severity of the condition. Medication, lifestyle changes, dietary changes, surgery, and other interventions may be used as treatment options.

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what is bloves sauce recipe

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Fresh onions, garlic, butter, and spices such as garlic powder, paprika, black pepper, cayenne pepper, onion powder, lemon pepper, chili powder, cajun seasoning, and old bay seasoning are used in the recipe for Bloves sauce.

The sauce has a strong smokey taste. That doesn't taste how I expected it to. It tastes more like a chili or barbeque sauce than pizza sauce. Although it tastes excellent, I wouldn't eat it with fish. Blove's Sauce is a spice-packed fish sauce flavoring blend. Blove, a video maker renowned for Mukbang videos in which artists devour massive amounts of food in front of a live audience, created it.

It's generally served with seafood, and our favorite way to eat it is with this air fryer catfish. But, bloves sauce is also delicious on potatoes, poultry, veggies, and a variety of other foods.

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What trauma level is Fort Belvoir Community Hospital?

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Fort Belvoir Community Hospital is a Level III trauma centre.

This means that it is capable of providing emergency care for patients with moderate to severe injuries or illnesses. Level III trauma centres are typically equipped with specialized resources such as intensive care units, operating rooms, and diagnostic imaging equipment.

They also have trained staff members who are able to provide advanced medical care to patients. While Level III trauma centres are not as comprehensive as Level I or Level II centres, they still provide an important level of care for patients who need immediate medical attention.

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Selective mutism is believed to be a type of ____. a. specific phobia b. generalized anxiety disorder c. obsessive-compulsive disorder d. social phobia.

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Selective mutism is believed to be a type of social phobia.

The correct answer will be option (a).

Selective mutism is a type of anxiety disorder that is classified as a social phobia. It is characterized by a persistent inability to speak in certain social situations, such as school, work, or public places, despite being able to speak comfortably in other situations.

People with selective mutism often experience intense anxiety and fear in social situations, which can lead to avoidance or withdrawal. It is important to note that selective mutism is different from shyness or a lack of confidence, and it can significantly impact a person's daily life and social functioning.

Therefore, the correct answer will be option (a)

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What is the ICD-10 code for right suppurative otitis media?

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Unspecified suppurative otitis media in the right ear ICD-10-CM code H66. 41, which is billable/specific, can be used to denote a diagnosis for financial compensation. ICD-10-CM H66. 41's 2023 revision.

What is medial suppurative otitis?

An ongoing chronic infection of a middle ear without even an unbroken tympanic membrane is present in chronic suppurative otitis externa, commonly referred to as chronic otitis media. This condition is a long-term inflammation of the mastoid cavity and middle ear.

What kinds of otitis media with suppuration are there?

A prolonged otorrhoea from the a perforated eardrum more than a month is a defining feature of chronic suppurative pharyngitis (CSOM), an infection-related middle ear inflammation [1-3]. There are two identified forms of CSOM: mucosal disease (safe kind) and epithelial illness (unsafe type).

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How can you give help to someone that is struggling with an issue in their lifeWay does P
each letter stand for?)
study wait C-onnect.

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The person is struggling with an issue in their life and is given a useful tool called PEACH, where P stands for empathy, E is for active listening, A is for asking questions, C is for creating a self-paced activity, and H is for helping to find the solution.

What is empathy?

Empathy is the capacity to understand or feel what another person is experiencing from within their frame of reference, that is, the capacity to place oneself in another's position. Definitions of empathy encompass a broad range of social, cognitive, and emotional processes primarily concerned with understanding others and others' emotions in particular.

Types of empathy include cognitive empathy, emotional or affective empathy, somatic empathy, and spiritual empathy.

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what is medical term that means abnormal condition of a pancreatic stone ?

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The medical term that means abnormal condition of a pancreatic stone is "pancreatic lithiasis" or "pancreatic calculi".

What is Pancreatic stone ?

Pancreatic stones, also known as pancreatic calculi, are hard, solid formations that develop within the pancreas. These stones can vary in size from small, sand-like particles to larger, golf ball-sized masses. Pancreatic stones are typically made up of calcium, cholesterol, and other substances found in the pancreatic juice, a fluid secreted by the pancreas that helps to digest food in the small intestine.

