Which of the following does the Arizona State Board of Nursing have authority over?
a. Nursing education programs leading to licensure or certification
b. Nursing students and certified nursing assistant students
c. All nurse externs in approved nursing programs
d. Continuing education nursing programs

Answers

Answer 1

The Arizona State Board of Nursing have authority over nursing education programs leading to licensure or certification. Option A is correct.

A board of nursing is a regulatory organization that governs nursing practice within a certain territory, usually a state or province. The board normally authorizes and supervises nursing schools within its jurisdiction. With its jurisdiction, the board also controls all elements of nursing licensure. The National Council of State Boards of Nursing is made up of state and territory boards of nursing in the United States.

The Arizona State Board of Nursing's objective is to safeguard and promote the public's welfare by ensuring that each person holding a nursing license or certificate is qualified to practice safely. In 1952, the State Board of Nursing Registration and Nursing Education was established. Hence Option A. Nursing education programs leading to licensure or certification is the correct option.

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Related Questions

What is the medical abbreviation blood pressure

Answers

"BP" is the acronym used in medicine for blood pressure. When referring to blood in medical records or lab test results, the acronym "Bld" or "Bl" may be used.What is the medical abbreviation blood pressure

An abbreviation is a condensed version of a word or phrase that serves as a substitute for the longer version. Abbreviations are extensively used in numerous sectors, including medical, research, and technology. The initial letter of each word of a phrase, such as "NASA" for "National Aeronautics and Space Administration," the abbreviation "Dr." for "Doctor," or symbols, such as "" for "about," can be used to create them. While abbreviations can be helpful for saving time and space, if their meanings are unclear, they can also cause misunderstanding and poor communication.

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the average healthy adult is ________ percent water.

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Answer: the average healthy adult is 70 percent water.

does high mcv mean cancer

Answers

Ongoing investigations have tracked down a relationship between high MCV and the visualization of colorectal, esophageal, and liver malignant growths.

Somewhat recently, platelet actuation has been viewed as a significant stage during the time spent on carcinogenesis and metastasis.

Raised MCV level was connected with an expanded gamble of liver malignant growth mortality in men (aHR, 3.55; 95% CI, 1.75-7.21).

Besides, a high MCV is related to expanded all-cause mortality and malignant growth mortality in non-iron deficient disease-free people.

Folate inadequacy stays the most widely recognized factor for high MCV. Indeed, even the related infections to raised MCV connect to the malabsorption of vitamins B12 and B9.

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how to reverse prediabetes naturally

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Blood sugar levels that are higher than normal but not high enough to be categorised as diabetes are called prediabetes. Strive for 150 minutes or more per week of moderate-intensity exercise, such as brisk walking.

Blood sugar levels that are higher than normal but not high enough to be categorised as type 2 diabetes are called prediabetes. It raises the risk of type 2 diabetes and is a symptom that the body's capacity to control blood sugar levels is compromised. Because prediabetes frequently has no symptoms, many people might not be aware that they have it. Being overweight or obese, having a family history of diabetes, being physically sedentary, having high blood pressure or high cholesterol are all risk factors for developing prediabetes. Weight loss, regular exercise, and a nutritious diet can help reverse prediabetes and stop the formation of type 2 diabetes.

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when a person is still, blood accumulates in the limbs because venous pressure is not high enough to override the weight of the blood and drive it upward. t/f

Answers

Answer:

True is the correct answer.

Explanation:

What is something to depress the central nervous system to produce sleep?

Answers

A number of drugs can be used to calm the central nervous system and induce sleep, including:

Benzodiazepines: These often prescribed tranquilizers function by boosting the action of the neurotransmitter GABA, which slows it down brain activity and has a calming effect. Valium, Xanax, and Ativan are benzodiazepines examples.

Non-benzodiazepine hypnotics: Also known as "Z-drugs," these drugs function very similarly to benzodiazepines but have a somewhat different chemical makeup. Ambien, Lunesta, and Sonata are a few examples of non-benzodiazepine hypnotics.

Antidepressants: Due to their calming characteristics, several antidepressants, such as mirtazapine and tricyclic antidepressants, can be used to promote sleep.