The formation of pancreatic stones is often associated with a condition called chronic pancreatitis, which is a long-term inflammation of the pancreas. Other risk factors for developing pancreatic stones include alcohol consumption, gallstones, high levels of calcium in the blood, and genetic factors.

Pancreatic lithiasis refers to the formation of stones or calculi within the pancreas, which can cause pain and inflammation of the pancreas (pancreatitis). This condition is relatively rare compared to other pancreatic disorders, and it can occur in both adults and children. Treatment options for pancreatic lithiasis may include medication, endoscopic procedures, or surgery depending on the severity and location of the stones.

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When you are student applying for jobs and the company asks you to make a statement contrary to the rules and regulations of a at home help agency what could you say?

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When applying for jobs, it is important to remember that honesty and integrity are crucial. If a company asks you to make a statement contrary to the rules and regulations of an at home help agency, it is best to politely decline and explain why.

In view of the aforementioned situation,  you could say something like, "I am sorry, but I am not comfortable making a statement that goes against the rules and regulations of the at home help agency. I believe in being honest and following the guidelines set forth by the agency."

This shows that you have integrity and are not willing to compromise your values for a job. It is important to stand by your beliefs and not be swayed by the potential of a job offer.

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what is the function of nitrogen and phosphorus in our bodies?

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Nitrogen helps in synthesis of proteins, hormones, neurotransmitters in our body whereas phosphorus is important for forming the bones and the teeth.

Nitrogen as well as phosphorus are both very essential elements in nature. They also perform some very crucial functions in the human body. Nitrogen is basically one of the main components of the body which is required for the protein synthesis and also for the production of a number of  nitrogenous compounds like hormones, neurotransmitters, as well as proteins and also the components of antioxidant defense.

The major function of the element phosphorus is basically in the formation of bones as well as teeth. It plays a very important role in the usage of carbohydrates and fats by the body. It is also required by the body in order to make proteins for the purpose of growth, maintenance, as well as the repair of cells and tissues.

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protein should account for 15% of the calories you eat each day.truefalse

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False. You should consume 15% of your daily calories from protein.

Percentage ranges are provided for each macronutrient in the Dietary Guidelines of Americans by the USDA. The group advises people to get 10% to 35% of their daily protein intake, 45% to 65% from carbohydrate, and 20% to 35% from fat. 2 Additionally, they advise taking less saturated fat then 10% of total calories. The average American consumes 15% half their calories through protein, and well within the suggested daily allowance. However, some evidence indicates that eating more protein may help you keep a healthy body weight or maintain the strength of your muscles as you age. The U.S. Department on Agriculture (USDA) estimates that protein contains 4 calories per gramme. A typical healthy diet should consist of 20–30% of your daily calories coming from protein.

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what is acute bronchitis icd 10?

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Code J20.9 is the diagnosis code used for Acute Bronchitis.

Short-term bronchitis, sometimes known as a chest cold, is inflammation of the bronchi (large and medium-sized airways) of the lungs. Coughing is the most prevalent symptom. Coughing up mucus, wheezing, shortness of breath, fever, and chest pain are some of the other symptoms. The infection might persist anywhere from a few days to 10 days. After then, the cough may last for many weeks, with the overall length of symptoms generally being approximately three weeks.

One of the most frequent ailments is acute bronchitis. The best way to avoid lung cancer is to quit smoking and avoid other lung irritants. When acute bronchitis is caused by pertussis, there is an exception. Honey and pelargonium may aid alleviate symptoms, according to preliminary research.

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what is the icd 10 code for osteoarthritis of left knee?

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ICD-10 code M17. 12 is used to describe unilateral primary osteoarthritis of the left knee and is classified by the WHO under the category of arthropathies.

ICD-10 code r29 898: What does it mean?

898 for According to the WHO, other musculoskeletal system symptoms and signs fall under the category of "Symptoms, signs, and aberrant clinical and laboratory results, not elsewhere defined."

What does attachment disorder mean?

A person's ability to form and maintain connections is hampered by an attachment disorder, a type of mental or behavioural condition. These illnesses typically develop in childhood. A child may develop when they are unable to keep an emotional connection to that parent and other primary carer.

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What is the ICD-10 code for diabetic neuropathy?

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According to the WHO, diabetes mellitus of type 2 without diabetic neuropathy, undefined is classified as an endocrine, nutritional, and metabolic disorder under ICD-10 code E11. 40.

What is the name of diabetic neuropathy in medical terms?

Both types 1 and 2 of diabetes frequently result in neuropathy; up to 26% of type 2 diabetics show signs of nerve damage just at time of diagnosis [1]. The most prevalent kind of diabetic neuropathy is polyneuropathy, a broad form of neuropathy.

Which nerve suffers from diabetic neuropathy the most?

The most typical type of nerve injury in patients with diabetes, peripheral peripheral neuropathy affects the hands, feet, legs, or arms. Usually both feet at once, it usually begins in the feet. Pain and higher susceptibility, especially at night, are possible additional symptoms.

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Can dogs have mandarin orange juice?

Answers

Yes, as long as they are just given the flesh of the mandarin orange. The flesh of satsumas, tangerines, and clementines can also be given to dogs.

Can Dogs Have Oranges?

Orange flesh can be eaten by dogs, although your dog might not like it. A few little pieces of orange flesh as a treat are fine for a dog if they enjoy the taste; 1 to 2 slices at most is a reasonable rule of thumb to follow. They are full of healthy nutrients including vitamin C, potassium, and fibre. Oranges, being a citrus fruit, are strong in acid and natural sugars, so overweight dogs and canines that have diabetes shouldn't eat them.

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Panera Bread Nutrition Facts: What to Order & Avoid

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If you are looking for Panera Bread Nutrition facts, it is important to consider what items to order and which ones to avoid. When it comes to nutrition, it is important to make informed choices about what you eat.

Here are some tips on what to order and avoid at Panera Bread:
Order:
- Salads: Many of the salads at Panera Bread are packed with nutrition. Opt for salads with plenty of vegetables, lean protein, and healthy fats.
- Whole grain bread: Choose whole grain bread instead of white bread for added fiber and nutrition.
- Broth-based soups: Soups made with broth are generally lower in calories and fat than cream-based soups.
Avoid:
- Sugary drinks: Many of the drinks at Panera Bread are loaded with sugar. Opt for water or unsweetened tea instead.
- High-calorie sandwiches: Some of the sandwiches at Panera Bread can be high in calories and fat. Choose a sandwich with lean protein and plenty of vegetables instead.
- Pastries and desserts: While they may be delicious, pastries and desserts are often high in calories, sugar, and fat. Choose a piece of fruit or a small serving of yoghurt for a healthier option.
Overall, it is important to pay attention to the nutrition facts at Panera Bread in order to make informed choices about what to order and avoid.

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almost all classifications designate an emotion as either ____ or ____

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almost all classifications designate an emotion as either Positive or Negative.

What is emotion?

Emotion is a complex psychological state that involves physiological, cognitive, and behavioral components. It is a subjective experience that can be influenced by various factors such as hormones, beliefs, and past experiences. Emotions are typically characterized by a range of feelings from joy to anger, sadness to fear, and everything in between. Emotions can also be categorized into two distinct types—primary and secondary. Primary emotions are those that are instinctual and usually arise from a stimulus, such as a situation or a person. Secondary emotions are those that are learned and developed over time and can be influenced by a person's upbringing and culture. Emotions are important as they can help us to understand ourselves, as well as others. They can also help us to make decisions, manage stress, and regulate our behavior.

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What is icd 10 chronic sinusitis ?

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ICD-10 code J32. 9 Chronic sinusitis, unspecified.

A website sponsored by which of the following is likely to provide accurate and thorough information?

Answers

Information from the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services(U.S. HHS) is probably accurate and comprehensive.

What is part of the US Department of Health and Human Services?

HHS implements social service, civil rights, and healthcare security programs in addition to offering human services. The Centers of Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the Food and Drug Agency (FDA) are two of the HHS's most well-known departments (FDA).

What is the role of the US Department of Health Services?

The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services' (HHS) goal is to improve and maintain the health and welfare of any and all Americans. For excellent health and human services, together with our support of advancements in global health.

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What is the ICD 10 code for chronic kidney disease?

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Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is classified as N18 in the International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision (ICD-10) system.