Antihistamines: OTC antihistamines, such diphenhydramine (Benadryl), can make you sleepy and are occasionally used as sleep aids.

It is crucial to remember that while these drugs may be useful for encouraging sleep, they can also have negative side effects and even develop a habit. Long-term use can also cause tolerance and reduced effectiveness. Therefore, it is preferable to use these medications as little as possible and only when directed by a healthcare professional.

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use of cold in the treatment of disease medical term is called?

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Cryotherapy, which is also known as cold therapy is basically the use of cold in treatment of diseases.

Cryotherapy, which is also sometimes called cold therapy, is basically the general use of low temperatures in the treatment of diseases in the medical therapy. Cryotherapy can be possible used in order to treat a number of tissue lesions. The most common use of the term basically is associated with the surgical treatment, which is specifically known as the cryosurgery or also as cryoablation.

Cryotherapy is often used in order to relieve muscle pain, sprains as well as swelling after there is a damage in the soft tissue damage or during a surgery. This type of therapy has also been very commonly used in order to accelerate recovery among athletes after exercise.

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What is ORIF medical abbreviation?

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ORIF stands for Open Reduction Internal Fixation. This is a medical procedure that is used to fix a broken bone. It involves the use of metal plates, screws, or pins to hold the bone in place while it heals.

This procedure is typically performed under general anaesthesia and requires a surgical incision to access the broken bone.

ORIF is often used for fractures that are too severe to be treated with a cast or splint. The goal of ORIF is to restore the normal alignment and function of the broken bone.

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What does it mean to be Egocentrism?

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Narcissistic: restricted in standpoint or worry to one's own exercises or needs. : being narcissistic or narrow-minded. egocentrically.

Playing find the stowaway is an extraordinary illustration of egocentrism. A preschool-matured kid will "stow away" from you - however some of the time not successfully. For instance, you could see them groveled down in a corner with their eyes covered, or under a bed with the vast majority of their body standing out!

Egocentrism is an outrageous type of self-centeredness. Therapists portray it as a condition of being not able to see things according to anybody's point of view with the exception of your own. While egocentrism is viewed as ordinary in exceptionally small kids, it very well may be a genuine issue in completely developed grown-ups who think the world rotates around them.

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Question 1 (Mandatory) (5 points)
How do you achieve wellness?
*Include the definition of wellness in your answer and give examples.

Answers

Wellness refers to the state of being in good physical and mental health and involves taking a proactive approach to maintain and improve one's health and wellbeing, examples include eating a balanced diet, exercising, etc.

What is wellness?

It can be gained by several methods, such as engaging in regular physical activity, which can help improve cardiovascular health; relaxation techniques such as meditation, deep breathing, etc., which improve the mental status; and avoiding risky behaviors such as smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, etc., which would lead to wellness.

Hence, it is a state of being in good physical and mental health and involves taking a proactive approach to maintain and improve one's health and wellbeing, an examples include eating a balanced diet, exercising, etc.

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A left atrial pressure of approximately 25 mm Hg increases pulmonary capillary pressure enough to produce pulmonary edema. True/False?

Answers

The given statement is true that "a left atrial pressure of approximately 25 mm Hg increases pulmonary capillary pressure enough to produce pulmonary edema" because the flow of the valve increases which increases the pressure.

Pulmonary pressure is a form of high blood pressure that particularly affects the arteries of the lungs and the right side of the heart. These arteries are responsible for carrying oxygen poor blood from the heart to the lungs.

Pulmonary Edema is the condition of swelling in the lungs due to accumulation of fluids in the air sacs. Breathing becomes very difficult for a person suffering from pulmonary edema.

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If the semi-perimeter of a circle is 36 cm, then what is the area of that semicircle?

Answers

The area of the semicircle is approximately 207.02 square centimeters.

The semi-perimeter of a circle is half the circumference of the circle, which is equal to half of 2πr, where r is the radius of the circle. Therefore, if the semi-perimeter of a circle is 36 cm, then the circumference of the circle is 2*36=72 cm.