A critical organ that is essential to preserving the body's general health and wellbeing is the kidney. It is in charge of cleansing the blood, getting rid of waste, and maintaining fluid balance. The generation of hormones, control of red blood cell production, and blood pressure regulation are all important functions of the kidneys. Kidney dysfunction can cause a number of health issues, including chronic kidney disease, kidney stones, and kidney infections. If left untreated, these disorders can be extremely uncomfortable and even life-threatening. As a result, it's crucial to keep your kidneys healthy by drinking plenty of water, eating a balanced diet, and abstaining from dangerous substances like tobacco and alcohol.

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What is the ICD-10 code for neck and back pain?

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The ICD-10 code for neck pain is M54.2, and the ICD-10 code for back pain is M54.5.

However, it's important to note that these codes only provide a general category for the pain, and more specific codes may be needed to accurately describe the condition. Additionally, these codes should only be used by qualified healthcare professionals for medical coding and billing purposes. If you are experiencing neck or back pain, it's important to seek medical advice from a healthcare provider.

Mild neck pain can often be treated with rest, ice or heat therapy, and over-the-counter pain medications. Physical therapy or chiropractic care may also be recommended to help alleviate neck pain. In more severe cases, prescription pain medication, injections, or surgery may be necessary.

It's important to seek medical attention if neck pain is severe, lasts for an extended period, or is accompanied by other symptoms such as fever, weakness, or difficulty breathing.

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What causes an intra articular fracture?

Answers

A intraarticular fracture of a ulnar (volar) section of the distal radius, typically brought on by the lunate pressing directly against the lunate fossa.

An intra articular fracture is what?

A fracture that pierces the surface of a joint is called an intraarticular fracture. These fractures also result in some cartilage loss. Because numerous bones are involved, fractures of joints are more difficult to treat or heal than simple fractures.

Can a fracture within an articular joint heal without surgery?

The majority of intra-articular DRF cases necessitate surgical intervention since these fragments frequently had displacements of >2 mm and were frequently accompanied by several fragments on the articular surface.

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What are the 4 parts in order for abdominal assessment?

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The four parts in order for abdominal assessment are as follows:

Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation.

Inspection include looking for any apparent anomalies in the abdomen, such as scars, distention, lumps, or visible pulsations.

Auscultation is the process of listening to bowel noises with a stethoscope. Bowel sounds can offer information regarding bowel movement, and the absence or hyperactivity of bowel sounds may suggest underlying gastrointestinal disorders.

Percussion is a technique that includes tapping on the abdomen to examine the density and resonance of the underlying organs. The ensuing noises can aid in the identification of organ location and size, as well as the detection of fluid or air in the abdominal cavity.

Palpation is the process of feeling the belly with the hands for any anomalies such as lumps, discomfort, or organ enlargement. Palpation can also be used to evaluate the consistency and texture of the abdominal organs, as well as to identify any regions of pain or discomfort.

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A left atrial pressure of approximately 25 mm Hg increases pulmonary capillary pressure enough to produce pulmonary edema. True/False?

Answers

The given statement is true that "a left atrial pressure of approximately 25 mm Hg increases pulmonary capillary pressure enough to produce pulmonary edema" because the flow of the valve increases which increases the pressure.

Pulmonary pressure is a form of high blood pressure that particularly affects the arteries of the lungs and the right side of the heart. These arteries are responsible for carrying oxygen poor blood from the heart to the lungs.

Pulmonary Edema is the condition of swelling in the lungs due to accumulation of fluids in the air sacs. Breathing becomes very difficult for a person suffering from pulmonary edema.

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What is the ICD 10 code for onycholysis?

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Onycholysis is identified by the ICD-10 code L60.1. The disorder known as onycholysis causes the nail plate to lift or detach as the fingernail or toenail separates from the nail bed.

A medical disease called onycholysis can separate a fingernail or toenail from the nail bed. The detachment can result in pain, irritation, and a deformed appearance of the nail. It can also become partially or entirely loose. Injuries, infections, underlying medical illnesses like psoriasis, thyroid problems, and connective tissue abnormalities, as well as the use of specific medications, are only a few of the causes of onycholysis. Onycholysis can be treated with antibiotic therapy, antifungal therapy, steroid creams, and oral medication, depending on the underlying reason. Keep your nails dry and clean, don't use too much nail polish, and wear gloves when doing manual labour as preventive measures. Early diagnosis and treatment can help preserve healthy nails and stop subsequent issues.

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Errors and omissions insurance, also known as E&O insurance and professional liability insurance, helps protect you from lawsuits claiming you made a mistake in your professional services. This insurance can help cover your court costs or settlements, which can be very costly for your business to pay on its own.

Answers

Errors and omissions insurance, sometimes referred to as E&O insurance or professional liability insurance, aids in defending you and your business from accusations that you rendered professional services in error.

If a customer or client makes a claim against your small business, this coverage may be able to help cover the costs. A client receiving poor advice from an accountant and resulting in a substantial financial loss is one example of an errors and omissions claim.

The client consequently accuses the proprietor of the accounting firm of negligence and files a lawsuit. An errors and omissions insurance policy aids in defending against allegations that the professional services rendered by your company were subpar.

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How many calories are in a slice of PAPA JOHNS pizza?

Answers

One slice (117.000g) of PAPA JOHN'S 14" Pizza, Original Crust contains 304 calories. 32% of the calories come from fat, 50% from carbs, and 18% from protein.

Is pizza thought to be healthy?

It is also unhealthy. Pizza can range in nutritional value from being a diet disaster to being a great choice, depending on the kind of crust, the quantity of cheese, and the toppings chosen. Pizzas, even the healthiest ones, contain a significant amount pf sodium from the cheese and tomato sauce, so if you're limiting you salt intake, then should consume cautiously.

How many calorie are there in two large pizza slices?

While two large slices of cheese pizza might appear to be a tasty treat, they really contain 475 calories, or about 25% of the daily recommended intake. You may help guarantee you were getting all the necessary nutrients for just a balanced diet by paying attention to the% Daily Value in particular items.

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can dogs eat mandarin oranges

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It is recommended to only feed mandarin oranges to dogs in small amounts, and to remove the peel and seeds before feeding. Mandarin oranges are generally safe for dogs to eat in moderation, as they are a good source of vitamin C and dietary fiber.

However, they are also high in sugar, which can cause digestive issues and weight gain in dogs if consumed in large quantities. In addition, the peel and seeds of mandarin oranges can be difficult for dogs to digest and may cause gastrointestinal upset or blockages if ingested. It's also important to note that some dogs may be allergic to citrus fruits, so it's best to introduce them gradually and monitor for any adverse reactions.

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choose the statement that best describes staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome.A. Its an exotoxin-meidated sisease that can be compared to a systemic form of impetigoB. Its present as a generalized pustular rash C. Bacteria spread, causing necrotic damage of the tissue and gas productionD. It is cause bt microbial digestion of excess sebum trapped in the pores of the skin

Answers

The definition of Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS) that best captures the condition is "It is an exotoxin-mediated disease that is comparable to a systemic form of impetigo."

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome A uncommon but deadly skin illness known as Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome is brought on by specific strains of the Staphylococcus aureus bacteria, which produce an exotoxin. Exotoxin-induced skin separation and widespread blistering can give the affected skin the appearance of having been burned. Although SSSS is far more severe and common, it is sometimes compared to a systemic variant of impetigo, a skin infection that results in blisters and ulcers.Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome is not accurately described by the other claims made in the list. Statement B does not provide a complete description of the illness, although it does mention a generalized pustular rash that can be a symptom of SSSS. Statement C, which talks about gas production and necrotic tissue damage, is not particular to SSSS and could apply to a variety of other skin conditions. SSSS is not at all related to Statement D, which specifies a cause of microbial digestion of excess sebum stuck in the skin pores.

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What are the health benefits of eating vegetarian?

Answers

Answer:

A well-balanced vegetarian or vegan diet can provide many health benefits, such as a reduced risk of chronic diseases, including:

•obesity.

•coronary heart disease.

•hypertension (high blood pressure)

•diabetes.

•some types of cancer.

Explanation:

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why a nurse is providing care for an uncircumcised male newborn and his mother?

Answers

A nurse may provide care for an uncircumcised male newborn and his mother to support their health and well-being.