The formula for the area of a semicircle is (πr^2)/2, where r is the radius of the circle. Since we have the circumference of the circle, we can use the formula for the circumference to find the radius:

C = 2πr

72 cm = 2πr

r = 72 cm / (2π) ≈ 11.46 cm

Now that we know the radius of the circle, we can find the area of the semicircle:

A = (πr^2)/2

A = (π*(11.46 cm)^2)/2

A ≈ 207.02 cm^2

Therefore, the area of the semicircle is approximately 207.02 square centimeters.

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What causes an intra articular fracture?

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A intraarticular fracture of a ulnar (volar) section of the distal radius, typically brought on by the lunate pressing directly against the lunate fossa.

An intra articular fracture is what?

A fracture that pierces the surface of a joint is called an intraarticular fracture. These fractures also result in some cartilage loss. Because numerous bones are involved, fractures of joints are more difficult to treat or heal than simple fractures.

Can a fracture within an articular joint heal without surgery?

The majority of intra-articular DRF cases necessitate surgical intervention since these fragments frequently had displacements of >2 mm and were frequently accompanied by several fragments on the articular surface.

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Use the Seasons & Limits menu to visit the Deer Seasons and Bag Limits page, and then use the chart provided to locate the section for deer. What is the daily bag limit and what is one difference between Zone A and Zone B?

Answers

Deer Seasons and Bag Limits page:

Zone A

Archery season: DMU A2: July 30 – Aug. 7, DMU A3: July 30 – Aug. 14

Crossbow season: DMU A2: July 30 – Aug. 7, DMU A3: July 30 – Aug. 14

Youth deer hunt weekend: DMU A2 and DMU A3: Sept. 10–11 1

General gun season: DMU A2: Nov. 19–20, DMU A3: Nov. 19–22

Zone B

Archery season: Oct. 15 – Nov. 13

Crossbow season: Oct. 15 – Nov. 13

Youth deer hunt weekend: Nov. 26–27 1

General gun season: Dec. 30 – Jan. 1

Daily bag limit: 2 deer

Deer may be caught with or without antlers throughout the periods of the archery and crossbow seasons when this is permitted.There can only be one deer without antlers during antlerless deer seasons (see Deer Management Units).Only antlered deer are permitted to be taken in all other seasons. Only antlerless deer tags or permits may be used to harvest antlerless deer.

Hence above given is a correct answer.

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Who can complete a NIH stroke scale certification?

Answers

The NIH stroke scale can be performed by EMS experts, doctors, and medical caretakers who are NIH stroke scale assured. For the causes behind this course, the specialist is alluded to as a medical caretaker.

The NIH Stroke Scale Preparing Project is intended to permit medical services suppliers to get back to the course after assigned time stretches to invigorate their abilities and exhibit their proceeded with the dominance of this instrument by effectively evaluating a progression of test situations.

As a Guaranteed far-reaching stroke focus, documentation of the Public Establishment of Wellbeing Stroke Scale (NIHSS) is expected in something like 12 hours of confirmation. Medical caretakers are expected to follow through with a web-based course to be guaranteed in the NIHSS.

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What is the ICD-10 code for urinary incontinence without sensory awareness?

Answers

The ICD-10 code for urinary incontinence without sensory awareness is R32. This code is used to indicate that the patient is experiencing involuntary leakage of urine, but without the sensation of needing to urinate.

This type of urinary incontinence is also referred to as "reflex incontinence" and is commonly associated with neurological conditions such as spinal cord injuries or multiple sclerosis. The R32 code falls under the category of Symptoms, Signs, and Abnormal Clinical and Laboratory Findings, Not Elsewhere Classified. It is important to accurately document and code for urinary incontinence without sensory awareness to ensure appropriate diagnosis, treatment, and billing of medical services provided to the patient.

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What is the ICD-10 code for urinary retention with BPH?

Answers

The ICD-10 code for urinary retention with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is N13.8

The cause of BPH is not entirely clear, but it is believed to be related to changes in the balance of hormones in the body as men age. There are several treatment options for BPH, depending on the severity of symptoms and the size of the prostate gland.