A nurse plays an important role in caring for an uncircumcised male newborn and his mother. This may include educating the mother on proper hygiene and care of the uncircumcised, assisting with the first circumcision care, monitoring the newborn's overall health, assisting with bonding and attachment between the mother and newborn, and answering any questions or concerns the mother may have. The goal of a nurse in this situation is to provide resources and support for the health and well-being of both the newborn and the mother.

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Other Questions
Charlie reads quickly. He reads 1371 73 1, start fraction, 3, divided by, 7, end fraction pages every 2332 start fraction, 2, divided by, 3, end fraction minutes. Charlie reads at a constant rate. What is the difference between legitimate and illegitimate violence? Use Kruskal's algorithm to find a minimum spanning tree for the following graph. Indicate the order in which edges are added to form the tree. (Enter your answer as a comma-separated list of sets.)A graph with 8 vertices and 12 edges is shown.One edge with weight 12 connects vertex v0 and vertex v1.One edge with weight 4 connects vertex v0 and vertex v5.One edge with weight 20 connects vertex v1 and vertex v2.One edge with weight 5 connects vertex v1 and vertex v3.One edge with weight 7 connects vertex v1 and vertex v4.One edge with weight 19 connects vertex v2 and vertex v7.One edge with weight 2 connects vertex v3 and vertex v4.One edge with weight 18 connects vertex v3 and vertex v7. Which is TRUE regarding a letter that a resident, Mr. Jones, received from a friend?The nurse can open the letter without permission from Mr. JonesMr. Jones can give permission for the CNA to open the letterResidents are not allowed to receive mailThe letter must be given to his family before opening it Why does the atomic radius decrease on moving left to right along a period? What is the mean of this set 0,3,6,9,11,13,14 This activity is important because trends and events that impact the economy also create opportunities and challenges forecasting the optimal number of human resources in an organization at any given time. The keys to utilizing labor markets for the organization's own competitive advantages are (1) to have a clear idea of the strengths and weaknesses of its existing internal labor force, (2) to be aware of where the company is going in the future and how the current configuration of human resources relates to what it will need in the future, and (3) to know where discrepancies exist between current staffing levels and those needed in the future to meet organizational goals.The first step in the human resource planning process is forecasting. Forecasting is an attempt to determine the supply and demand for various types of human resources to predict within the organization where there will be future labor shortages and surpluses. Historical statistical models and judgmental techniques are used for forecasting labor supply and demand. One type of statistical procedure that can be used for this purpose is the analysis of a transitional matrix, which is a chart that lists job categories held in one period and shows the proportion of employees in each of those same categories in a future period. The goal of this activity is to complete the transitional matrix to forecast labor supply and demand for several marketing positions within an organization.Instructions: Match the prompt describing the proportion of marketing employees at different times to the appropriate transitional matrix label. Use the information below to inform your answers.{Maintain Manager Position: 65 percent of sales managers in 2015 were still sales managers in 2018.Manager Promotion: 20 percent of sales reps in 2015 were promoted to sales managers in 2018.Apprentice-Manager Promotion: 10 percent of sales apprentices in 2015 were promoted to sales managers in 2018.Manager New Hire: 5 percent of sales managers in 2018 were not with the organization in 2015.Manager-Rep Demotion: None of the sales managers in 2015 were demoted to sales reps in 2018.Maintain Rep Position: 60 percent of sales reps in 2015 were still sales reps in 2018.Apprentice-Rep Promotion: 30 percent of sales apprentices in 2015 were promoted to sales reps in 2018.Rep New Hire: 10 percent of sales reps in 2018 were not with the organization in 2015.Manager-Apprentice Demotion: None of the sales managers in 2015 were demoted to a sales apprentice in 2018.Rep-Apprentice Demotion: None of the sales reps in 2015 were demoted to sales apprentices in 2018.Maintain Apprentice Position: 15 percent of sales apprentices in 2015 were still sales apprentices in 2018.Apprentice New Hire: 85 percent of sales apprentices in 2018 were not with the organization in 2015.Manager Turnover: 35 percent of sales managers in 2015 were no longer with the organization in 2018.Rep Turnover: 20 percent of sales reps in 2015 were no longer with the organization in 2018.Apprentice Turnover: 45 percent of sales apprentices in 2015 were no longer with the organization in 2018.