Mild symptoms may be managed with lifestyle changes such as limiting fluid intake, avoiding caffeine and alcohol, and practicing double voiding (urinating twice in a row). Medications such as alpha-blockers and 5-alpha reductase inhibitors may also be prescribed to help alleviate symptoms.

In more severe cases, surgery may be necessary to remove the excess prostate tissue and improve urine flow. It's important to seek medical attention if you experience symptoms of BPH to rule out other more serious conditions such as prostate cancer.

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What is Meyer's loop in the brain?

Answers

Meyer's loop, also known as the optic radiation, is a bundle of nerve fibers in the brain that carries visual information from the retina to the occipital lobe, the part of the brain is responsible for the refining of visual information.

Specifically, Meyer's loop refers to the portion of the optic radiation that extends from the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) in the thalamus to the primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe. The LGN receives information from the retina and processes it before sending it on to the primary visual cortex via Meyer's loop.

Damage to Meyer's loop can result in visual field deficits, which can manifest as a loss of vision in the upper or lower quadrant of the visual field depending on the location of the damage. This can occur as a result of various conditions such as tumors, strokes, or head injuries, among others.

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What is brand that is known for manufacturing baseball and softball

Answers

The brand known for producing baseball and softball apparel and equipment is called Rawlings.

Brand that is recognised for making baseball and softball apparel and equipment. Among the 1 possible solutions we have located for the crossword clue Brand that is recognized for making baseball and softball clothes and equipment is Rawlings.

Although it is hard to solve these crosswords, it is worth it for stimulation of your brain in day to day practice and strengthening your muscle memories. These crosswords will also help you to encourage your higher order mental skill of prefrontal cortex.

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is a model for designing an exercise program that is often
shortened to the acronym FITT.
A. Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type
B. Fitness Is The Ticket
C. Frequency In Tough Training
D. Fast Intense Training Together

Answers

Answer:

option A

Explanation:

How does hand washing prevent infection?

Answers

Answer:

Hand washing prevents infection by washing not only killing the germs and bacteria in a wound but also washing them away.

Explanation:

The most powerful supinator of the arm is
(a) Biceps brachii
(b) Coracobrachialis
(c) Brachialis
(d) Triceps.

Answers

The most powerful supinator of the arm is Biceps brachii. Option A is correct.

The biceps, also known as the biceps brachii, is a big muscle located on the front of the upper arm between the shoulder and the elbow. Both muscle heads come from the scapula and combine to produce a single muscular belly that attaches to the upper forearm. While the biceps spans the shoulder and elbow joints, its primary role is at the elbow, where it flexes and supinates the forearm. When opening a bottle with a corkscrew, both of these actions are used: first, the biceps screws in the cork (supination), then it pulls the cork out (flexion).

The biceps is one of three muscles in the upper arm's anterior compartment, together with the brachialis and the coracobrachialis, which share a nerve supply. The biceps muscle contains two heads: the short head and the long head, which are characterised by their origins in the scapula's coracoid process and supraglenoid tubercle, respectively.

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What is the ICD-10 code for history of MRSA infection?

Answers

The ICD-10 code for a history of MRSA infection is Z86.14. This code is used to indicate a diagnosis of personal history of MRSA infection.

The ICD-10 code is a standardized code used by healthcare professionals to classify and code diagnoses, symptoms, and procedures. It is important to accurately document and code a patient's medical history in order to provide appropriate treatment and care.

In this case, the ICD-10 code Z86.14 is used to indicate a history of MRSA infection, which is important information for healthcare providers to know in order to prevent future infections and provide appropriate treatment.

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Which patient is most at risk of developing permanently impaired mobility?A. A 72-year-old woman hospitalized for anemia associated with diabetic nephropathy (kidney disease)B. A 55-year-old woman with mental illness who had become malnourishedC. An 11-year-old boy who sustained a fractured pelvis during a fall from his tree houseD. A 79-year-old man recovering from surgery to release a contracture of the connective tissue in his hand

Answers

Hospitalised for anaemia linked to diabetic nephropathy was a woman, 72. (kidney disease). Hence option 'A' is correct.

Anemia: what is it?