}[1.)Maintain Apprentice Position2.)Manager-Rep Demotion3.)Rep-Apprentice Demotion4.)Manager Turnover5.)Manager-Apprentice Demotion6.)Manager New Hire7.)Rep-Manager Promotion8.)Apprentice Turnover9.)Rep Turnover10.)Maintain Manager Position11.)Maintain Rep Position12.)Apprentice-Manager Promotion13.)Rep New Hire14.)Apprentice-Rep Promotion15.)Apprentice New Hire](HW) the lattice enthalpy of licl is positive, indicating that it takes energy to break the ions apart in licl. however, the dissolution of licl in water is an exothermic process. identify all particle-particle interactions that contribute significantly to the dissolution process being exothermic. for each interaction, include the particles that interact and the specific type of intermolecular force between those particles. What materials are broken down by the enzymes in the modification of barley? Which equation shows the same relationship as 1/2=3x1/6 which of the following is not a benefit of biodiversity: which of the following is not a benefit of biodiversity: medicine food invasive species tourism ecosystem services 1. Which of the following is not a variable cost?A. wages paid to laborB. seeds and fertilizers for paddy farmersC. rent on landD. electricity bills2. The average total cost of producing computers in a factory is RM500 at the currentoutput level of 100 units per week. If fixed cost equals RM10,000A. average fixed cost equals RM10,000.B. total cost equals RM60,000 per week.C. variable cost equals RM50,000 per week.D. average variable cost equals RM400.3. Which of these statements is false?A. There are no fixed costs in the long run.B. Total costs are equal to total fixed costs plus total variable costs.C. In the short run, all inputs are fixed inputs.D. A fixed cost is a cost that does not change as output changes.4. Economies of scale occurs if the firm's:A. long run average cost curve is horizontal.B. average cost increases as the firm expands its production.C. long run average cost decreases as the firm increases its output.D. long run average cost curve is upward-sloping.5. If total costs are RM200 for one unit of output and RM310 for two units, what is the marginal cost of thesecond unit?A. RM100B. RM110C. RM200D. RM2106. In the production of refrigerators, the item which represents variable costs is:A. the tax on the company's property.B. the salary of the night watchman.C. the cost of fuel and electric power.D. The insurance premium for the premises.7. The average total cost of producing computers in a factory is RM250 at the currentoutput level of 100 units per week. If fixed costs equal RM5,000A. average fixed cost equals RM50.B. total cost equals RM40,000 per week.C. variable cost equals RM10,000 per week.D. average variable cost equals RM400.9. The marginal cost of a good isA. the addition to total cost of producing one more unit of output.B. decreasing when average total cost is decreasing.C. the difference between average total cost and average fixed cost.D. always equal to average variable cost when the firm is maximizing profit. a group of similar tissues that perform a similar function is which operator do you use to call the constructor of an instantiable class and create an object? which of the following birth outcomes are possible as a result of prenatal exposure to airborne polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (pahs)? select all that are true. in tachistoscopic studies, a poststimulus mask is usually employed to airlines sometimes overbook flights. suppose that for a plane with 50 seats, 55 passengers have tickets. define the random variable y as the number of ticketed passengers who actually show up for the flight. the probability mass function of y appears in the accompanying table. y 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 p(y) 0.05 0.10 0.13 0.14 0.25 0.16 0.06 0.05 0.03 0.02 0.01 (a) what is the probability that the flight will accommodate all ticketed passengers who show up? (b) what is the probability that not all ticketed passengers who show up can be accommodated? (c) if you are the first person on the standby list (which means you will be the first one to get on the plane if there are any seats available after all ticketed passengers have been accommodated), what is the probability that you will be able to take the flight? what is this probability if you are the third person on the standby list? Computer-Why do people use PDF over word document What is an example of rhetorical context? According to the federal regulations, which of the following studies meets the definition of research with human subjects?A. A researcher uses the Customs Office's passenger lists for ships bringing immigrants to the US between 1820-1845 to track the numbers of immigrants from certain ethnic groups.B. A researcher conducts a linguistic study of comments posted on a local public blog.C. A developmental psychologist videotapes interactions between groups of toddlers and their care givers to determine which intervention methods most effectively manage aggression.D. A researcher asks the director of a local free clinic about the number of patients in the last two years with newly diagnosed HIV/AIDS.