When you have anaemia, your body doesn't produce sufficient healthy 'red blood cells' to supply your tissues with enough oxygen. Being anaemic, or having low haemoglobin, can leave you feeling exhausted and frail. Anemia can have many different forms, each with a unique aetiology.

What effects does anemia have on a person?

Your body does not receive enough oxygen-rich blood if you have anemia. You may feel exhausted or weak due to a lack of oxygen. Additionally, you can get headaches, nausea, or shortness of breath.

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What are the health benefits of eating vegetarian?

Answers

Answer:

A well-balanced vegetarian or vegan diet can provide many health benefits, such as a reduced risk of chronic diseases, including:

•obesity.

•coronary heart disease.

•hypertension (high blood pressure)

•diabetes.

•some types of cancer.

Explanation:

Hope this helps! :)

Benedict's reagent starts out aqua-blue. As it is heated in the presence of reducing sugars, it turns yellow to orange. True/False?

Answers

It is true that Benedict's reagent starts out aqua-blue. As it is heated in the presence of reducing sugars, it turns yellow to orange.

Benedict's reagent is a chemical reagent composed of sodium carbonate, sodium citrate, and pentahydrate copper(II) sulphate. It is widely used in place of Fehling's solution to identify the presence of reducing sugars. The addition of other reducing chemicals yields a good outcome as well. It is named after Stanley Rossiter Benedict, an American scientist.

Benedict's test, in general, identifies the presence of aldehydes, alpha-hydroxy-ketones, and hemiacetals, including those seen in some ketoses. Although ketose fructose is not precisely a reducing sugar, it is an alpha-hydroxy-ketone and produces a positive test because the base in the reagent transforms it to the aldoses glucose and mannose.

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How do you properly do a face pull?

Answers

Face pulls are a great exercise to target the muscles of the upper back, shoulders, and rotator cuff.

Attach a rope or band to a cable machine at a height above your head. Grab the rope with an overhand grip and step back so that there is tension on the rope or band.

Keep your feet shoulder-width apart and your knees slightly bent.

Pull the rope towards your face by pulling your elbows back and squeezing your shoulder blades together.

As you pull the rope towards your face, focus on keeping your upper arms parallel to the ground.

Pause for a second with the rope near your face, then slowly lower it back to the starting position.

When performing a face pull, it's important to focus on proper form and avoid using momentum or swinging your body to pull the rope. Start with lighter weights and gradually increase the resistance as you become more comfortable with the exercise. It's also important to keep your core engaged and maintain good posture throughout the movement.

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Which procedure is a surgical procedure of the pleural cavity?

Answers

The procedure that is used for the pleural cavity surgery is Pleurodesis

Pleurodesis is a procedure performed to close the chest cavity to prevent recurrent pleural effusion or pneumothorax or to treat persistent pneumothorax. A thoracotomy is performed with a 6-8 inch incision in the chest and is recommended for pleural effusions when the infection is present. A thoracotomy is performed to remove all fibrous tissue and to clear the pleural space of infection. Pleurodesis is usually done under general anesthesia. This procedure requires the surgeon to operate inside the thoracic cavity to temporarily empty the lungs. Before the procedure:

Medications are given to prevent pain and help you relax. 

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Disease which causes blood cells to be abnormally shaped is called:________

Answers

Answer: Sickle Cell Disease

Explanation :Red blood cells are usually round and flexible. In sickle cell anemia, some red blood cells look like sickles used to cut wheat. These unusually shaped cells give the disease its name.Mar 9, 2022

Are cable face pulls for shoulders?

Answers

Yes, cable face pulls can be a great exercise for targeting the shoulders, particularly the posterior (rear) deltoids.

Cable face pulls are performed by attaching a rope or handle to a cable machine at about head height and pulling the rope or handle towards your face while keeping your elbows high and wide.

The movement primarily targets the rear deltoids, which are responsible for shoulder extension and external rotation. Additionally, cable face pulls can also help strengthen the rotator cuff muscles, which can help improve shoulder stability and reduce the risk of injury.

However, it's important to note that while cable face pulls can be a useful exercise for shoulder development, they should be incorporated into a well-rounded workout program that includes exercises targeting other muscle groups as well.

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